P4 > ID > Flashcards

ID Flashcards

(57 cards)

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1
Q

Syphilis bacteria + pathogenesis

A

treponema pallidum

acquired through sexual contact

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2
Q

syphillis clinical features

A

painless ulceration

local lymphadenopathy

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3
Q

Mx syphilis

A

1 - IM benzathine penicillie

2 - Doxycycline

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4
Q

Ix syphilis

A

treponema specific antibodies

cardiolipid tests

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5
Q

live attenuated vaccines

A 
BCG
MMR
yellow fever
polio
typhoid
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6
Q

how long does HIV seroconversion take?

A

3-12 weeks

ELISA test repeated in 3 months

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7
Q

how many tetanus doses to provide adequate long term protection ?

A

5

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8
Q

is there a vaccine for hep C?

A

no

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9
Q

Diagnostic ix?

Outcome

A

HCV RNA

15-45% clear the virus
55-85% will develop hepatitis C

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10
Q

when is it defined as hep C?

A

perisistence HCV RNA in blood for 6 months

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11
Q

complications of hep C

A

rheumatologicla - arthritis
sjrogen’s - eye
cirrhosis - HCC
membranproliferative glomerulonephriits

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12
Q

hep C Mx

A

treatment depends on viral genotype

PROTEASE INHIBITORS

  1. Sustained virological response (SVR)
    - aim: undetectabe serum HCV RNA doe 6 months after end therapy
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13
Q

triad of infectious mononucleosis

A
  1. sore throat
  2. Pyrexia
  3. lymphadenopathy
    (ant/post triangle of the neck)
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14
Q

which species of malaria is the most severe?

most common benign?

A

severe: plasmodium falciparum
benign: plasmodium vivax

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15
Q

what diseases protect from malaria?

A

sickle cell anaemia

G6PD deficiency

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16
Q

what is erysipelas?

A

bacterial infection of the upper dermis

extending to the subcutaneous lymphatic vessels - well demarcated

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17
Q

difference between cellulitis and erysipelas?

A

cellulitis

  • lower dermis
  • group A haem strept (pyrogenes) 66% + staph auerus 33%

erysipelas

  • upper dermis
  • group A haemolytic strept (pyogenes) - mostly
  • staph auerus
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18
Q

what is Mx for cellulitis + erysipelas?

A

flucoloacillin - for both

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19
Q

features of malaria

A

cyclical fever
hepatospenomegaly
diarrhoea
jaundice

anaemia
thrombocytopenia
hypoglycaemia
acidosis

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20
Q

complications of malaria

A

ARDS
DIC
cerebral malaria

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21
Q

diseases of bloody diarrhoea vs non-bloody?

A

bloody:

  • samonella
  • campylobacter
  • shigella

non-bloody:

  • chlorea
  • giardiasis
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22
Q

shortest incubation time

1-6hrs (2)
12 - 48hrs (2)

A

1-6hrs

  • staph aureus
  • bacillus cereus

12-48hrs

  • e.coli
  • salmonella
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23
Q

screening TB test in uk

Study These Flashcards
A

mantoux test
>15mm suggests infection

interferon-gamma test

24
Q

features of legionella

Study These Flashcards
A 
dry cough
lymphopenia - low lymphocytes
hyponatraemia
derranged LFTs
pleural effusion 30%
25
Mx for bloody / invasive diarrhoea?
ciprofloxacin
26
most common STI in Uk
chlamydia NAAT doxycyline / azithromycin 7 days
27
SE of tetracyclines
black hairy tongue angioedema photosensitivity teeth discolouration
28
most likely post splenectomy sepsis
strept pneumoniae h influenza meningococci
29
MRSA Mx - suppression once carrier identified
nasal mupirocin | topical chlordexidine
30
MRSA abx in Mx
vancomycin - glycopeptide teicoplanin linezolid
31
what bacteria causes amoebic liver abscess - anchovy sauce ?
entamoeba histolytica
32
patients who recently had influenza are at risk of what?
staph aureus chest infection
33
actions after HIV+ needle stick injury
1. encourage bleed 2. go ED 3. oral anti-retroviral therapy for 4 weeks, within 72 hours 4. 12 weeks following completion
34
pregnancy with bacterial vaginosis
still can use oral metronidazole
35
meningitis features CSF sample visible by india ink - what is the organisms
cryptococcus neoformans
36
fitz hugh curtis syndrome?
complication of PID - causing liver capsule to be inflamed scar tissue develops + perihepatic adhesions PMH - chlamydia + gon
37
pathogen causing croup
parainfluenza virus
38
parovirus B19 serology
IgG = immunity IgM = infection
39
Malaria mX
Non-severe falciparum: - oral artesunate combination therapy (ACT) severe falciparum: - IV artesunate
40
pathogen causing kaposi's sarcoma
human herpes virus 8
41
hx of fever, travel, arthralgia, rose spots on abdo causative pathogen
salmonella typhi
42
if a HIV patient develops pneumococcus jivoreci, what is their CD4 count?
<200
43
complications erythema infectiosum / paravirus B19
aplastic anaemia in sickle cell patients suppress EPO for a week
44
what is leprosy?
granulomatous disease affecting the peripheral nerves + skins - caused by mycobacterium leprae 1. hypopigmentation of skin 2. loss of sensation
45
leprosy Mx
triple therapy rifampicin dapsone clofazimine
46
describe lymes disease
borrelia burgdorferi - spread by ticks 1. erythem chroncium migrans 'bulls-eye' rash (clinically diagnostic) 2. cardio - heart block, myocarditis 3. neuro - facial n palsy, meningitis ELISA - blood test for Borrelia burgdorferi
47
Mx for lymes
oral doxycycline if preg: amoxicillin
48
how does herpes simplex virus present its primary infection?
gingivostomatitis (gum + mouth ulceration)
49
what are the rules with herpes simplex and pregnancy?
if infected during pregnancy at greater than 28 weeks | - elective caesarean
50
how does typhoid present?
rose spots w/ constipation w/ relative brady (faget's) transmitted via faecal oral route
51
what are the abx guidelines for pregnancy?
1st trimester - nitrofurantoin 3rd trimester + safe for breastfeeding: - trimethoprim
52
describe HIV seroconversion
60-80% of patients are symptomatic develops 3-12 weeks after infection
53
features of HIV seroconversion
``` sore throat lymphadenopathy malaise diarrhoea maculopapular rash mouth ulcers ```
54
HIV seroconversion diagnosis
1. HIV PCR 2. p24 antigen test testing done 4 weeks after exposure --> after neg result --> repeat test at 12 weeks
55
list some AIDs defining disease
pneumoncytis jiroveci fungal - oesophgeal candidiasis kaposi's sacroma - HH8 hairy leukoplakia - EBV in HIV
56
HIV transmission
sexual (75% most common) IVDU vertical transmission
57
what are HAART?
highly active anti-retroviral therapy aim to slow down HIV replication - giving the body a chance to fight off opportunitistc infection 1. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors 2. protease inhibitors 3. non-nucleoside revser transcriptase inhibitors
P4
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