A. Frog lateral only
B. Dunn view
C. AP view of hip and pelvis
D. Axial MRI
Answer: C
The AP view of the hip and pelvis is the standard first radiographic evaluation.
A. Acetabular roof only
B. Femoral head-neck junction
C. Sacrum
D. Lumbar spine
Answer: B
The frog lateral view highlights the femoral head-neck junction.
A. Asymmetric
B. Equal bilaterally
C. Absent
D. Blurred
Answer: B
Symmetry indicates proper positioning.
A. Labral tears
B. Articular cartilage only
C. Bony anatomy and alignment
D. Muscle atrophy
Answer: C
Radiographs primarily assess bony structures.
A. Greater trochanter
B. Femoral neck
C. Femoral head
D. Lesser trochanter
Answer: C
The femoral head articulates with the acetabulum.
A. Bright structure
B. Dark triangular structure
C. Fluid signal
D. Invisible
Answer: B
The labrum appears dark on T1-weighted imaging.
A. Fluid detection
B. Bone marrow and anatomy detail
C. Ligament tears only
D. Cartilage edema only
Answer: B
T1-weighted images highlight anatomical detail and marrow.
A. Axial rotation
B. Bilateral hip comparison
C. Sagittal structures only
D. Lumbar discs
Answer: B
Coronal view allows comparison of both hips.
A. Transverse plane structures
B. Sagittal alignment
C. Lumbar lordosis
D. Knee alignment
Answer: A
Axial view assesses transverse plane anatomy.
A. Normal finding
B. Stress reaction or fracture
C. Muscle strain
D. OA only
Answer: B
Bone marrow edema may indicate stress injury.
A. MRI first
B. CT first
C. Radiographs (AP pelvis/hip)
D. Ultrasound
Answer: C
Radiographs are usually appropriate first imaging.
A. Repeat X-ray
B. MRI without IV contrast
C. Ultrasound
D. Bone scan first
Answer: B
MRI without IV contrast is usually appropriate next.
A. MRI with contrast
B. X-ray pelvis and hip
C. CT scan
D. PET scan
Answer: B
Radiographs are first-line for chronic hip pain.
A. Fracture is obvious
B. Radiographs are negative but soft tissue pathology suspected
C. Acute trauma only
D. Always first-line
Answer: B
MRI is appropriate when soft tissue pathology suspected.
A. Usually appropriate first-line
B. Usually not appropriate in many hip scenarios
C. Required for all fractures
D. First imaging for chronic pain
Answer: B
CT with IV contrast is often rated usually not appropriate.
A. Labral tear
B. Femoral neck stress fracture
C. OA
D. Hip dysplasia
Answer: B
MRI revealed a nondisplaced femoral neck stress fracture.
A. Labral detachment
B. Bone marrow edema and signal change
C. Joint effusion only
D. Cartilage thinning only
Answer: B
MRI showed bone marrow edema and decreased signal intensity.
A. Primary knee pathology
B. Hip pathology referring to knee
C. Ankle instability
D. Lumbar radiculopathy
Answer: B
Hip pathology can refer pain to medial knee.
A. ACL tear
B. Acetabular dysplasia changes
C. Tibial plateau fracture
D. Patellar subluxation
Answer: B
Imaging demonstrated hip dysplasia findings.
A. Repeat radiographs only
B. MR arthrogram (MRA)
C. CT scan
D. Bone scan only
Answer: B
MR arthrogram was ordered after persistent symptoms.
A. Bone tumors
B. Labral tears
C. Muscle strains
D. Osteophytes only
Answer: B
MRA improves detection of labral pathology.
A. No pathology
B. Advanced OA
C. Further imaging indicated
D. Immediate surgery
Answer: C
Persistent symptoms may require MRI or MRA.
A. Usually appropriate first-line
B. Usually not appropriate for suspected fracture
C. Gold standard
D. Better than MRI
Answer: B
Ultrasound is usually not appropriate for suspected fracture.
A. Clear fracture
B. No significant abnormality
C. Dysplasia
D. OA
Answer: B
Initial radiograph showed no significant abnormality.