General Surgery Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

ASA classification

A

ASA I A normal healthy patient
ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
ASA VI A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are to be removed for donor purposes

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2
Q

the gold standard for confirming cerebrospinal fluid leakage

A

Beta-2 transferrin testing

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3
Q

The most common cause of large bowel obstruction is

A

malignancy

with the second most common being sigmoid volvulus

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4
Q

What’s the diagnosis and common lesion associated with this injury?

A

Dx: Anterior luxation of the shoulder
Lesion: Axilary nerve injury

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5
Q

Axillary nerve injury typically presents with

A

numbness over the lateral aspect of the upper arm in a ‘regimental badge’ distribution.

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6
Q

AAA Follow-up

A
  • 25 - 29 mm: ultrasound every five years
  • 30 - 39 mm: ultrasound every three years (appropriate in this case)
  • 40 - 49 mm (men) or 40 – 44 mm (women): annual ultrasound
  • ≥50 mm (men) or ≥45 mm (women): ultrasound every six months.
  • ≥55 mm (men) or ≥50 mm (women): most surgeons would consider offering surgical repair;

note that the threshold for elective repair in women is lower due to higher rupture risk at smaller diameters.

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7
Q

Indications for surgical management of AAA are as follows:

A
  • Size >55 mm
  • Growth in size of >10 mm/year
  • Symptomatic AAA
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8
Q

The cornerstone of initial management in acute pancreatitis.

A

Early fluid resuscitation

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9
Q

low-risk prostate cancers in patients with good life expectancy (≥10 years) management

A

Surgical intervention - Radical prostatectomy

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10
Q

Thyroid cancers usually appear on thyroid scintigraphy as:

A

a ‘cold nodule’ as they are often nonfunctioning / nonsecreting.

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11
Q

patient’s symptoms of knee pain after exertion or prolonged sitting, aggravation of pain during tonic contraction of quadriceps (ie, extending knee against resistance), and normal physical findings are consistent with the diagnosis of

A

patellofemoral pain syndrome (PPS).

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12
Q

An acute, painful knee joint in the absence of trauma should be assumed to be due to …

A

septic arthritis until proven otherwise

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13
Q

why should Colonoscopy be performed after an episode of acute complicated diverticulitis

A

after four to six weeks to exclude underlying colorectal cancer.

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14
Q

Brain tumor presenting with
- a short history of progressive neurological deficits and features of raised intracranial pressure.
- CT findings: irregular ring enhancement with central necrosis and significant mass effect.
- Occupational exposure to synthetic rubber manufacturing is a risk factor

A

Glioblastoma

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15
Q

The mechanism of injury—falling on an outstretched hand—and the location of tenderness just distal to the radial styloid at the base of the thumb are classic for

A

scaphoid injury.

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16
Q

first step in the management of osteoarthritis

A

Muscle strengthening via land based exercises

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17
Q
  • Wrist drop
  • Inability to extend fingers
  • Sensory loss: dorsum of hand (first web space)
A

Radial nerve injury

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18
Q

For triple negative, or ER/PR/HER2 negative breast cancers as well as HER2 positive tumours, which neoadjuvant is recommended prior to surgical management?

A

chemotherapy

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19
Q

monoclonal antibody used for patients with HER2 positive breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab, or herceptin,

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20
Q

IF pain in the lateral aspect of the knee during running or biking + worse downhill or with longer strides + pain occurs when the fully flexed knee is extended and pressure is applied to the lateral femoral epicondyle at 30 degrees of flexion

A

Iliotibial band syndrome

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21
Q

The tenderness over the pubic tubercle, acute onset after sporting activity, and absence of a palpable hernia support this diagnosis

A

inguinal disruption (previously called sportsman’s hernia)

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22
Q

Splenic trauma classification: American Association for the Surgery of Trauma (AAST)

A
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23
Q

Splenic trauma with a haemodynamically unstable patient, MANAGEMENT

A

Surgical management is indicated (splenectomy).

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24
Q

All splenic trauma Grade IV and V, with a haemodynamically stable patient, MANAGEMENT

A

splenic artery embolisation (SAE)

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25
Splenic trauma MANAGEMENT fluxogram:
Is the patient stable? No → Operate Yes → CT scan What is the grade? I–II → Observe III–IV → ± Angioembolisation V → Surgery
26
The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel (EPUAP) classification system
Stage 1; Intact skin with non-blanchable erythema Stage 2; Partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis ± dermis, presents as shallow ulcer or blister Stage 3; Full thickness skin loss with involvement of subcutaneous tissue, fat visible, no bone or muscle exposed Stage 4; Full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle Unstageable; Full thickness tissue loss but base covered by slough or eschar, depth cannot be determined Deep tissue injury; Intact or non-intact skin with localized purple or maroon discoloration indicating underlying tissue damage
27
a disease process in which CSF drainage from the central canal of the spinal cord is disrupted, leading to a fluid filled cavity (syrinx) that compresses surrounding neural tissue
syringomyelia Damage most often involves the crossing fibres of the spinothalamic tract (pain and temperature) and upper extremity motor fibres, due to their medial locations within the corticospinal tract. The loss of pain and temperature is indication the “compression” is from within the spinal cord, not external to the cord. Syringomyelia most commonly arises in the setting of Chiari malformation (>70%), post-traumatic, post-inflammatory, or post-surgical.
28
Syringomelia presentation
Presents with decreased strength and diminished pain and temperature sensation affecting the arms/hands, with preservation of dorsal column function. Classically described in a cape over the shoulder distribution
29
IF inpatient with features of abdominal obstruction but no obvious obstruction found, THINK
Olgivie's Syndrome
30
IF a smooth, midline mass, associated with the hyoid bone anatomically, the mass will classically elevate on tongue protrusion. THINK
Thyroglossal duct cyst
31
TWIST score
32
perioperative management of diabetes medications - GLP-1
- GLP-1 :not be routinely withheld before elective procedures (GLUTIDES)
33
perioperative management of diabetes medications - SGLT2 i
❌ Risk: Euglycaemic DKA perioperatively - Stop 2-3 days before surgery (GLIFOZINS)
34
perioperative management of diabetes medications - Sulfonylureas
❌ Risk: Hypoglycaemia (especially fasting) -Omit on the morning of surgery
35
perioperative management of diabetes medications - Metformin
❌Risk of lactic acidosis - Stop on the day of surgery (or 24 hrs before major surgery) - Restart only when: eating normally renal function stable
36
perioperative management of diabetes medications - Insulin on T1DM
NEVER stop insulin completely ⚠️ (risk of DKA) Management: - Continue basal insulin (long-acting) - Reduce dose to ~50–80% - Add IV insulin infusion if major surgery
37
perioperative management of diabetes medications - Insulin on T2DM
- Long-acting (basal): Give 50–80% dose - Short-acting: Omit while fasting - Mixed insulin: Reduce dose (or switch to basal)
38
Isolated spontaneous bloody nipple discharge coming from a single duct should point towards a diagnosis of
intraductal papilloma
39
Intraductal papilloma MANAGEMENT
Surgical removal of the affected duct, also called **microdochectomy**, is the first-line management of intraductal papilloma
40
multiple ducts releasing green/yellow discharge, generally only on manipulation of the nipple points towards a diagnosis of
Duct ectasia
41
Diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome involves
- Biomarkers: 24-hour urine for 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA), serum chromogranin A levels - Imaging studies for tumour localization.
42
IF patient with intestinal obstruction due to adhesions is treated conservatively for 48 hours without resolution, what's the next step?
A Gastrografin study is the most appropriate next step. This involves administering a water-soluble oral contrast agent and assessing its passage through the gastrointestinal tract. If the contrast does not reach the colon within 24 hours, it suggests a failure of non-operative management, indicating the need for surgical intervention.
43
IF Anorexia, weight loss and jaundice think
carcinoma of the pancreas until proven otherwise.
44
The characteristic computed tomography appearance of an oval fat-density lesion adjacent to the colon with surrounding inflammatory changes is diagnostic for:
epiploic appendagitis
45
A serosanguinous discharge appearing from an abdominal wound several days after surgery is almost diagnostic of
a deep wound dehiscence
46
Sign and diagnosis:
The 'target sign' on CT is characteristic of intussusception, showing concentric rings of bowel wall.
47
Gallbladder polyp management
- < 5mm: without risk factors: Reassurance - 6-9mm: Repeat ultrasound in six months - >10mm: Cholecystectomy
48
The Parkland formula is used to calculate initial fluid requirements:
4 mL × weight in kg × % TBSA burned - Half should be given in the first 8 hours after the burn, with the remainder over the next 16 hours
49
In otherwise healthy people with confirmed saphenous trunk reflux, what has become the preferred definitive treatment in Australia?
minimally invasive Endovenous laser ablation often combined with ambulatory phlebectomy or adjunct foam sclerotherapy for tributaries, provides durable outcomes and addresses the pathophysiology of axial reflux.
50
Management of superficial surgical site infections without systemic signs is
- wound drainage and antiseptic dressing Antibiotics are not routinely indicated for superficial surgical site infections unless there are systemic signs or the patient is immunocompromised
51
This class of drugs is the most commonly used treatment and is considered 'gold standard' in the management of post-operative nausea and vomiting
Ondansetron is a selective 5-HT3 serotonin-receptor antagonist.
52
Haemorrhoids can be classified into the following Grades:
- I protrusion into the anal canal, occasional bleeding, but no prolapse - II protrusion beyond the anal verge with straining or defection and spontaneous reduction - III spontaneous protrusion or as the result of straining, requiring manual reduction - IV permanent prolapse and unable to be reduced
53
Hemorroids Treatment based on the Grade:
- I conservative measures (high fibre diet, increased fluid intake, stool softeners) - II conservative measures and perhaps rubber band ligation - III above, plus haemorrhoidectomy for severe symptoms - IV haemorroidectomy; this group often including patients with acute thrombosis or strangulation
54
The ultrasonographic appearance of thickening of the gallbladder wall supports a diagnosis of:
acute cholecystitis A thick-walled gallbladder is defined as >3mm. A thickness of 3 - 4 mm gives a moderate indication of inflammation and over 5mm would be very much in keeping with a diagnosis of acute cholecystitis.
55
Caprini thrombosis risk
56
The most common cause of an anorectal abscess is
anal crypt obstruction leading to local infection
57
Which procedure is constraindicated on testicular tumor diagnosis due to increased risk of metastasis?
Biopsy and fine needle aspiration
58
If testicular malignancy is strongly suspected, the diagnostic and therapeutic procedure is
radical inguinal orchiectomy
59
Candidate Selection for Active Surveillance on Papillary Thyroid carcinoma
- Size: Nodule is ≤ 10 mm (PTMC) - Clinical/US N0: No clinically apparent or sonographically suspicious lymph nodes - No Extrathyroidal Extension (ETE): - Patient Factors: The patient must be willing to undergo regular monitoring and not be overly anxious about "living with cancer"
60
Follow-Up Protocol for Thyroid Micropapilloma
- Initial Schedule: US every 6 months for the first 1–2 years - Long-term Schedule: If the lesion is stable: US 12 months - Surgery (usually a lobectomy) if ≥ 3 mm or if new lymph node metastases appear
61
Papillary Thyroid Microcarcinoma (PTC) has a maximum diameter of
≤ 10 mm
62
Current reviews recommend that patients who use cannabis daily should abstain for at least ______hours before elective surgery
72 hours
63
Which embryological origin is most commonly associated with branchial cysts?
The second branchial arch
64
dorsally angulated distal radius fracture is known as a
Colles fracture
65
Stanford type A aortic dissection
dissection involving the ascending aorta (proximal to the brachiocephalic trunk)
66
Stanford type B aortic dissection
dissection NOT involving the ascending aorta (DISTAL to the brachiocephalic trunk)
67
The acute treatment of Type B dissections is
- strict blood pressure and pulse rate control aiming to maintain blood pressure < 120/80 and pulse rate below 60/min
68
The acute treatment of Type A dissections is
Immediate open surgery or rapid endovascular treatment
69
the recommended management for acute uncomplicated cholecystitis
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 72 hours of admission
70
First-line treatment for sigmoid volvulus is
a rigid sigmoidoscopy
71
Which nerve most likely has been injured?
Long thoracic nerve Damage to the long thoracic nerve can cause paralysis to the serratus anterior manifesting as "winging of the scapula".
72
Aspirin should be held ____ before surgery if deemed appropriate
7 days
73
IF this lesion with ulceration, induration, and bleeding.
features consistent with cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
74
Long-term use of proton-pump inhibitors can cause
hyperplastic stomach polyp formation.
75
Appendix Abscess MANAGEMENT
- < 5cm: antibiotics and conservative management - > 5cm: percutaneous image-guided drainage If there is no response to percutaneous drainage, then a laparoscopic or open appendicectomy with a washout and drainage should be performed.
76
IF a newborn with a central abdominal wall defect at the umbilicus, with bowel contents visible through a translucent membrane. This appearance is characteristic of
-An omphalocele a congenital defect where abdominal contents herniate through the umbilical ring but remain covered by peritoneum and amnion.
77
Patients with a large pericolic abscess >5cm should be treated with
intravenous antibiotics and percutaneous drainage
78
the standard of care for otherwise fit individuals who have potentially curable carcinoma of the oesophagus.
Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy followed by resection
79
Use of ENDOSCOPIC US on gastric cancer
Endoscopic ultrasound is useful in the assessment of early gastric cancers, where the technique can be used to determine the depth of invasion of the primary tumour and the presence of any adjacent lymph nodes
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81
"rule of twos" - Meckel's diverticulum
a Meckel's diverticulum is usually located 2 feet proximal to the ileocecal valve, presents before the age of two years, is seen twice as commonly in males than in females and is found in 2% of the population
82
The commonest cause of painless rectal bleeding in children aged one to five years.
Ectopic gastric mucosa in a Meckel's diverticulum
83
Meckel's diverticulum diagnostic test:
A technetium-99m pertechnetate scan as it reliably identifies ectopic gastric mucosa within the diverticulum, given the preferential uptake of technetium-99m by gastric mucosal cells.
84