FRCR 2A > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

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1
Q

Infiltrative HCC arterial phase MRI appearances?

A

Iso/hypointense, minimal, patchy (unlike nodular and massive HCC)

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2
Q

What is Lofgren syndrome?

A

Acute sarcoidosis - erythema nodosum, hilar lymphadenopathy, polyarthralgia

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3
Q

Fallen fragment sign associated with which bone lesion?

A

Simple bone cyst (fracture)

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4
Q

Cancers causing hyper vascular liver metastasis?

A

Melanoma, RCC, thyroid, breast

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5
Q

Rim sign in the kidney? (2)

A
  1. Indicates renovascular compromise (renal artery obstruction)
  2. Chronic hydronephrosis
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6
Q

Most typical CNS manifestation of sarcoidosis?

A

Leptomeningeal enhancement

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7
Q

Enhancement of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma vs HCC?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma - gradual and delayed enhancement

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8
Q

Greater trochanter lesion occurring post trauma with separation of the fatty tissue from fascia?

A

Morel-Lavallee

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9
Q

Most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism? 1st and 2nd?

A
  1. Thyroid dysgenesis
  2. Thyroid dyshormonogenesis
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10
Q

Affected tendons in De Quervain’s?

A

Abductor pollicis longus (APL)
Extensor pollicis brevis (EPB)

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11
Q

Perilunate dislocation features?

A

Dorsal loss of capitate alignment

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12
Q

Fibrolamellar HCC vs FNH central scar?

A

Fibrolamellar HCC: T1/T2 dark
FNH: T2 bright

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13
Q

MRS findings in prostate cancer?

A

Low citrate peak, high choline/creatine peak

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14
Q

Bone cyst location

A

Metaphyseal, intramedullary and central. Commonly proximal humerus and femur

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15
Q

Hepatic AML enhancement pattern?

A

Early intense contrast enhancement

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16
Q

Fat embolism CXR timeline?

A

Appears at 24-48 hr and clears in 7-10 days

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17
Q

Prostate cancer MRI findings?

A

High DWI, low ADC, low T2

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18
Q

Melorheostosis?

A

Irregular bone running down cortex, molten wax appearance

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19
Q

Prostate haemorrhage MRI?

A

T1 bright, T2 low

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20
Q

Flame-shaped lucency in medulla?

A

Acute Paget’s

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21
Q

Central scar MRI characteristics in FNH?

A

T2 bright with visible enhancement on delayed sequences

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22
Q

Cortical desmoid (Bufkin lesion)?

A

Periosteal reaction and irregular speculated periosteum in the posterior aspect of distal femur (bilateral)

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23
Q

Tuberous sclerosis CNS manifestations?

A

Subependymal hamartomas (calcify)
Giant cell astrocytoma
Cortical tubers
SEGA
Heterotopic grey in white matter

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24
Q

Kartagener’s triad?

A
  1. Situs invesus
  2. Bronchiectasis
  3. Chronic sinusitis
    (Primary ciliary dyskinesia)
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25
Most common malignant germ cell tumour?
Dysgerminoma
26
MRI appearances of biliary hamartomas?
T1 dark, T2 bright. Uniform in size up to 15mm
27
Most frequently affected joint in SAPHO disease?
Sternoclavicular
28
HSV encephalitis rad?
- Parenchymal oedema with patchy gyriform enhancement and areas of DR - Bilateral and asymmetric distribution of the limbic system (medial temporal lobes, hippocampus, etc.). BG typically spared
29
Empyema rad?
- Lenticular, obtuse angle with chest wall - Split pleura sign - Septations - Gas (not specific)
30
What is uterine dehiscence?
Incomplete rupture of uterine wall involving endometrium and myometrium with sparing of the serosal layer
31
Triad of McCune-Albright?
1. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia 2. Cafe au lait spots 3. Precocious puberty
32
Most common benign parotid lesion?
Pleomorphic adenoma
33
CNS manifestation of Sturge-Weber? MRI?
Pia mater angioma. Diffuse leptomeningeal enhancement and ipsilateral plexus enlargement
34
What is Mounier Kuhn syndrome?
Tracehobronchial dilatation due to muscular atrophy. Upper zone emphysema and lower zone bronchiectasis may be seen
35
Fishnet appearance to ovarian lesion?
Haemorrhagic cyst
36
Final region to myelinate?
Peri-trigonal region
37
Order of myelination?
Central to peripheral Caudal to rostral Dorsal to ventral
38
Which regions are myelinated by birth?
Brainstem, cerebellum, posterior limb of internal capsule
39
Causes of HPOA?
Fibroma Mesothelioma Bronchogenic carcinoma Lymphoma Chronic infection Pulmonary haemangiomas Asbestosis GI: Whipples, coeliac, Crohn's, liver disease
40
Most common cause of lucency around an impacted tooth?
Dentigerous cyst
41
Distribution of bronchiectasis in sarcoidosis?
Upper lobe predominant
42
US appearances of hydrosalpinx?
Tubular cystic structure, waist sign
43
Most common site for stress fractures of metatarsals?
Neck and distal shaft of 2nd and 3rd
44
Gradenigo syndrome triad?
Petrous apicitis 1. OM 2. CN VI palsy 3. Retro-orbital pain
45
Features of CNS toxoplasmosis (TORCH)?
Hydrocephalus Calcification of the basal ganglia
46
MRI features of muscle following denervation (acute and chronic)?
Acute: T1 dark, T2 bright (oedema) Chronic: T1 bright, T2 dark (fatty replacement)
47
What is trilateral retinoblastoma?
Retinoblastoma + pineoblastoma
48
Uterine didelphys appearance?
2 uterine cavities, 2 cervices, 2 vaginas
49
Which tibial stress fracture has a higher propensity for non-union?
Anterior (tension) side, seen in jumpers
50
Where does Morton neuroma most commonly occur?
Between 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads
51
Haemochromatosis bone findings?
- Hook-like osteophytes of 2nd and 3rd MC heads - Generalised osteoporosis - Iron deposition in synovium (arthropathy) - Joint space narrowing
52
Most common lung pattern seen in drug-induced lung disease?
NSIP
53
Amiodarone manifestations?
- Hyperdense liver - Hyperdense pulmonary opacities - NSIP pattern
54
Mucinous rectal tumours - DWI/ADC findings?
Low DWI and high ADC due to T2W effects
55
Most common lung injury pattern in bleomycin?
Diffuse alveolar injury (DAD)
56
Fat ring sign Dx?
Epiploic appendagitis
57
Morquio syndrome bone features?
- Central anterior vertebral beaking - Flattening of vertebral bodies - Pointed 5th MC base with notched appearance to ulnar aspect
58
Most common hereditary peripheral and sensory neuropathy?
Charcot Marie Tooth
59
Most common location of enteric duplication cysts?
Ileum
60
Pattern in pivot shift knee injury?
- Posterior aspect of the lateral tibial plateau - Lateral femoral condyle - ACL tear
61
Distribution of fibrotic changes in asbestosis?
Lower lobes
62
Location of juvenile angiofibroma?
Centred on pterygopalatine fossa
63
Causes of perilymphatic distribution nodules?
Sarcoidosis Lymphangitis carcinomatosis Silicosis LIP Amyloidosis
64
Most common cause of lymphangitis carcinomatosis?
Bronchogenic carcinoma (adeno)
65
Which organism are pneumatoceles commonly associated with in immunocompromised patients?
S aureus
66
Most common location of extradural spinal arachnoid cysts?
Mid-thoracic to lumbar level, posterior
67
Dx for low T1/high T2 lesion in close proximity to L4/L5 facet joint?
Synovial cyst
68
T2 and Gd+ appearances of inflammatory pseudo tumour?
T2: heterogeneous, central high signal, low signal periphery Gd+: ring-like
69
Carney triad?
1. Pulmonary chondroma 2. Extra-adrenal neuroblastomas 3. Gastric GIST
70
Most common type of bladder rupture and its appearance?
EXTRA-peritoneal. Flame-shaped extravasation of contrast with extension into space of Retzius
71
PMF vs cancer on MRI
PMF is low T1/T2 whereas cancer will be high T2
72
Currarino triad?
1. Anterior sacral mass 2. Anorectal malformation 3. Sacrococcygeal bony defect
73
Which canal does a hook of Hamate fracture narrow?
Guyen's canal
74
Tail gut cyst MR appearance?
High T1 (mucin content)
75
Rad of benign mesothleioma/solitary fibrous tumour?
T1 hypointense, T2 hyperintense, avid contrast enhancement (CT)
76
Cause of endosteal scalloping following arthroplasty?
Histiocytic response
77
Which syndrome are odontogenic keratocysts associated with?
Gorlin syndrome
78
Adamantinoma rad? | Bone
Multilocular, sclerosis and lysis seen in soap-bubble pattern, narrow ZoT, diaphysis
79
Site of pleural effusion in proximal thoracic duct transection?
Right-sided
80
Initial imaging modality for suspected CTEPH?
V/Q
81
What is the normal alpha angle?
≥60 degrees
82
Difference between Medulloblastoma and AT/RT?
MB: 6y/o, mets to spine AT/RT: <3y/o, calcification, rhabdoid in kidney
83
PXA vs ganglioglioma?
Both cortical and temporal lobe, cyst-and-nodule - PXA: teenagers, dural thickening - GG: teenager/young adult, bony scalloping
84
Rathke's cleft cyst rad?
- Cystic - Nodule (T1 bright, T2 dark) - Claw sign
85
Craniopharyngioma rad?
- Calcified - T1 bright (fat) - Solid elements which avidly enhance
86
Micro vs macroadenoma (pituitary)?
<1cm or >1cm Micro is hormonal presentation Macro - mass effect
87
Which neuro mass causes gelastic seizures and precocious puberty?
Hypothalamic hamartoma
88
What is a Malaigne fracture?
Fracture of the SIJ and ipsilateral ischiopubic ramus
89
Frieberg disease most commonly affects which MT?
2nd
90
Ductus diverticulum appearance?
- Anteromedial aortic isthmus bulge - Gently sloping
91
Appearance of SANT?
Splenic lesion, vascular, spoke wheel, nodular. Low T2 from haemosiderin
92
Achondroplasia features?
- Bullet vertebra - Spinal stenosis from short pedicles - Champagne glass pelvis - Trident hand
93
Flask-shaped outpouchings in oesophagus?
Pseudodiverticulosis
94
What CT perfusion findings confer salvageable brain?
Decreased CBF, normal/high CBV (MISMATCH)
95
Syndrome with short 4th MC and rib notching?
Turner
FRCR 2A
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