1
Q
PIC can disembark or refuse the carriage of? (2)
A
- person under influence of drug or alcohol where carriage is likely to endanger aircraft or its occupants
- a person on any part of cargo which in the opinion of the PIC is likely to endanger the aircraft or its occupants
2
Q
How long must daily flight records be kept by an operator?
A
12 months
3
Q
Who doesn’t need to complete the full set of daily flight records?
A
Air operators of small aeroplanes or helicopters
4
Q
Does the departure aerodrome need to be captured in a daily flight record?
A
Yes
5
Q
What minimum number of passengers before a flight attendant is carried?
A
19
6
Q
Flight attendant requirements for more than 19 pax for PART 91? (3)
A
More than 19- less than 51 = at least 1
More than 50 - Less than 101 = at least 2
More than 100 = at least two plus one for every 50 in addition to first 100
7
Q
Flight attendant not required when? (4)
A
- parachute ops
- balloon
- DHC6-300/310
- only pax more than 19 are children under 4 yrs old but less than 24
8
Q
Can’t operate in simulated IFR unless? (3)
A
- aircraft has two pilot stations and one occupied by a safety pilot who is holder of current pilot licence
- safety pilot has
a) adequate forward vision to each die of aircraft; or
b) a competent observer to supplement the vision of the safety pilot - aircraft has
a) fully functioning dual controls; or
b) pitch/roll/yaw/engine power can be operated from either pilot station
9
Q
If not equipped with dual controls how may an aircraft be operated under simulated IF? (2)
A
- outside controlled airspace
- means of simulating IF can be rapidly removed by PIC
10
Q
Before taking an aircraft for flight the PIC must ensure what? (3)
A
- aircraft in airworthy condition and in condition for safe flight after
a) documents inspected
b) aircraft inspected
11
Q
Firing flight PIC must ensure?
A
Safe operation of aircraft and safety of occupants
12
Q
What must the PIC record in a technical log after any pre flight inspection or on completion of flight?
A
- any defect identified by crew during inspections or during flight
13
Q
Each crew member for take off and landing must be at ___________ with their ____________ unless __________?
A
- crew member station
- seat belt fastened
- their absence is necessary to perform their duties
14
Q
Each crew member during take off and landing must have their ____________ fastened unless _________ or ____________?
A
- shoulder harness
- not fitted
- or unable to perform their duties with shoulder harness fastened
15
Q
Passengers must wear seat restraints when? (5)
A
- takeoff and landing
- less than 1000ft AGL
- when PIC considers it necessary for safety
- aerobatics
- open cockpit
16
Q
PIC may approve a passenger to unfasten shoulder harness or single diagonal belt when?
A
- during take off and landing and when less than 1000ft AGL if action necessary to perform essential function
17
Q
Do seats need to be in takeoff or landing configuration for such times?
A
Yes
18
Q
How can a child under 4 be restrained? (2)
A
- held by an adult and secured by safety belt attached to adults one
- occupies seat with child restraint system and is accompanied by parent/guardian or designated attendant to attend to safety of child during flight
19
Q
General requirement (altitude and time) for crew and passenger oxygen for un-pressurized aircraft? (2) and when type of oxygen is needed? (2)
A
- Above 13000ft
- 10000ft to 13000ft for >30min
- Supplementary for each crew member and passenger
- Portable oxygen with regulator and attached mask for crew member requiring movement from their usual station
20
Q
General requirement (altitude) for crew and passenger oxygen for pressurized aircraft? (2)
A
- Above 10000ft cabin altitude
- Supplementary for each crew member and passenger
- Portable oxygen with regulator and attached mask for crew member requiring movement from their usual station
21
Q
Higher FL oxy requirement for pressurized aircraft?
A
- FL350-FL410 either one pilot wearing mask that supplies supplemental oxy at all time or automatically if cabin alt above 13000ft, OR two pilots each with access within 5 sec
22
Q
Above what FL does one pilot always need to be on?
A
- FL410
23
Q
After pressurisation failure passengers must be on oxy above _______ unless aircraft can descend below ______ ft within _____ min?
A
14000ft, 14000ft, 4 min
24
Q
Above what FL does the an actual demonstration of the use of supplemental oxy need to be delivered?
A
- FL250
25
If life preservers must be carried under Part 91 must a demonstration on them be done?
- Yes
26
When may a briefing not be required?
- If the PIC deems that all passengers are familiar with the contents of the briefing
27
Where must passenger briefing cards be located?
- Convenient locations
28
Do pax briefing cards must contain information only pertinent to the type and model of aircraft?
- Yes
29
What operating limitations and emergency equipment must each pilot be familiar with before each flight? (5)
- AFM
- Placards, markings containing any limitation
- Aircraft emergency equipment
- Which crew member is assigned to emergency equipment
- Procedures to use emergency equipment
30
What aeronautical pubs must be carried?
- Appropriate aeronautical charts
- For IFR ops, every appropriate navigational en-route, terminal area, approach and instrument approach and departure chart
31
When can a left hand circuit not be flown?
- ATC authorised/instructed
| - If published IFR procedure defines a right hand turn and takeoff/landing is being performed IAW that procedure
32
If published as right hand, when can a left hand circuit be flown?
- ATC authorised/instructed
| - If published IFR procedure defines a right hand turn and takeoff/landing is being performed IAW that procedure
33
Do you have to comply with circuit direction at an aviation event?
no
34
When can an Ag aircraft make turns in any direction at an aerodrome? (3)
- No aerodrome control service
- 'A' ground signal next to runway
- No conflict with other aerodrome traffic
35
Standard overhead joining height?
- 1500ft above aerodrome elevation or 500ft above published circuit height
36
When should standard overhead join be done? (2)
- Unattended
| - Unfamiliar or uncertain
37
Purpose of standard overhead join? (2)
- Establish runway in use
| - Position of traffic to sequence safely
38
If overhead in a standard overhead join and cant establish runway in use what do next?
- Continue wings level to a point 2nm and turn left back to aerodrome
39
An aircraft that has right of way shall _________, but shall not relieve from responsibility of ________ .
- heading and speed
| - taking avoidance action including TCAS that will best avert collision
40
If head on which way shall both turn?
- to the right
41
Overtaking aircraft is within _____ deg from behind and shall alter heading to the ______ .
- 70deg
| - Right
42
If two aircraft converging who gives way? (except)
- Aircraft that has the converging aircraft on its right
| - Except hierarchy of aircraft types (airhsip give way to gliders etc)
43
All aircraft in flight or on ground must give way to?
- any aircraft on final approach to land or is landing
44
When two heavier than air approaching to land who ha s right of way? (except)
- Lower altitude
| - Except lower altitude can't use this rule to fly under and get ahead of someone to land first
45
Must not take off if there is an apparent _____ ?
Risk of collision with another aircraft
46
Taxiing right of way rules for any aircraft on ground, head on, and converging? (3)
- give way to landing, taking off, or about to take off
- stop, or alter course to right
- give way to aircraft on right
47
What aircraft lights are needed for night? (2)
- Aircraft position lights
| - Anti col if required by subpart F
48
Aircraft being used for aircraft operations must not park or move an aircraft on a maneuvering area at night unless (3)
- aircraft clearly illuminated
- has lighted position lights
- is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights
49
Can anti-col be turned off at night?
- Yes, if in best interest of safety
50
No person shall enter or remain in any security area unless that person? (2)
- Wears an identity card on front of garment?
| - Has in their possession another identity document for the time being authorised
51
Can name on identity card be deleted?
- Yes if Director approved and name should not be disclosed
52
Can someone use their identity card to enter an area when not needed for their duties?
No
53
When does security id not need showing? (4)
- overseas crew
- NZ Gov who remains incognito
- Escorted pax with boarding pass
- PIC of private aeroplane with valid pilot licence or being escorted by pilot
54
What flights is smoking prohibited?
- carrying pax for hire or reward on any internal flight
55
Difference between refueling Class3.1A, 3.1C and 3.1D?
- 3.1A - no embarking/disembarking + no engines running
| 3. 1C & 3.1D - no embarking/disembarking
56
What PEDs are banned for all IFR?
- Any PED or cellphone designed to transmit electromagnetic energy
57
When are PEDs banned for specific IFR phases of flight?
- All PEDS (other than hearing aids etc), must not be operated during instrument approach or departure or critical phase of flight unless operator has determined that the PED will not cause interference with any system or equipment
58
Who can make a determination that a PED is OK for critical phases of flight?
- Either operator for air transport operations or PIC or operator for all other times
59
Generally, what are the rules re firearms? (3)
- No one can carry one on
- No one can cause one to be carried on
- No one can permit one to be carried on
60
Firearm may be carried if? (4)
- Stowed so inaccessible to everyone and disabled
- aircraft used solely for carriage of person(s) associated with firearm and operator permits and firearm disabled
- aircraft carrying livestock and operator considers necessary to immobilise livestock for safety
- aircraft being used for purpose of shooting or immobilising animals on ground and firearm not loaded until within area and only carrying persons on essential fucntion
61
Firearms can be discharged for immobilisng animals on the ground if? (2)
- No hazard to persons or property on the ground
| - not discharged over congested area of city, town or settlement or assembly of persons
62
A firearm may be carried by police, law enforcement or military on a air transport or commercial transport operation carrying fare paying passengers if? (4)
- lawfully entitled to carry firearm
- carrying in course of their duties
- has been approved by operator and Director
- Complies with restrictions imposed by Director
63
Applications to Director for carriage of firearms on flights with fare paying passengers must be made with at least _____ working day?
- 1
64
Before commencement of air operation where a firearm will be carried the operator must inform PIC of what?
- Number of persons carrying firearm and their position in aircraft
65
All passenger carry-on baggage must be stowed where before take off and landing? (2)
- in a baggage locker
| - under a passenger seat in such a way it cant slide forward under crash impact or hinder evacuation
66
Operator must not permit cargo to be carried unless? (3)
- carried on a seat/rack/bin/compartment
- properly secured with enough strength does not shift under normal anticipated flight conditions
- packed/covered to avoid pax injury
67
Operator must not permit cargo to exceed?
- Load limit for seats/berths or floor structures
- put in a position that restricts access or use of required emergency exit or use of aisle between crew and pax compartments
68
Operating near other aircraft restrictions? (3)
- So close as as to create collision hazard
- in formation flight except by prior arrangement with PIC of other aircraft
- other than parachuting op, in formation while carrying hire/reward
69
Restriction on dropping of articles from flight?
- No, unless all reasonable precautions to ensure dropping does not endanger persons or property
70
When can VFR go above 250Kts below 10K? (2)
- If min safe speed is more than 250kts and aircraft is operated at min safety speed
- aviation event
71
Min height VFR over built up area?
- 1000ft (600m horizontal radius)
72
Min height VFR over non-built up area?
- 500ft (150m horizontal radius)
73
At all times min height for VFR?
- height less than necessary to execute emergency landing in event of engine failure without hazards to persons or property on the surface
74
Can go lower than 500ft non-built up areas?
- Yes, if bona fide purpose is to fly lower, but without hazard to person/property, not lower than necessary, and remains outside 150m horizontal radius from everything.
75
Can EFATO or simulated engine failure let you go below 500ft?
- Yes EFATO
| - Yes simulated engine failure below 500ft but only in designated low flying area
76
VFR restriction on operating in snow and ice conditions?
- No PIC shall take off under VFR if an aircraft has snow, ice, or frost adhering to wings, stabilisers, or control surfaces
77
IFR aircraft must not take off with ice where? (3)
- wings, stabilisers, or control surfaces (VFR)
- propellor, windscreen, powerplant installation, or ASI, altimeter, ROC, or flight attitude system
- fly into any known areas of icing unless aircraft is certified with ice protection equipment in type of known icing conditions
78
IFR can take off with ice adhering to if?
- if snow, ice, frost is IAW flight manual or manufacturer for such conditions
79
Can take off if known icing conditions will not be encountered based on weather reports and briefing information?
- Yes
80
No person may operate an aircraft to/from an aerodrome within NZ unless it meets what for noise and emissions standards? (2)
- For NZ registered aircraft Appendix C to Part 21
| - For foreign aircraft ICAO Annex 16 Vol II
81
Max speed unless approved by Director?
- Mach 0.92
82
If operating in excess of 0.92 what must ensure prior to doing so?
- No sonic boom reaches surface of NZ
83
Can Police carry DAC without complying with Part 92?
- Yes, provided flight is for sole Police purpose
84
When is DAC exempt to Part 92 when carried for recreational purposes?
- unpressurised
- less than 5700kg
- domestic VFR flight
- Not listed as DAC in Technical Instructions as being forbidden
- Safety & Emergency procedures established
- Each DAC item identified
- PIC is informed
- Proper condition, segregated, stowed securely
- Only PAX carried are associated with the DAC
85
Can persons carry DAC in checked, carry on, or in person?
- No, unless permitted by technical instructions.
86
If a person offers non DAC for carriage by air what must they do? (2)
- Provide operator with signed document stating not DAC and accurately describes what it is
87
What must be provided to PIC re DAC?
- Written confirmation concerning those goods IAW the Technical Instructions
88
Where/how should DAC information for PIC be kept? (2)
- Readily available during flight
| - Presented on a dedicated form
89
Does the operator need to provide the PIC information on DAC emergency response prior to flight?
- Yes
90
Do those involved with DAC duties need to have completed a DAC training programme?
Yes
91
Who can provide DAC training programme? (3)
- Either the Part 119 holder if authorised to also conduct DAC training,
- or an Part 145 training provider.
- Or an IATA DAC training programme certificate of accreditation
92
Can an overseas ground handling agent offload DAC? (3)
- yes, if they are being supervised by someone trained to our regs, trained to equivalent foreign state, or if trained by IATA approved/accredited
93
Offloading DAC in NZ by foreign pers?
- Yes, if approved/trained by their state
94
DAC recurrent training timeline requirement?
- 2 years
ATPL LAW
flashcards
Decks in class (10)
# Cards
