head and neck Flashcards

(103 cards)

1
Q

What structure make up the outer ear?

A
  • pinna
  • external auditory meatus (ear canal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What structures make up the middle ear

A
  • tympanic membrane
  • ossciles (malleus, incus, stapes)
  • eustachian tube
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what structures does the eustachian tube connect?

A

the middle ear cavity with the nasopharynx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

a blocked eucstachian tube leads to increases pressure in the middle ear

a. true
b. false

A

b. false

decrease in pressure

the middle ear continues to absorb gas which is not replaced by incoming gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the facial nerve runs through the middle ear

a, true
b. false

A

a. true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

otitis media with effusion is an example of conductive hearing loss

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

because the sound is not getting conducted due to fluid in the middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what window does the stapes vibrate against on the cochlea?

A

oval window (membrane covering the entrance to the cochlea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Perilymph is contained within the scala media

a. true
b. false

A

b. false

  • endolymph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how is sound amplified in the middle ear

A
  • lever action of ossicles - force
  • reduced surface area from tympanic membrane -> ossicles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where is the second tympanic membrane located

A

Round window (exiting cochlea via scala tympani)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which part of the cochlea contains the organ of corti

A

scala media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is contained within the scala vestibuli and tympani of cochlea?

A

perilymph

oval window - helicototrema (apex/tip) - round window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

tip of cochlea where the scala vestibuli meets the scala tympani

A

helicotrema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is superior and inferior to the organ of corti?

A

organ of corti = (outer + inner hair cells with cilia)

are surrounded by basilar membrane (inferiorly) and tectorial membrane (superiorly)

cilia are in contact with both membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what fluid is the scala media filled with?

A

endolymph (rich in position ions)

  • rush into hair cell when activated
  • triggers auditory nerve cells -> cochlear nevrve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the roles of the inner and outer hair cells in the organ of corti

A

inner hair cells - activate afferent nerve fibres

outer hair cells - modify the response of the inner hair cells (fine-tuning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the endolymph surrounding hair cells is rich in K+ ions

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

Ca+ also found outside cell open when membrane potential is reached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

High frequency tones are picked up most sensitively close to the middle ear

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

Tonotopic arrangement

High-middle-low frequencies - arrangement goes all the way through the auditory pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Performing both Rinne’s and Weber’s test allows differentiation of conductive and sensorineural deafness.

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is webers test?

A
  • Tuning fork is placed in the middle of the forehead equal distance from the patients’ left and right ear.
  • The patient is asked which side is the loudest.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

in sensorineural hearing loss - sound is localised to the affected side during webers test

a. true
b. false

A

b. false

sound is better heard in the unaffected side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a positive result in rhines test?

A

air conduction > bone conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a negative test result in rhines test and what does it indicate

A

BC > AC
bone conduction > air conduction

(indicates conductive deafness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Name two physical properties of sound
- Frequency (tonotopic arrangement) H-M-L - Volume (loudness)
25
normal range of hearing for audiometry test
o Normal speech is 0-20db (125freq)
26
in sensorineural hearing loss both AC and BC will be > 20dbs a. true b. false
a.true both are reduced in SNHL
27
explain the findings of conductive hearing loss during an auidometry reading?
bone conduction will be normal ( 0-20 dbs) air conduction will be > 20dbs (louder to hear given frequency)
28
what are otoacoutic emissions
low intensity sounds produced by OUTER HAIR CELLS of a normal cochlea
29
Those with hearing loss of > 25-30 dbs will not produce otoacoustic emissions a. true b. false
a. true
30
what does tympanogram show?
the amount of sound absorbed (Admittance) by the tympanic membrane at different air pressures in the external auditory canal
31
When would a tympanogram show the high admittance (absorbed sound)
admittance is highest when the air pressure in the ear canal is equal to the air pressure in the ambient enviorment (0mmHg) Ambient air pressure (enviroment) = middle ear pressure in healthy ears
32
what would a tympanogegram show in conduction hearing loss
peak admittance of sound with negative pressure s (-200mmhg) lower than air pressure
33
How is wax beneficial to the ear?
natural barrier to moisture and infection - creates acidic PH - inhibiting infection
34
The euscachian tube joins?
middle ear to the nasopharynx
35
role of the euchtasian tube?
* equalise air pressure in the middle ear * drain fluid from the middle ear
36
what happens when the euctachian tube becomes blocked?
* air pressure cannot equalise * fluid cant drain freely from the middle ear due to this the middle ear fills with fluid
37
when would someone suit having a cochlear implant?
- Severe hearing loss 90-100 dB - Bi-lateral profound hearing loss - Electrode is placed inside the cochlea – stimulates cochlea (electrical signal directly into cochlea)
38
Which part of the cochlea contains peri-lymph
Scala media rich in K+ ions
39
where the scala vestibuli meets the scala tympani
apex - helicotrema
40
the higest frequency waves stimulate the base of the basilar membrane a. true b. false
a. true (closest to round window) fibres are stiff and short
41
long floppy fibres are found at the apex of basilar membrane a. true b. false
a.true produces low pitched sounds/responds to low frequency waves
42
which hair cells primarily respond to soundwaves
inner hair cells (there are fewer of them)
43
role of outer hair cells
modify/modulating sound
44
what type of movement do hair cells in the macula of the utricle response to
linear acceleration in the horizontal axis - hair cells are on the floor and pointing upwards
44
what type of movement do the hair cells in the saccule response to
linear acceleration in the vertical axis (hair cells are on the wall pointing outwards)
45
what nerve innervates the lacteral rectus muscle of the eye?
CNVI Abducens
46
3rd cranial nerve
occulomotor nerve
47
what innervates the medial rectus muslce?
CNIII occulomotor nerve
48
what semi circular canal are otoconia most likely to get stuck in?
posterior
49
gated ion channels on the steriocilla open when the cilia move towards the kinocila a. true b. false
a. true *K+ and Ca+ rush into cell - triggers release of glutamate in vesciles - APs sent to vestibular ganglion
50
Name the two otolith organs?
Utricle - horizontal accerlation Saccule - vertical accerlation
51
Functions of the nose?
- humidy and warm the inspired air - prevents drying out of lower airways - Remove toxic particles - olfaction - sense organ
52
where is the olfactory appartus of nose found?
the roof of nasal cavity - receptors are connected to the olfactory nerve cribriform plates -> olfactory bulb -> olfactory tract 0> oflactory cortex
53
what is th benefit of air flow within the nose moving from laminar to turbulent?
reduces the velocity so air can come into prolonged contact with the nasal mucosa (warming/humidification and trapping of particlees)
54
the paransal air sinuses are lined with what type of epithelium?
respiratory epithelium pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
55
where does the frontal sinus drain?
middle meatus of nasal cavity
56
what provides sensation to frontal sinus?
V1 - opthalmic nerve (supraorbital branch)
57
Arterial supply to frontal air sinus?
anterior ethmoidal artery (ICA)
58
Where does the sphenoid sinus drain to?
sphenoid ethmoidal recess
59
Innervation of sphenoid sinus
V1 opthalamic
60
Which sinus allows easy acess to the pituitary gland in the instance of tumours?
sphenoid sinus - trans-sphenoid surgery
61
innervation of maxillary sinus?
maxillary nerve (V2)
62
nasolacrimal duct drains to?
63
Venous drainge of the nose
facial vein -> IJV
64
Aterial supply to skin of external nose
*supratrochlear -> **opthalamic artery -> ECA** Angular artery and lateral nasal artery ->** FACIAL ARTERY -> ICA**
65
sensory innervation to external nose
CNV trigeminal nerve - V1/V2
66
motor innervationto nasal muscles
Facial nerve 7
67
arterial supply to external nose
* Opthalamic artry (ICA) * Maxillary artery (ECA)
68
Venous drainage of the external nose
Facial vein -> IJV
69
sensory innervation to the external nose
CNV trigeminal
70
motor innervation to nasal muscles
facial nerve CN7
71
arterial supply to nose that originates from internal carotid arteries?
ICA -> opthalamic artery -> anterior and posterior ethmoid arteries
72
arteries that supply the internal nose that are branches of ECA
- Sphenopalatine artery - Greater palatine artery - Superior labial artery - Lateral nasal artery
73
- Commonest site for anterior epistaxis to occur (nose bleeding)
Circular area – Kesselbachs plexus (littles area on plexus) - Anterior septum
74
- Unilateral glue ear in adults may be a sign of
nasopharyngeal mass/cancer
75
common site of nose cancer
fossa of rossenmullar - compresses eustachian tubes
76
Soft palate is part of *oropharynx a. true b. false
a. true
77
The Subglottis is an anatomical part which region?
layrnx
78
what test is this from?
constrast swallow
79
features of a reactive lymph node
- tender - oval - smooth will be able to move around
80
In a patient presenting with hoarseness which clinical diagnosis MUST be excluded?
laryngeal cancer
81
A common patient complaint is FOSIT (Feeling of something in throat) when there is no physical cause found. What is the medical term for this condition?
globus pharyngeaus
82
most common type of Head and Neck Malignancy?
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
83
With regard to the nose and sinuses: Neuro-olfactory epithelium lines the inferior surface of the cribriform plate. a. true b. false
a. true
84
Concerning the inner ear: The membranous labyrinth contains endolymph. a. true b. false
a. true bony labyrinth contains perilymph
85
Concerning the inner ear: The organ of Corti lies within the scala tympani. a. true b. false
b. false The organ of Corti, comprising the hair cells and tectorial membrane, lies in the scala media (or cochlear duct) rather than scala tympani (or tympanic duct).
86
With regard to the nose and sinuses: The lamina papyracea separates the ethmoid sinuses from the orbital content. a. true b. false
a. true
87
With regard to the nose and sinuses: The sphenopalatine artery is a branch of the anterior ethmoid artery. a. true b. false
b. false is a terminal branch of the internal maxillary artery originating from the external carotid artery system.
88
Concerning the inner ear: The medial semicircular canal is one of four semicircular canals within the bony labyrinth. a. true b. false
b. false There are only three semicircular canals ￝ and these are called the anterior, posterior and lateral semicircular canals.
89
The facial nerve: Changes direction at the geniculate ganglion. a. true b. false
a. true
90
The facial nerve: Has bilateral supranuclear innervation to the upper face. a. true b. false
a. true The supranuclear innervation is bilateral to the muscles of the forehead and eyes but only contralateral to the muscles of the lower part of the face. This accounts for the sparing of the upper facial muscles with a contralateral cortical lesion.
91
Concerning the inner ear: High frequency hearing is generated within the basal turn of the cochlea. a. true b. false
true High frequency sounds create most movement of the basilar membrane towards the basal turn of the cochlear, ie close to the oval window.
92
With regard to the nose and sinuses: The nasolacrimal duct drains into the inferior meatus in the lateral nasal wall. a. true b. false
a. true
93
The facial nerve: Is a pure motor nerve. a. true b. false
false Although the facial nerve is the main motor nerve for the muscles of facial expression, it also carries a small sensory component. Notably, the sensation of taste from the anterior two thirds of the tongue. You could also argue that it carries proprioceptive sensation from the muscles of the face.
94
The nasal septum is made up of three parts:
a) the central plate of the ethmoid b) the vomer, c) the septal cartilage plate that extends anteriorly from a) and b).
95
The main branch of the facial nerve exits the skull through the stylomastoid foramen. a. true b. false
a. true
96
Concerning the inner ear: The vestibular nerves lie posterior to the facial and auditory nerves within the internal auditory meatus (IAM). a. true b. false
a. true
97
What is the mainstay of treatment of treatment for nasal polyps?
nasal steriods
98
What method of hearing assessment would be recommended for a 6 month old child to assess hearing?
distraction test
99
What is your first line management for a patient with an active epistaxis?
anterior nasal pressure
100
The products of mast cell degranulation in response to an antigen leads to which of the following important processes?
* Smooth muscle contraction, * Vasodilation, * Leukocyte release
101
After IgE antibodies are produced in response to an antigen, they bind to mast cells in phase called sensitisation. When the body is exposed again to this antigen, what do mast cells release in response?
***Histamine, leukotrienes and prostaglandins***