General Knowledge/Rules

Question 1

What are the IFR cruising levels?

Answer 1

West = Even 1000’s
East = Odd 1000’s

Question 2

When aerodrome lighting is required and PAL is not available, what is the requirement for lighting to be available?

Answer 2

Departure: 10 mins before until 30 mins after
Arrival: 30 mins before until end of taxi

Question 3

What is the min validity for a TAF at the arrival/alternate aerodrome

Answer 3

No less than 30 min before and 60 mins after planned ETA

Question 4

What is the IFR fuel requirements and how are they calculated?

Answer 4

+10% for each leg not including taxi fuel

Question 5

When departing an aerdrome, what are the requirements for tracking?

Answer 5

Must be established within 5NM

Unless departing via the SID

Question 6

What sources of QNH are considered accurate and how long are they valid for?

Answer 6

• ATC given
• ATIS
• AWIS
• CA/GRS
• WATIR
• AAIS

Valid for 15 mins

Question 7

When should the accuracy of the altimeter be checked?

Answer 7

At “some point” prior to take off

Question 8

What determines a positive fix?

Answer 8

• Passage over a NDB, VPR/TACAN, marker beacons or DME
• Intersection of two or more radials that are not greater than 45º separated

Question 9

What is required to be established reference a ground aid?

Answer 9

LOC/VOR/TACAN/RNP = Half scale deflection as shown
ND = +/- 5º
DME = +/- 2NM from ARC

Question 10

When must PAL be activated for landing/departure?

Answer 10

Departure: Before taxi
Approach: Within 15NM of the AD

Question 11

You are told to climb/descend, how long do you have to initiate and what RoC/RoD is required

Answer 11

• 1 minute
• Min 500ft/min

Question 12

Explain IFR separation for other aircraft in each class of airspace:

Answer 12

Class C: ATC seperate from IFR and VFR
Class D: ATC seperate from IFR and SVFR only
Class G: Pilots receive FIS but no separation, that is the pilots responsibility

Question 13

What is the tolerance for altimeters to be accurate within for IFR flight?

Answer 13

60ft

Question 14

Below what OAT does a correction need to be made to all procedure altitudes? (MDA/LSALT/IAF etc.)

Answer 14

-15ºC

Question 15

What/when are standard altimetry requirements across aircraft types?

Answer 15

• Leaving a cruising altitude (e.g. leaving 7000, descending 5000)
• 200ft prior to a cleared altitude
• 200ft prior to MDA/DA
• Passing every 1000ft and announcing OAT during climb (e.g. passing 4000, OAT is 12ºC)
• Announcing QNH changes

Question 16

For IFR “whiskey” routes, how is their LSALT calculated and what does that mean for you?

Answer 16

Calculated using GPS nav accuracy, if using a ground based nav aid/GPS fail/GPS loss these LSALTs cannot be used

Question 17

Explain how a 25NM MSA is calculated/what terrain clearance is provided?

Answer 17

• 25NM MSA considers terrain/obstacles out to 30NM however can only be applied within 25NM
• Provides 1000ft terrain/obstacle separation

Question 18

What is the difference between an MSA and an LSALT?

Answer 18

MSA = 1000ft from highest obstacle
LSALT = 1000ft from terrain + 360ft for potential unknown towers

Question 19

What is the obstacle clearance and circling area dimensions for class A, B, C and D aircraft?

Answer 19

A - 1.68 (300ft)
B - 2.66 (300ft)
C - 4.20 (400ft)
D - 5.23 (400ft)

Question 20

What are the missed approach criteria?

Answer 20

1. Outside half scale deflection (During the final segment of an instrument approach the aircraft is outside nav tolerances)
2. Radio failure/suspect failure below MSA (On approach when below MSA, the perf of the radio become suspect)
3. Not visual at or before the MAPt/DA (Visual reference is not established)
4. Not aligned and unable to circle (A landing cannot be effected from the runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted with Wx conditions allowing the circling approach)
5. Visual reference is lost while circling

Question 21

What does visual reference mean regarding the missed approach?

Answer 21

Visual reference means the runway threshold, lights or other identifiable features of the landing runway

Question 22

What is the take off minima?

Answer 22

Cloud: Clear until Vy
Vis: 550m (w/ RWY edge lighting at intervals less than 60m and centre line markings with a secondary power supply that switches over automatically)
If not, 800m vis is required

Question 23

Explain the process for a sector 1 entry into the hold?

Answer 23

Sect 1 = Big (Parallel)

Overfly the fix, track outbound for 1 minute, start a rate 1 turn towards the hold

Question 24

Explain the process for a sector 2 entry into the hold?

Answer 24

2 = small

Overhead the aid, turn onto a HDG 30º less than that of the “outbound legs inbound radial” start a timer for 1 minute, after 1 minute start a turn towards the inbound leg intercepting the outbound leg on the correct radial

Question 25

Explain the process for a sector 3 entry into the hold?

Answer 25

Sector 3 = biggest of them all If a full 180° turn (or greater) is required to take up the outbound heading, then commence turning immediately upon arriving overhead the fix. If, however, the turn to the outbound leg is less than 180°, then maintain heading until a positive back bearing is indicated and then commence a rate one turn.

Question 26

What circumstances allow pilots to skip the sector entry and hold and just turn directly inbound once overhead the fix?

Question 27

Under what conditions may a pilot descent below the circling MDA

Answer 27

A: The aircraft is within the circling area; and B: Maintains vis not less than the minimum specified on the chart; and C: Maintains visual contact with the “landing runway environment”; and D.1: By night OR day, when on the downwind, base or final legs able to make a continuous descent to the RWY, maintaining obstacle clearance until aligned with the RWY, using rates of descent and manoeuvres normal for the aircraft type *OR* D.2: In daylight only visual contact with obstacles along the flight path is maintained with obstacle clearance above the minimum until aligned with the runway

Question 28

In the hold, do you fly a heading or a track?

Answer 28

You fly a track

Question 29

You are IMC and suspect radio failure, what are your actions?

Answer 29

- Squawk 7600 and continue transmitting - Continue IAW last clearance