Step 1 Flash Cards > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

(68 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q

ventral pancreatic bud gives rise to

A
  • pancreatic head and main pancreatic duct, and uncinate process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

annular pancreas

A
  • the ventral bud abnormally encircles 2nd part of the duodenum, forms a ring of tissue around the duodenum that can cause narrowing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pancreas divisum

A
  • ventral and dorsal pancreas fails to fuse at 8 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

midgut development timeline

A
  • exits through the umbilical ring week 6

- returns to abdominal cavity + rotates around the SMA week 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

retroperitoneal structures

A

SAD PUCKER

  • suprarenal (adrenal) glands
  • aorta and IVC
  • duodenum (2nd - 4th parts)
  • pancreas (except tail)
  • ureters
  • colon (ascending and descending)
  • kidneys
  • esophagus (lower 2/3)
  • rectum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which ribs overly the spleen, kidneys and liver

A
  • left 9-11 – spleen
  • right 8-11 – liver
  • left 12 - left kidnet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

borders of the pleura

A
  • 7, 10, 12

- 7th in midclavicular line, 10th in midaxillary, and 12th in paravertebral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

falciform ligament - structures contained

A
  • ligamentum teres hepatis (derivative of fetal umbilical vein)
  • derivative of ventral mesentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hepatoduodenal ligament - structures contained

A
  • portal traid: hepatic artery, portal vein and CBD

- pringle maneuver - clamp this to prevent bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

gastrohepatic - structures contained/significance

A
  • gastric arteries

- separates greater and lesser sac on the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gastrosplenic ligament - structures contained and signficance

A
  • short gastrics, left gastroepiploic vessels

- separates greater and lesser sac on the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

splenorenal ligament - structures contained

A
  • splenic artery and vein, tail of pancreas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

layers of the gut wall - inside to outside

A
  • MSMS
  • mucosa (epithelium, lamina propria and muscularis mucosa)
  • submucosa (include submucosal nerve plexus – Meissner)
  • muscularis externa (includes myenteric nerve plexus – Auerbach)
  • serosa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

crypts of Lieberkuhn

A
  • simple tubular glands that rest atop muscular mucosa

- present in the duodenum, jejunum, ileum and colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Brunner glands

A
  • secrete alkaline mucus into the crypts, then into the lumen
  • present in the duodenal submucosa
  • hypertrophy seen in peptic ulcer disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

peyer patches

A
  • present in the ileum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

plicae circularis

A
  • in the jejunum and ileum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

goblet cells

A
  • in the ileum and colon

- larges number in the small intestine are in the ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SMA syndrome

A
  • when the transverse portion of the duodenum is entrapped between the SMA and aorta, causing intestinal obstruction
  • angle diminishes to < 20 degrees
  • precipitated by conditions that lower mesenteric fat (low body weight, severe burns, bed rest, pronounced lordosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

esophageal varices connect

A
  • left gastric vein (portal) and esophageal veins (systemic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

caput medusae connects

A
  • umbilical veins (portal) and epigastric veins (systemic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

rectal varices connect

A
  • superior rectal vein (portal) to inferior/middle rectal veins (systemic)
  • will drain into internal pudendal veins and internal iliacs to react IVC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Zone 1 of the liver (periportal)

A
  • affected first by viral hepatitis and ingested toxins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Zone 3 of the liver (centrilobular)

A

affected 1st by ischemia, contains cytochrome p450 system, most sensitive to metabolic toxins, site of alcoholic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
CCK
- produced in the I cells in the duodenum + jejunum - actions: inc pancreatic secretions, inc gall bladder contraction, inc sphincter of Odi relaxation, and decrease gastric emptying - increased by fatty acids, amino acids - CCK acts on neural muscarinic pathways to cause pancreatic secretion
26
gastrin
- G cells (antrum of the stomach) - actions: increase gastric H+ secretion, growth of gastric mucosa, increased gastric motility - regulation: increased by stomach distention, alkalinization, amino acids, peptides and vagal stimulation, decreased by stomach pH < 1.5 - increased in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, PPI use and pernicious anemia - phenylalanine and tryptophan are potent stimulators
27
glucose dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP)
- secreted by K cells (duodenum, jejunum) - actions: exocrine -- decreases gastric H+ secrtion, endocrin -- increases insulin release - regulation: increased by fatty acids, amino acids, oral glucose - this is why oral glucose is more rapidly utilized than IV glucose
28
motilin
- source: small intestine - actions: produces MMCs - increases in fasting state - motilin receptor agonists (erythromycin_ are used to stimulate intestinal peristalsis
29
secretin
- source: S cells in the duodenum - actions: increase pancreatic HCO3-, decrease gastric acid secretion and increase bile secretion - regulation: increased by acid and fatty acids in the lumen of the duodenum
30
somatostatin
- inhibitory hormone secreted by D cells in the pancreatic islets and GI mucosa - decreases gastric acid and pepsinogen secretion, decreased gallbladder contraction, decreases insulin and glucagon release - increased by acid, decreased by vagal stimulation - has anti-growth effects - H pylori leads to chronic antral inflammation that decreases the number of D cells
31
VIP
- source: PS ganglia in the sphincters, gall bladder and small intestine - increases intestinal water and electrolyte secretion, increased relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle and sphincters - increased by distention and vagal stimulation, decreased by adrenergic input
32
VIPoma
- non-alpha, non-beta islet cell tumor that secretes VIP | - copious Watery Diarrhea, Hypokalemia, and Achlorhydia (WDHA)
33
intrinsic factor
- source: parietal cells (stomach) - vitamin B12 binding protein required for uptake in the terminal ileum - AI destruction of parietal cells --> chronic gastritis and pernicious anemia
34
gastric acid
- secreted by parietal cells in the stomach - action -- decreases stomach pH - secretion increased by histamine, Ach and gastrin - secretion decreased by somatostatin, GIP, prostaglandin, secretin
35
gastrinoma
gastrin secreting tumor that causes high levels of acid secretion and ulcers (duodenal and jejunal) refractory to medical therapy
36
pepsin
- secreted by chief cells of the stomach - action - protein digestion - regulation - increased by vagal stimulation, local acid - inactive pepsinogen in cleaved to pepsin by H+
37
cells in the body of the stomach
chief cells and parietal cells
38
cells in the antrum of the stomach
G cells, mucous cells and D cells
39
cells in the duodenum
I, S and K cells
40
gastric parietal cell mediators
- Ach (via M3) and gastrin (via CCKb) stimulate Gq and increases IP3/Ca, which increases H/K ATPase activity - histamine binds H2 receptor and increases cAMP through Gs, which increases H/K ATPase activity - prostaglandins, misoprostol and somatostatin decrease cAMP via Gi, decreasing H/K ATPase activity
41
trypsinogen
- converted to trypsin (protease) by enterokinase/enteropeptidase and then goes on to cleave/activate other enzymes - enteropeptidase deficiency: impaired trypsin formation leading to diarrhea, growth retardation and hypoproteinemia - serine peptidase inhibitor secreted by acinar cells (trypsin inhibitor)
42
D-xylose absorption test
distinguishes GI mucosal damage from other causes of malabsorption - would be normal in pancreatic insufficiency/after pancreatic surgery
43
carb absorption
- glucose and galactose taken up by SGLT1 - fructose taken up by GLUT5 - all transported to the blood by GLUT 2
44
iron absorbed in the ....
duodenum | - so pts s/p gastrojejunostomy will need Fe supplements
45
folate absorbed in the ....
jejunum and ileum
46
B12 is absorbed in the ...
terminal ileum along with bile acids, requires IF
47
peyer patches
- in the lamina propria and submucosa of the ileum - contain M cells that sample antigens - IgA secreting plasma cells produce secretory IgA that deal with the intraluminal antigen
48
bile
- made by cholesterol 7-a hydroxylase - functions: digestion and absorption of lipids and fat-soluble vitamins, cholesterol excretion, antimicrobial activity (via membrane disruption)
49
heme oxygenase
- breaks heme down to biliveridin | - responsible for the green discoloration of bruises
50
pleomorphic adenoma
- benign mixed tumor (stromal and epithelial) - the most common salivary gland tumor, usually involves the parotid gland - painless, well-circumscribed, mobile mass - recurs if incompletely excised, which happens a lot because it has irregular borders
51
warthin tumor
- aka pupillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum - benign cystic tumor with germinal centers (lymphoid tissue) - usually involves the parotid gland
52
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
- most common malignant tumor and has mucinous and squamous components - typically presents as painless, slow-growing mass - commonly involves the parotid and affects the facial nerve
53
achalasia
- inability to relax the LES because of loss of the myenteric (Auerbach) plexus - progressive dysphagia to solids and liquids - increased risk of SCC - can be 2/2 Chagas disease
54
eosinophilic esophagitis
infiltration of eosinophils in the esophagus in atopic pts - food allergens --> dysphagia, heartburn, strictures - unresponsive to GERD therapy
55
esophagitis
- associated with reflux, infection in immunocompromised or chemical ingestion - candida - white psuedomembrane - HSV-1 - punched out ulcers - CMV - linear ulcers
56
Plummer Vinson Sydnrome
- triad of dysphagia (due to esophageal webs), iron deficiency anemia and glossitis (beefy red tongue)
57
barrett esophagus
- glandular metaplasia that replaces nonkeratinized squamous epithelium with intestinal epithelium (nonciliated columnar with goblet cells) - increased risk for esophageal adenocarcinoma
58
esophageal carcinoma
- adeno most common in the US, squamous everywhere else - adeno on the bottom 1/3 - adeno RF: barretts, cigarettes, fat, GERD - squamous RF: alcohol, cigarettes, hot drinks, lye ingestion, esophageal webs, diverticula, achalasia - squamous on the top 2/3 - nodes they go to: upper 1/3 --> cervical nodes, middle 1/3 --> mediastinal, bottom 1/3 --> celiac/gastric
59
acute gastritis
- disruption of the mucosal barrier leads to inflammation | - can be caused by stress, NSAIDs, alcohol, uremia, burns (Curling ulcer), brain injury (Cushing ulcer), and chemo
60
Curling Ulcer
- due to severe burns --> decreased plasma volume --> sloughing of the gastric mucosa
61
Cushing ulcer
- due to increased ICP --> increased vagal stimulation --> increased Ach action on parietal cells --> increased acid
62
type A chronic gastritis
- autoimmune attack on parietal cells, pernicious anemia, and achlorhydria (low acid production by the stomach leads to increased gastrin secretion and G cell hyperplasia in the antrum) - associated with other AI disorders
63
type B chronic gastritis
most common type, associated with H pylori infection | - increased risk of MALT lymphoma, gastric adenocarcinoma and ulcers
64
mentrier disease
- gastric hypertrophy with protein loss, parietal cell atrophy, and increased mucous cells - precancerous - rugae of the stomach are so hypertrophied that they look like brain gyri
65
stomach cancer - intestinal type
- associated with H pylori, nitrosamines, tobacco, achlorhydria, AI chronic gastritis - commonly on lesser curvature, looks like ulcer with raised margins - pts with blood type A have higher risk
66
stomach cancer - diffuse type
- not associated with H pylori - signet ring cells - will infiltrate the stomach wall and cause thickening/leathery appearance (linitis plastica)
67
gastric ulcer
- pain Greater with meals - usually on the lesser curvature - if they bleed it comes from the left gastric artery - H pylori 70% of the time, also NSAIDs - increased risk for carcinoma, happen in older people
68
duodenal ulcer
- pain Decreases with meals - H pylori almost always - associated with Z-E syndrome - generally benign - can see hypertrophy of the brunner glands - if they bleed it is the gastroduodenal artery
Step 1 Flash Cards
flashcards
Decks in class (36)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions