General Surgery

Question 1

1. The cause of shin trophic ulcer can be:
   1. Chronic venal insufficiency of the lower extremity.
   2. Chronic arterial insufficiency of the lower extremity.
   
   3. Acute tromboflebitis of shin superficial veins.
   4. Thromboemboli of popliteal artery.

Answer 1

• 1.Chronic venal insufficiency of the lower extremity.

* 2.Chronic arterial insufficiency of the lower extremity.

Question 2

2. Basic causes of soft tissues necrosis are:
   
   1. Impaired peripheral blood circulation in diabetes mellitus.
   2. Trauma of soft tissues on condition of chronic arterial
      Or vein of insufficiency.
   3. Physical -emotional strain
   4. Acute physical exertion

Answer 2

*1.Impaired peripheral blood circulation in diabetes mellitus.
*2.Trauma of soft tissues on condition of chronic arterial
Or vein of insufficiency.

Question 3

3. Complete outside small intestinal fistula is characterized by:
   
   1. Constant chimus allocation on forward abdominal wall from
      Fistula of a course informed with intestine.
   2. Fistula of a course informed with thin intestine
      Without allocation intestinal of contents.
   3. Constant allocation made out stool mass on forward abdominal
      Wall through fistula a course informed with intestine.

Answer 3

*1.Constant chimus allocation on forward abdominal wall from
Fistula of a course informed with intestine.

Question 4

4. Incomplete outside large intestinal fistula is characterized by:
   1. Short-term allocation of bilious contents on forward
   Abdominal a wall from fistula of a course informed with intestine.
   
   2. Fistula of a course informed with small intestine without
      Allocation of intestinal contents.
   3. Short-term allocation made out stool mass on forward abdominal wall through fistula a course informed with intestine fistula.

Answer 4

*3.Short-term allocation made out stool mass on forward abdominal wall through fistula a course informed with intestine fistula.

Question 5

5. Wet gangrene is characterized by:
   
   1. Occurrence of tissue edema.
   2. Presence of symptoms of intoxication.
   3. Coagulation necrosis of tissues. 4.Callicvation(coliquative) necrosis of tissues.

Answer 5

• 1.Occurrence of tissue edema.

* 2.Presence of symptoms of intoxication. *4.Callicvation(coliquative) necrosis of tissues.

Question 6

6. Dry gangrene is characterized by:
   1. Occurrence in chronic venous insufficiency.
   
   2. Occurrence in chronic arterial insufficiency
   3. Absence of intoxication symptoms
   4. Callicvation necrosis.
   5. Coagulation necrosis of tissues.

Answer 6

• 2.Occurrence in chronic arterial insufficiency

* 3.Absence of intoxication symptoms

Question 7

7. A patient in a satisfactory status presents with a cut wound in the anterior abdominal wall. Medical tactics in the case will include:
   
   1. Diagnostic laparatomy.
   2. Primary debridement to determine the character of a wound.
   3. Administration of anticeptic solution and aseptic bandaging with patient’s follow up.
   4. Tight suturing of the wound
   5. Diagnostic laparascopy.

Answer 7

*2.Primary debridement to determine the character of a wound.

Question 8

8. Spleen damage is characterized by:
   
   1. Hypertension
   2. Hypotension
   3. Hemoperitoneum
   4. Pneumoperitoneum
   5. Subcutaneous emphysema

Answer 8

*2.Hypotension *3.Hemoperitoneum.

Question 9

9. Rupture of the hollow abdominal organ is characterized by:
   
   1. Low parameters of hemoglobin and hemotocrit.
   2. Chetkin-Bluemberg symptom. 3. Pneumoperitoneum.
   3. Retetention of urine
   4. Extra-abdominal hematoma.

Answer 9

• 2.Chetkin-Bluemberg symptom.

* 3.Pneumoperitoneum.

Question 10

10. A patient in 25 hours after a blunt trauma of the stomach and fracture of the left IX-X ribs suddenly develops fall arterial pressure, abdominal pains, tachycardia, your likely diagnosis is:
    
    1. Hemothorax
    2. Pneumothorax
    3. Dubletime rupture of the spleen.
    4. Acute pancreatitis.
    5. Acute heart attack myocardial infarction

Answer 10

*3.Dubletime rupture of the spleen.

Question 11

11. To remove air from the pleural cavity the puncture is to be performed:
    
    1. in 8-9 ribs along back axillary line.
    2. in 2 ribs along midleclavical line.
    3. in 5-th ribs along midleclavical line.
    4. in the area of jugular notch.
    5. in the upperclavical area.

Answer 11

*2. In 2 ribs along midleclavical line.

Question 12

12. Intracranial hematoma requires:
    
    1. Conservative therapy.
    2. Puncture of the hematomy.
    3. Cerebro spinal puncture.
       4 .Skull trepanation and removal of the hematoma

Answer 12

*4.Skull trepanation and removal of the hematoma

Question 13

13. Instrumental diagnostic methods of craniocerebral trauma include:
    
    1. X-ray of a skull (craniography).
    2. Computer tomography.
    3. Carotid angiography.
    4. Ultrasound.
    5. All methods of research

Answer 13

*5.All methods of research

Question 14

14. Intracranial hematoma presents:
    
    1. Symptoms of blood loss.
    2. Anisocoria.
    3. Light interval
    4. Loss of consciousness.
    5. Hypotension.

Answer 14

• 2.Anisocoria.
  * 3.Light interval
  * 4.Loss of

Question 15

15. Blood loss is characterized by:
    
    1. Hypotension
    2. Hypertension
    3. Tachycardia.
    4. Bradycardia.
    5. Redness of a skin and mucous membranes

Answer 15

• 1.Hypotension

* 3.Tachycardia.

Question 16

16. The parameter of hematocritis defines(determines):
    
    1. Contents of hemoglobin in blood.
    2. Size of blood loss.
    3. Parity (ratio) of plasma and blood cells.
    4. Volume of circulating blood.
    5. Volume of red blood cells.

Answer 16

*3.Parity (ratio) of plasma and blood cells.

Question 17

17. The ways to a temporary stop of a bleeding concern:
    
    1. Imposing tourniquet.
    2. Imposing a clip on a bleeding vessel.
    3. To insert sutures to the bleeding vessel.
    4. Angioplastics.
    5. Manual pressing of the main blood vessels.

Answer 17

• 1.Imposing tourniquet.
  * 2.Imposing a clip on a bleeding vessel.
  * 5.Manual pressing of the main blood vessels.

Question 18

18. The final stop of a bleeding is carried out:
    
    1. Bandaging a bleeding vessel in a wound.
    2. Bandaging a vessel on an extent.
    3. Imposing pressing bandages.
    4. Inserting suture to the blood vessel.
    5. All specified ways.

Answer 18

• 1.Bandaging a bleeding vessel in a wound.
  * 2.Bandaging a vessel on an extent.
  * 4.Inserting suture to the blood vessel.

Question 19

19. The biological methods to stop the bleeding concern:
    
    1. Transfusion of packed platelet.
    2. Introduction of fibrinogen.
    3. Electric coagulation.
    4. Local use of hydrogen peroxide.

Answer 19

• 1.Transfusion of packed platelet.

* 2.Introduction of fibrinogen.

Question 20

20. at hemorragic shock:
    
    1. Decreases circulating blood volume.
    2. Increases circulating blood volume.
    3. The process of microcirculation is broken.
    4. The intimate emission of blood is reduced.
    5. Increases central venous pressure.

Answer 20

• 1.Decreases circulating blood volume.
  * 3.The process of microcirculation is broken.
  * 4.The intimate emission of blood is reduced.

Question 21

21. At definition of groups of blood ABO the following groups of mistakes are possible (probable):
    
    1. Technical character.
    2. Use of serum with the expired working life.
    3. Biological.
    4. Use of substandard wheys.

Answer 21

• 1.Technical character.

* 4.Use of substandard wheys.

Question 22

22. More often hemotransfusial shock arises at:
    
    1. Incompatibility of blood on AB0 system.
    2. Incompatibility of blood under the rhesus-factor.
    3. Massive hemotrnsfusion.
    4. Transfusion of tinned blood.

Answer 22

*1.Incompatibility of blood on AB0 system.

Question 23

23. to preparations of blood concern:
    
    1. Albumin.
    2. Plasma,
    3. Packed red blood cells.
    4. Protein.
    5. Donor blood.

Answer 23

• 1.Albumin.

* 4.Protein.

Question 24

24. to components of blood concern:
    
    1. Protein.
    2. Plasma.
    3. Albumin.
    4. Packed white blood cells.
    5. Packed red blood cells.

Answer 24

• 2.Plasma.
  * 4.Packed white blood cells.
  * 5.Packed red blood cells.

Question 25

25. The preparations for parenteral feeding concern: 1. Preparations containing aminoacids. 2. Physiological solution. 3. Fat emulsions. 4. Solution. 5. Packed red blood cells.

Answer 25

* 1.Preparations containing aminoacids. | * 3.Fat emulsions.

Question 26

26. At realization of tests on individual compatibility of the donor and recipient mixing when: 1. Donor with red blood cells of the recipient. 2. Recipient with red blood cells of the donor. 3. Donor and recipient with standard red blood cells. 4. Recipient and blood of the donor.

Answer 26

*4.Recipient and blood of the donor.

Question 27

27. Processing hands of the surgeon pervomur lasts: 1. 1 minutes. 2. 3 minutes. 3. 5 minutes. 4. 10 minutes.

Answer 27

*1.1 minutes.

Question 28

28. Thermal factor for sterilization is used at: 1. Autoclave. 2. Use of an antibacterial lamp. 3. Use fluid pair. 4. Use ethylene oxide. 5. Dry heat.

Answer 28

* 1.Autoclave. * 3.Use fluid pair. * 5.Dry heat.

Question 29

29. Which of the following concerns to cold sterilization? 1. Antibacterial a lamp. 2. Fluid pairs. 3. Ionizing radiation. 4. Formalin stream. 5. Ethylene oxide.

Answer 29

* 1.Antibacterial a lamp. * 3.Ionizing radiation. * 4.Formalin stream. * 5.Ethylene oxide.

Question 30

30. What is included into structure of pervomur, used for processing hands of the surgeon? 1. Solution of 1:1000. 2. Hydrogen peroxide and formic acid. 3. 70 % ethyl alcohol. 4. Potassium permanganate.

Answer 30

*2.Hydrogen peroxide and formic acid.

Question 31

31. to physical antiseptics concerns: 1. Surgical processing of a wound. 2. Wound drainage. 3. Wound packing. 4. Using hydrogen peroxide.

Answer 31

*2.Wound drainage.

Question 32

32. Preparations concerning to chemical antiseptics: 1. Alkali 2. Dyes 3. Oxidizers 4. Salt of heavy metals 5. Sulfanilamides

Answer 32

* 1.Alkali * 2.Dyes * 3.Oxidizers * 4.Salt of heavy metals * 5.Sulfanilamides

Question 33

33. Means physical antiseptics: 1. Boric acid. 2. Ultrasonic cavitation. 3. Vacuum wound drainage. 4. Vaccine. 5. Whey.

Answer 33

* 2.Ultrasonic cavitation. | * 3.Vacuum wound drainage.

Question 34

34. to biological antiseptics concern: 1. Antibiotics. 2. Sulphanilamide. 3. Vacuum wound drainage. 4. Vaccine. 5. Spirits.

Answer 34

* 1.Antibiotics. | * 4.Vaccine.

Question 35

35. What operations concern to open? 1. Appendectomy. 2. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy. 3. Reposition of a dislocation. 4. Stomach resection. 5. Right hemicolectomy(right colonic resection).

Answer 35

* 1.Appendectomy. * 4.Stomach resection. * 5.Right hemicolectomy(right colonic resection).

Question 36

36. What operations concern to close? 1. Appendectomy. 2. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy. 3. Reposition of a dislocation. 4. Stomach resection. 5. Right hemicolectomy(right colonic resection)

Answer 36

* 2.Laparoscopic cholecystectomy. | * 3.Reposition of a dislocation.

Question 37

37. Basic stages of surgical operation: 1. Stacking the patient on an operational table. 2. Access. 3. Operative reception. 4. Arrest of bleeding. 5. Layered (level-by-level) closure of a wound.

Answer 37

* 2.Access. * 3.Operative reception. * 5.Layered (level-by-level) closure of a wound.

Question 38

38. Basic tasks of preoperative period: 1. Specification of the diagnosis. 2. Definition of the indications to operation. 3. Revealing contra-indications to operation. 4. Definition of terms of performance and character of operation. 5. The rating operational & anaesthetic risks. 6. All listed above.

Answer 38

*6.All listed above.

Question 39

39. What complications of operation concern to local? 1. Festering of an operational wound. 2. Pulmonary embolism. 3. Postcholecystectomic syndrom. 4. Pneumonia. 5. Formation (education) of hematoma in the wound area.

Answer 39

* 1.Festering of an operational wound. | * 5.Formation (education) of hematoma in the wound area.

Question 40

40. What complications of operation concern to general (common)? 1. Festering of postoperative wound. 2. Paresis of gastrointestinal tract. 3. Early adhesive intestinal obstruction. 4. Peritoneal comissures. 5. Pulmonary embolism.

Answer 40

* 2.Paresis of gastrointestinal tract. * 3.Early adhesive intestinal obstruction. * 4.Peritoneal comissures. * 5.Pulmonary embolism.

Question 41

41. The plastic operations can be executed with the help of: 1. Autoplasty. 2. Homoplasty. 3. Heteroplasty. 4. Alloplasty. 5. All above is correct.

Answer 41

*5.All above is correct.

Question 42

42. Main medical action at necrotic form of erysipelas: 1. Antibiotic therapy. 2. Ultra-violet irradiation of the centre of inflammation. 3. Surgical method of treatment. 4. Ointment bandages. 5. Detoxification therapy.

Answer 42

*3.Surgical method of treatment.

Question 43

43. For opening of an abscess cavity, located in one quadrant of the pectoral gland it is necessary to use: 1. Radial cut (section). 2. An arcuate cut (section). 3. S - figurative cut (section). 4. Paraareolar cut (section).

Answer 43

*1.Radial cut (section).

Question 44

44. Basic treatment at carbuncle in abscess formation stage: 1. Processing 70 % ethyl alchohol. 2. Antibiotic therapy. 3. Purpose (assignment) of sulfanilamids 4. Ultrahigh frequency- therapy. 5. Opening a purulent cavity.

Answer 44

*5.Opening a purulent cavity.

Question 45

45. In what stage of inflammatory process the conservative treatment is shown? 1. Alteration. 2. Infiltrative exudative 3. In abscess formation stage. 4. In a stage of regeneration.

Answer 45

* 1.Alteration. * 2.Infiltrative exudative * 4.In a stage of regeneration.

Question 46

46. In what stage of inflammatory process the operative treatment is shown? 1. Alteration. 2. Infiltrative exudative 3. In abscess formation stage. 4. in a stage of regeneration.

Answer 46

*3.In abscess formation stage.

Question 47

47. On prevalence distinguish the following forms peritonitis: 1. Local limited. 2. Local diffused. 3. General (common). 4. All answers correct.

Answer 47

*4.All answers correct.

Question 48

48. Specify a correct designation of classification of burns on a degree: 1. I, II, III, IIIA, IV. 2. I A, I, II, III, IV. 3. I, II, III A, III, IV. 4. I, II, III, IV A, IV Á. 5. I, II A, II, III, IV.

Answer 48

*3.I, II, III A, III, IV.

Question 49

49. to superficial burns of a skin concern: 1. Burns of I, II degree. 2. Burns of I degree. 3. Burns of III A degree. 4. Burns of III.Á degree.

Answer 49

*2.Burns of I degree.

Question 50

50. Local symptoms at a burn of a skin of the first degree: 1. Fever. 2. Morbidity. 3. Reddening. 4. Swelling. 5. Formation of a necrosis site.

Answer 50

* 1.Fever. * 2.Morbidity. * 4.Swelling.

Question 51

51. to deep burns of a skin concern: 1. Burns of II degree. 2. Burns of I degree. 3. Burns of III A degree. 4. Burns of III Б degree. 5. Burns of IV degree.

Answer 51

* 3.Burns of III A degree. * 4.Burns of III Б degree. * 5.Burns of IV degree.

Question 52

52. Area of a palm of an adult man from the general area of a skin consists: 1. 0.5 - 0.6 % 2. 1.0 - 1.2 % 3. 2 - 2.1 % 4. 3 - 3.1 %

Answer 52

*2.1.0 - 1.2 %

Question 53

53. Specify the exactest method of definition of the area of a burn of a leather(skin): 1. Rule of a palm 2. Rule of nineth 3. Method of Postnikov 4. Method of Viliavin 5. under the special tables

Answer 53

*3.Method of Postnikov

Question 54

54. At a burn shock arises: 1. Hemoconcentration 2. Oligouria and anuria 3. Increase of relative density wet 4. Azotemia 5. Increase circulating blood volume.

Answer 54

* 1.Hemoconcentration * 2. Oligouria and anuria * 3.Increase of relative density wet * 4.Azotemia

Question 55

55. Volume of first aid at burns: 1. Introduction of analgesic preparations. 2. Imposing dry aseptic bandages 3. Imposing ointment bandages 4. Preventive maintenance asphyxia at a burn of respiratory ways

Answer 55

* 1.Introduction of analgesic preparations. * 2.Imposing dry aseptic bandages * 4.Preventive maintenance asphyxia at a burn of respiratory ways

Question 56

56. at superficial burns of a skin burn disease at the adult Develops at the area of a defeat: 1. 5 % 2. 10 % 3. 15 % 4. 20 % 5. 25 - 30 %

Answer 56

*5.25 - 30 %

Question 57

57. Low temperature promotes tissue frostbite at: 1. Damp air. 2. Strong wind. 3. Exhaustion of fabrics. 4. Anemia. 5. All answers are correct.

Answer 57

*5.All answers are correct.

Question 58

58. Border of pathological process at frostbite is shown through: 1. 1-2 day. 2. 3-4 day. 3. 5-7 day. 4. 9 day 5. 12 day.

Answer 58

*3.5-7 day.

Question 59

59. The open way of treatment of burns includes: 1. Often change ïîâÿçîê. 2. Using ultraviolet irradiation at bandagings. 3. Use nonbacterial air environment.

Answer 59

*3.Use nonbacterial air environment.

Question 60

60. For preventive maintenance of development of an anaerobic infection in tissues is necessary: 1. To sew up a wound tightly. 2. To use active wound drainage. 3. It is wide cut of a tissue.

Answer 60

*3.It is wide cut of a tissue.

Question 61

61. Hematogenous osteomyelitis arises at the patients: 1. Children's age. 2. Elderly age. 3. The age has no value.

Answer 61

* 1.Children's age. 2. Elderly age. 3. The age has no value.

Question 62

62. The clinical picture at chronic osteomyelitis is shown: 1. Formation of purulent fistulas. 2. Redness and edema of the skin. 3. Presence of sequestration. 4. All answers correct.

Answer 62

* 1.Formation of purulent fistulas. | * 3.Presence of sequestration.

Question 63

63. to special methods of research concern: 1. Palpation. 2. Survey. 3. Manual research of a rectum. 4. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (endoscopy).

Answer 63

*4.Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (endoscopy).