Public LOIT 2027 > Highlighted Admin > Flashcards

Highlighted Admin Flashcards

(192 cards)

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1
Q

Who is responsible for the ISFSI?

A
  • Unit 1 SM

- Unit SM while dry cask in in transport (not set on pad)

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2
Q

What is minimum shift manning for a unit?

A
  • 1 SM
  • 1 CRS
  • 2 RO’s
  • 1 FTA for site
  • 4 AO’s
  • 1 RW for site
  • 1 SBOG for site
  • 1 outside area
  • 3 STA or 2 STA and 1 ENS communicator
  • 1 ENS communicator
  • 2 STSC communicator for site
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3
Q

How many RO’s and AO’s are required to be within the unit at all times?

A
  • 2 RO’s

- 3 AO’s

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4
Q

How long can a required manning position be vacant?

A
  • Any position except SM
  • < 2 hrs
  • Unplanned incident (can’t be vacant just to go home)
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5
Q

How does MCR staffing requirements change in Mode 5-6?

A
  • CRS normally has command function

- May be qualified SRO or RO

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6
Q

What do night orders provide?

A
  • Info to ops in timely manner
  • Temporary
  • Shorter term than standing orders
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7
Q

What do Standing orders provide?

A
  • Info for longer term issues
  • OD contingency plans
  • ODMI Action plans
  • Directives from Ops Manager
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8
Q

How are alarms communicated?

A
  • Directly to CRS

- Promptly identify cause

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9
Q

Which alarms CANNOT be left in fast flash?

A
  • CEA position out of limits
  • Possible inadvertent boron dilution
  • CNTMT Sump excess leakage
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10
Q

When and how do you transition back to normal alarm response from transient alarm response?

A
  • CRS directs

- Plant is stable

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11
Q

When is an alarm considered “expected”

A

ONLY if prebriefed

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12
Q

What actions are required if an alarm occurs do to an activity, but was not briefed?

A
  • considered unexpected alarm
  • ARP to validate no further actions
  • ARP used at CRS discretion
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13
Q

Which alarms are NOT to be left in fast flash

A
  • CEA out out-of-limits (PDIL)
  • Possible Boron Dilution (BDAS)
  • CTMT Sump excess leakage (RCS leak detection)
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14
Q

When do you transition from transient alarms back to normal?

A
  • CRS directs

- plant is stable

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15
Q

When would you manually input a SESS?

A
  • Disabled/ unable to perform function and NOT alarmed

- Impairment > 1 shift

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16
Q

Where do you document manual SESS inputs?

A

Unit Log

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17
Q

Does manually actuating a Rx trip or ESFAS actuation that did not auto occur required CRS concurrence?

A

NO

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18
Q

How often are critical parameters monitored?

A
  • Every 5 minutes
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19
Q

Who CANNOT provide peer checks?

A
  • SM
  • CRS
  • Rx manager
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20
Q

How are peer checks managed for AOP/EOP’s?

A
  • Preferred

- NOT required

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21
Q

What is required to have Peer Checker also act as IV’er?

A
  • SM permission

- CR documenting

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22
Q

What are some examples of 2-Handed ops?

A
  • SG sample isolation vlvs
  • RCP B/O isolations
  • ADV’s
  • HPSI injections
  • SIAS/CIAS actuation
  • etc.
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23
Q

True or False the Rx manager must have an active SRO license

A

TRUE

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24
Q

What notification is required for AOP/EOP entries?

A
  • NRC Resident
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25
What plant activities require a plant announcement?
- Brkr manips 4.16 & 13.8kv - Starting large equipment - Changing plant modes
26
Who determines equipment quarantine requirements?
- SM
27
What covers deviations from procedures and what is required to do so?
50. 54(x) procedure, 1 hour notification 72. 32(d) dry caks, 4 hour notification - In an emergency - Action IMMEDIATELY needed to protect public health and safety
28
What is required to maintain license?
- 5x 12 hour shifts in license position per quarter - SRO's need 1 of those as supervisory watch - Complete requal in 6 weeks of end of training cycle
29
How are CR discrepancies identified?
- Red sticker dot
30
What is required to jumper a CR alarm? | How is that identified in the CR?
- Alarming for non-justifiable reason - > 14 days - Orange sticker dot (Common unit alarms not jumpered)
31
When is a mode change checklist performed?
- Mode Changes - Pressure ≥ 385 psia - Pressure ≥ 1837 psia - Closing RTCB's - Power > 15% - Power > 20% - Irradiated Fuel moves
32
What is the time requirement for Mode Change Checklists?
- Change performed with 24 hours of STARTING checklist
33
Who can extend a Mode Change Checklist?
- STA and SM evaluate extensions | - SM authorizes
34
What is required if HOURLY JSCALORH is > 100%
- Reduce power within 1 hour | - Monitor 10 min average until ≤ 100%
35
What is required if 12 hour average is > 100%?
- IMMEDIATELY reduce power | - CR
36
What is required if JSCALOR is not available?
- Use NKBDELTC - Maintain power for 12 hours - After 12 hours reduce to < 96.6%
37
How many set of rounds can be stored on the hand held?
- 500 | - who cares
38
Who logs medical restrictions for licensed operators?
- U1 SM
39
What is the SM/ CRS responsible for logging?
- LCO entry/ exit/ required actions - Unexpected alarms when cause not known - Chemistry action levels - Anything with SSC's - RMAL - Injuries requiring off-site medical - Mode changes
40
What is RO's responsible for logging?
- Power changes > 10% - Equipment status changes - Significant equipment malfunction - T-mod install/ removal - ECC directives - SESS manual inputs
41
Who is the "Final Authority" on protected equipment?
- SM
42
Who can grant access to protected equipment during an emergency?
- CRS
43
How long do you have to post protected equipment?
- Short Duration - Not required - Emergent - 4 hours - Planned activity - Prior to removal of equipment
44
Who performs shutdown safety function assesment?
- STA
45
What are the Shutdown Safety Funcitons?
- Rx control - MVA - RCS/ SFP inventory and Heat removal - RCS press control - CHR - CI/ CTPC
46
What is considered working "near" protected equipment
- <2 feet
47
Who reviews IST/ ST's of SAFETY RELATED pumps? | How long do they have?
- SM/CRS | - 96 hours from acceptance review completion
48
During an ST review what is the ACCEPTANCE REVIEWER checking?
- Technical and Administrative accuracy - calculations - Data in acceptance criteria - log entries complete - pre-conditioning
49
Who performs acceptance review of ST's?
- Someone qualified to do the ST
50
How long do you have to perform PARTIAL PERFORMANCE REVIEWS?
- Shiftly/ Daily/ Weekly ST - N/A - Monthly ST - 3 days from start - > Monthly ST - 7 days from start
51
What is the review process for ABORTED ST's
- Normal Review process
52
What is the required Oxygen concentration for confined spaces?
19.5 - 23.5%
53
What is the Lower flammability limit for confined spaces?
- < 10% LFL
54
Who is covered by fatigue management requirements at PVGS
- ANYONE performing covered work - Operations - Maintenance - FTA - Security - RP/ Chemistry if ERO minimum
55
What is the MAX hours allowed to work in a 24 hour period?
- 16 hours
56
What is the MAX hours allowed to work in a 48 hour period?
- 26 hours
57
What is the MAX hours allowed to work in a 7 day period?
- 72 hours
58
What is the minimum break period for a 9-day period?
- 34 hours in 9 days
59
What is the OPERATIONS OUTAGE work limits
- 3 days off in each 15 day period
60
What is required if a fatigue waiver is granted?
- Face-to-face assessment | - within 4 hours
61
What conditions are required for a Clearance to not be required
- Isolations in workers line of sight - Close enough workers can stop manipulation - Minor servicing of equipment
62
Who can authorize deviation from Clearance Requirements? | what is required to do so?
- EC - During an emergency - Prevent hazard to personnel - Prevent hazard to equipment - Prevent release off-site
63
What requires double valve isolation?
- 200°F | - 500 psig
64
Who installs/ removes grounds for clearances?
- Electricians
65
How is a missing, unattached, or illegible tag resolved?
- CV
66
Can PVGS work be performed under an ECC clearance?
NO
67
Who authorizes resetting of tripped relays/ 86's
- SM/ CRS
68
When can an 86 on class bus be reset from the CR?
- Bus supplied from DG | - Continued operation of load required
69
What initiates Contaminated Water Management?
- AOP | - EOP
70
Who performs Contaminated Water Management | How is that determined?
- Affected or unaffcted Unit SRO | - Affected unit SM/CRS determines who does it
71
When would the responsibility of Contaminated Water Management be transferred and to who?
- TSC is activated | - EC continues
72
What is performed to minimize Off-Site Release?
- Align sumps to LRS - Iso. CD overboarding - Start BAC - Start all units Evaps - Stop IX regens
73
How should the secondary plat be aligned during Contaminated Water Management?
- Long path recirc | - used until < release limts
74
When is a TSCCR created?
- Equip/ component impacting LCO is inoperable
75
When would a TSCCR not be required?
- Equipment OOS short period of time (before turnover)
76
When would a CR be initiated with a TSCCR?
- Equip/ Comp. failure - Human Error - Unkown cause
77
Who can authorize the use of an "N/A" on a non-conditional step?
- Team Leader or above | - That is CRS or above for people we care about
78
When would a TAPA be generated?
- Non-intent change to procedure - Causes a stop in work - Equipment failure - Human performance error - Clarification for AOP or ARP
79
When a TAPA is approved, how long does the procedure owner have for review and approval?
- 14 days
80
How long does a TAPA have to be incorporated or canceled?
- Non-equip. related - 30 days of authorization | - Equipment related - end of next refueling outage
81
What sources can be used to verify procedure revision?
- SWMS - eProc - Controlled Library
82
In a procedure what does bulleted steps mean?
May be completed in any order
83
What is required for procedure deviations?
- Emergency conditions - SM concurs - Protects Health and Safety of the public - Minimize personnel injury - Minimize damage to plant equipment - Returns plant to stable safe conditions - Write CR
84
What condition would allow continued usage of a procedure that has an error?
- Error is administrative | - Initiate PCR
85
What would be required to continue to use a procedure with an error?
- Administrative error
86
What is a Chemistry Control Instruction (CCI) for?
- Performance of actions for corrective/ preventative chemistry control - Waive non-technical specification chemistry specifications - Documenting OOS conditions
87
Who concurs/ approves CCI's?
- CRS/ SM
88
If CRS/ SM does NOT concur or cannot implement CCI, who do they inform?
- Unit Chemistry
89
Who can make changes to Non-Tech spec sampling frequencies and specifications?
- Chemistry Department Leader
90
Who can authorize lock removal and CV for verifications?
- CRS
91
Components can ONLY be performed with....?
Implementing Procedures: - EOP - AOP - OP - GOP - ARP - ST
92
What is the concern when using AOP/ EOP/ ARP's | in regards to status control
- May not maintain status control
93
Who authorizes CML's | component manipulation log
- WC CRS/ SM | - CRS/ SM
94
What rad levels require valve position verification LOCALLY at the valve?
- vlv is outside high rad area | - < 100 mR/hr
95
What is required if the peer checker will also be the IV'er?
- SM permission | - CR written documenting
96
When would an IV be performed repeated operation of a component is performed?
- After final manipulation | - Unless directed again procedurally
97
Can a component/ system be declared operable BEFORE or AFTER IV's are complete?
- After
98
What is required to use alternative verification methods?
- SM authorize | - Documented in CR or unit log
99
What is the duty cycle for an AC MOV?
- 15 minutes/ hour
100
What is the duty cycle of a DC MOV?
- 5 minutes/ hour
101
How can you ensure an MOV is fully closed?
- Locally observe motor stops - Hold closed for 120% of stroke time - Hold closed 5 seconds with closed indication
102
Who must be notified if manually seating an MOV?
- Component Program Engineering
103
How is a manually seated MOV identified?
- EST hung on HS
104
How is an MOV returned to service after it has been manually seated?
- Manually unseat - Stroke 2x - Locally monitor MOV
105
When can you electrically unseat a manually seated MOV?
ALL of the following: - Non-safety related vlv - Back seated - Inaccessible due to safety or ALARA - Engineering concurs
106
What does Risk Assessment consider a "Heavy Load"?
- ≥ 2000 pounds
107
What is considered a High Risk Evolution?
- Reduced inventory/ Mid-loop with fuel in Vessel - Degraded grid - Severe Weather - Switchyard Bus Outage Maintenance where single failure could result in RCS/ Fuel pool inventory loss: - Freeze seal on RCS or interface system - Leaking/ Failed SG nozzle dam - RCP on stop seal with Head on - > 10 gpm leak through stop seal
108
What are the different lowered RCS levels? | PLRM?
- < 117' Partial Drain - < 114' Reduced Inventory - < 103' 1" Midloop - 101' 6" bottom of midloop
109
What is "Risk" measuring?
Increased likelihood of: - Core Damage - Large Early Release
110
Who's approval is required if Yellow risk >168 hours in a week?
- Site General Manager
111
Who authorizes entering Orange risk?
- Site General Manager
112
What is the maximum time allowed to be in Orange risk?
- 72 hours per week
113
Who ensures results of condition risk assessments are documented in the Unit log?
- SM
114
Who approves protected equipment schemes AND work performed on/ near protected equipment?
- SM
115
Who maintains the risk profile from T-2 to T-0?
- WCSRO
116
What is the most likely Initiating event resulting in core melt?
- Fires | - 65% of events
117
What is the most important system impacting risk?
- AFW
118
When is a system/ component considered "Available"
- Administratively inoperable - Norm/ STBY lineup - Able to perform intended function - Test/ maint. configuration AUTOMATICALLY over-ridden by start signal - Dedicated operator to restore
119
What are the 10 CFR 50.59 Review steps? | What is its purpose?
ASE: - Applicability Determination: is Screening required? - Screening: is Evaluation required? - Evaluation: Is NRC prior approval required? Determine if NRC approval required prior to changes to plant or procedures or conduct tests
120
When would 50.59 (Review process) NOT apply?
- Other regulations establish more specific criteria (already covered by CFR's)
121
What is the PTBM area?
- 400 feet of outside perimeter of Spray Ponds
122
What are the limits for PTBM?
- > 5 pounds - < 4000 punds - > 3 feet
123
What is the most restrictive HOUSEKEEPING zone? | What zone prohibits eating?
- Zone IV
124
Who controls access to the 525kv yard?
- U1 SM
125
Can Operations perform switching under direction of TGO via ECC?
- Emergency switching ONLY
126
What is the normal TOTAL site loading for PVGS?
- 3920 MW
127
What is required if only 2 transmission lines are in service to our switchyard?
- U1 SM contact ECC | - direct at least 2 lines remain in service
128
When is the ECC ring-down phone used?
- Emergency calls | - within 1 hour of trips
129
When and who contacts the ECC to give details of a unit trip?
- Affected Unit SM | - as soon as IMMEDIATE emergency subsides
130
What are TCC (Temporary Configuration Change) Exceptions?
- Under clearance and isolated from other systems - Maintenance under WO - Connecting portable tools - Degraded stuff tracked with CAP - Temp. equipment for filling/venting/draining
131
Who approves installation and removal of T-mods?
- SM
132
Who can approve install and removal of procedural T-mods?
- CRS | - SM
133
What is required for a T-mod exception? (dont have to track it)
- Monitoring devices at designated test points - Covered by single WO or Ops procedure in a single shift - Voltmeters or similar NOT permanently attached AND constantly monitored
134
What qualification is required for a T-mod work order approval?
- Active Shift Manager
135
How often is a T-mod justification review required to be performed?
- Semi-annual
136
Whos approval is required to have a T-mod installed for greater than a cycle?
- Engineering VP
137
Who performs T-mod status tracking? | How is it tracked?
STA - Logged in T-mod book/ excel sheet - T-mod tag installed - Unit log entry
138
Who authorizes CNTMT entries modes 1-4?
- SM | - CRS
139
How long is a CNTMT entry good for Modes 1-4?
- 24 hours
140
When is a CNTMT purge required?
- H2 ≥ 0.15% - Purge minimum 12 hours AND < 0.04% 2 O2 samples < 19.5%
141
How is the NRC normally notified of events?
- ENS | - Verbally and form
142
Who is responsible for 4 hour or less NRC notifications?
- SM
143
How long do we have to notify NRC of Safeguard Events involving license material?
- Immediately (<1 hour) | - Follow up with written report 30 days
144
What is the operating Licensed Thermal Limit?
- 102%
145
What are the 1 hour NRC notifications?
- 50.54(x) used - E-plan classifications - Tech Specs Safety limits exceeded - Cyber attack of safety related epuip/ capability - Security threat - Exceeding ODCM limit (also requires 30 day report)
146
What are the 4 Hour NRC notification?
- ECCS discharge into RCS with valid start signal - Tech Spec required shutdown - Actuation of RPS while critical - Event resulting in News Release - Cyber Attack maybe impacts?
147
What are the 8 Hour NRC notifications?
- Principal safety barriers seriously degraded - Unanalyzed condition Significantly degrades plant safety - Valid actuation of: RPS, SIAS, CIAS, MSIS, CSAS, ECCS. AFW, EDGs, CTNTMT heat removal/ depressurization - Something could have prevented the fulfillment of the safety function - Transport of contaminated person to offsite medical - Major loss of: EALs, offsite response capability, offsite communication
148
Who is the interface between Ops and Engineering for operability evaluation?
- STA
149
What is a Functional Assessment for?
- attribute of SSC not covered by tech specs - Functional when capable of performing function TRM ODCM DAFAS, SPS, SBOG Maint. Rule equipment
150
How is an IOD (immediate Operability Determination performed?
- On shift personnel | - Best info available
151
How long do you have to perform a POD (Prompt Operability Determination)?
- 24 Hours OR 75% of allowed LCO time
152
Who can authorize an extension for a POD (prompt operability determination)
- SM
153
What is a "Degraded Condition"
- SSCs functional capability is reduced
154
What is a "Nonconforming Condition"
- SSC fails to meet all aspects of licensing basis
155
Who performs, reviews, and approves IOD/FAs?
- SM | - CRS
156
Who is responsible for approving Controlled Barrier permits?
- WCSRO
157
What is required to NOT have a permit for a controlled barrier?
- out of configuration for ≤ 1 hour - Continuously manned - Person familiar with function of barrier - Capable of being restored - PreReqs and Comp actions satisfied
158
What is the concern with Controlled Barriers in the Aux Bldg below the 100'
- Makes PREACS inoperable | - Both trains of PREACS inop 3.0.3
159
What comp measures are required to open a controlled barrier in the Aux Bldg below the 100'?
- Dedicated operator - Constant coms with CR - Able to restore in 10 Minutes of a SIAS signal
160
What compensatory actions are required to prop open CR doors? Modes 1-4
- Dedicated Operator - Direct coms with CR - SCBAs available - KI available - Secure activities that could contribute to unfiltered air in leakage to CR
161
How do we communicate ODMIs to the crews?
- Standing Orders
162
Who is the Final approval for ODM Action Plans?
- Plant Manager or designee
163
Who determines if an issue has risen to the level of ODMI?
- SM
164
Who approves ODMI
- Unit Ops Manager
165
Who approves Effluent Release Permits?
- CRS | - SM
166
What is an "Abnormal Release"
- Unplanned/ uncontrolled release from site boundary thats not monitored
167
Who do we have to notify of an Abnormal Release?
- RP
168
Who can authorize esceeding ODCM limits? | When can it be done?
- CRS/SM | - Abnormal conditions (Emergencies)
169
What is required if ODCM limits are exceeded?
- 1 hour NRC notification | - 30 day follow up report with corrective actions
170
How long is a Continuous release permit good for?
31 days
171
How long is a WGDT release permit good for?
24 hours
172
What is the maximum time limit for release permits?
31 days
173
How long is a Power Access Purge release permit good for?
7 days
174
How long is a BAC release permit good for?
7 Days
175
How long is a CTMTN vent release permit good for?
24 Hours
176
What is required if the GR Effluent flow monitors are non-functional?
- Estimate flow | - Every 4 hours
177
What is required to release a WGDT with the RU OOS?
2 Independent: - samples analysis - release rate calcs - Vlv line ups
178
What is required if RU-134/ 145 Plant vent/ Fuel Bldg Vent are OOS
- 12 Hour grab samples OR - 12 Hour local readings
179
What is the basis for RU alarm/ trip setpoints?
- alarm/ trip occur prior to exceeding 10 CFR 20 limits
180
Who approves Hot-work WOs?
- WCSRO | - CRS
181
Who approves hot work permits?
- CRS | - CRS designee
182
Who notifies Fire Department of reported or known issues with fire protection
- CRS | - SM
183
Who reviews T-Mod WOs?
- Active SM
184
Who approves T-Mod removal WOs?
- Active SM
185
Who reviews and approves work during Reduced Inventory or Mid-loop?
- Mid-Loop Coordinator (MLOC) AND - SM
186
Who is the final authorization for Work-at-risk activities?
- SM
187
How is a "No Touch Day" implemented?
- ECC declares - ECC notifies U1 CRS - U1 CRS notifies all unit SMs and WWM - Consider limiting ≤ 72 hour LCO activities - Consider restoring equipment under maintenance - Consider stopping maintenance
188
What are the annual dose limits?
- 5 Rem TEDE - 15 Rem lens of the eye - 50 Rem skin/ extremities
189
What are the rad levels for different postings
- RA - 5 mr/hr - HRA - 100 mr/hr - LHRA - 1000 mr/hr - VHRA - 500 Rads in 1 hour at 1 meter
190
What are the PVGS dose limits?
- < 2 Rem TEDE annually - < 10 Rem TEDE in 5 years - < 1.5 Rem/ year admin hold point
191
What are the different contamination levels for different CA postings?
- CA - > 1,000 dpm | - HCA - > 100,000 dpm
192
What are the limitations for using a frisker?
- Background < 300 cpm - 2" per second - 1/4 - 1/2" above surface Notify RP if ≥ 100 cpm above background
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