CP > GI Pathology > Flashcards

GI Pathology Flashcards

(101 cards)

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1
Q

What is most of the oesophagus lines with?

A

squamous epithelium

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2
Q

What is the distal 1.5cm below the diaphragm lined with?

A

columnar mucosa

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3
Q

Inflammation of the oesophagus is known as

A

oesophagitis

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4
Q

What is the commonest type of oesophagitis?

A

reflux oesophagitis

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5
Q

Sliding hiatus hernia and paraoesophagheal hiatus hernias are risk factors for what

A

reflux oesophagitis

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6
Q

Long standing gastro-oesophageal reflux causes

A

Barrett’s oesophagus

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7
Q

What happens to the cells in Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

squamous mucosa is replaced by columnar mucosa

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8
Q

What is the disease progression from barrett’s oesophagus?

A

dysplasia and then adenocarcinoma

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9
Q

How many types of oesophageal carcinoma are there?

A

2

squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma

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10
Q

What malignancy can appear macroscopically as polypoidal, structuring or ulcerated?

A

Squamous carcinoma

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11
Q

What are the 4 anatomical regions of the stomach?

A

cardia
fundus
body
antrum

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12
Q

What are the 3 histological regions of the stomach?

A

cardia
body
antrum

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13
Q

What is the initial response to a H.pylori infection?

A

Acute gastritis

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14
Q

Chronic gastritis can be caused by

A

autoimune factors
H.pylori
chemical injury

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15
Q

H.pylori infections are more common in what part of the stomach?

A

antrum

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16
Q

H.pylori is a

A

G-VE spiral bacteria

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17
Q

The first part of the duodenum, junction of astral and body mucosa and GOJ are common sites for what?

A

peptic ulcer disease

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18
Q

Hour glass deformities, caused by stricturing, are complications of

A

peptic ulcers

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19
Q

carcinoma of the GOJ is associated with

A

GO reflux

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20
Q

carcinoma of the gastric body is associated with

A

H.pylori and diet

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21
Q

What cancer is associated with CDH1/E-cadherin mutation?

A

Hereditary diffuse type gastric cancer

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22
Q

What disease is also known as gluten sensitive enteropathy?

A

Coeliac disease

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23
Q

In coeliac disease, a reaction to gliadin causes

A

epithelial cells to express IL-15

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24
Q

How can coeliac disease present?

A

Silently, latently, symptomatically and atypically

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25
TTG is the most sensitive test for
Coeliac disease
26
Diverticulosis most commonly occurs in the
sigmoid colon
27
smoking increases the chance of UC and CD by
0.5 and 2 respectively
28
pseudopolyps can be seen in
UC
29
cobblestoning’ is commonly seen in
Crohn’s Disease
30
Crohn’s is most commonly found in the
ileocolic region
31
Most cases of ischaemic colitis affect which part of the colon?
the left colon
32
What can be neoplastic, hamartomatous, inflammatory or reactive?
colorectal polyps
33
large right sided hyperplastic polyps can give rise to
micro satellite unstable carcinoma
34
What is associated with increased risk of colorectal and gastric cancer?
Juvenile polyposis
35
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome has what inheritance pattern?
Autosomal dominant
36
A mutation in STKII gene on chromosome 19 causes
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
37
what is the 2nd commonest cancer
colorectal cancer
38
FAP and Lynch syndrome have what inheritance pattern?
Autosomal dominant
39
What is due to a mutation on the APC tumour suppressor gene?
FAP
40
What is due to mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes?
Lynch syndrome
41
How can CRC be staged?
Dukes and TNM
42
What GI infection is common in older individuals wearing dentures?
Angular chelitis
43
White plaques on the tongue, commonly seen in HIV patients is known as
hairy leucoplakia
44
Quinsys are usually caused by what organism?
Streptococcus pyogenes
45
rapidly spreading cellulitis without lymphadenopathy in deep neck spaces is known as
Ludwig’s angina
46
Which infections can be life-threatening because they have the potential to involve the carotid sheath?
parapharyngeal space infections
47
Inflammation of mucous membranes following chemotherapy is known as
mucositis
48
Effort rupture of the oesophagus is known as
Boorhaave syndrome
49
What is the treatment for a H.pylori infection?
triple antibiotic therapy and a PPI for 1-2 weeks
50
What classically presents as charcots triad?
cholangitis
51
A positive murphy’s sign is seen in
acute cholecystitis
52
What is caused by Trophenyma Whipplei
Whipple’s disease
53
Where is the most common GI site infected by mycobacterium tuberculosis?
ileocaecal region
54
pain in the shoulder on the affected side, persistent hiccup and intercostal tenderness are features of what?
suphrenic abscess
55
what does SSI-S, SSI-D and SSI-O stand for?
(surgical site infection) S- surgical D- deep O- organ space
56
The majority of patients that have advanced cirrhosis with ascites can also get…
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
57
Infantile gastroenteritis is caused by
Enteropathogenic E.coli
58
the passage of 3 or more loose stools in 24 hours/ the passage of 1 or more bloody stools is known as
diarrhoea
59
In diarrhoea, it is important to avoid antidiarrhoeals such as
codeine and loperamide
60
Gullan-Barre syndrome is a complication of an infection by
campylobacter jejuni
61
Outbreaks of what usually occurs in communal catering?
salmonella
62
What causes dysentery?
shigella dysenteriae and enteroinvasive e.coli
63
Reactive arthritis can be caused by
yersinia
64
'rice water’ diarrhoea is caused by
vibrio cholerae
65
A lab test that comes back positive for GDH and cytotoxin means that
C.diff infection is probable and treatment is required
66
C.diff infections are treated with
oral/NG vancomycin
67
Rotarix is a vaccine that was introduced for treating
infection by rotavirus
68
other causes of viral gastroenteritis include
norovirus, adenovirus, sapovirus and astrovirus
69
Gastroenteritis cause by Giardia lambia should be treated with
metronidazole | tinidazole
70
Cysts of what parasite are highly resistant to water disinfectants?
cryptosporidium
71
Enzymes secreted by the pancreas are
``` trypsin lipase phospholipase elastase amylase ```
72
Aetiology of acute pancreatitis can be described as
GARI Gallstones Alcohol Rare causes Idiopathic
73
SPINK1 gene and PRSS1 mutations can cause
hereditary pancreatitis
74
Grey turner’s sign is a sign of
severe pancreatitis there is haemorrhage into subcut flank tissue
75
Cullen’s sign is a sign of
severe pancreatitis there is haemorrhage into the periumbilicus
76
Aetiology of chronic pancreatitis can be described as
TIGARO
77
what is the most common type of pancreatic cancer?
pancreatic adenocarcinoma
78
Pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PaIN) elicits
a desmoplastic response
79
What signs can be seen in pancreatic carcinoma?
Courvoisier’s sign and Trousseau’s syndrome
80
Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumours are derived from
islet cells
81
What is the most common NET?
insulinoma
82
von Meyenberg complex can be caused by
bile duct adenomas
83
focal nodular hyperplasia is common in
young females | 20-40
84
primary heaptocellular carcinomas secrete what that can be detected and measured in the blood?
AFP | alpha-fetoprotein
85
Cholangiocarcinoma and angiosarcoma are
primary malignant liver tumours
86
Risk factors for gallstones are
female middle-aged overweight
87
ALT is more specific than AST in checking for
liver damage
88
increased ALT, PT and ammonia can be seen in
paracetamol OD
89
paracetamol OD should be treated with
N-AC and Vit K
90
Unconjugated bilirubin can be measured in
pre-hepatic and hepatic jaundice
91
conjugated bilirubin can be measured in
post-hepatic jaundice
92
dark urine and pale stools can be seen in someone with
post-hepatic jaundice
93
in haemochromatosis, you should always measure
ferritin
94
in Wilson’s disease, you should measure
copper
95
the pancreas opens to the duodenum via
the spinchter of Oddi
96
Gilbert’s syndrome is an enzyme deficiency that can cause
pre-hepatic jaundice
97
the patient will be itchy if they have
obstructive jaundice
98
What stains iron blue in haemochromatosis?
Perl’s
99
Keyser-Fleischer rings can be seen in
Wilson’s disease
100
Gynaecomastia, spider naevi and caput medusa are signs of
hepatic failure
101
Creon is a pancreatic enzyme replacement that people with what disease need?
CF
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