ID practice Flashcards

(31 cards)

1
Q

Which is matched incorrectly?
α = incomplete hemolysis
β = complete hemolysis due to bacterial exotoxin
γ = no hemolysis
All of the above are correct

A

All of the above are correct

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2
Q

First-line treatment for streptococcal infections is what?
a) Amoxicillin-clauvinate
b) Penicillin
c) Cephalosporin
d) Azithromycin/ clindamycin

A

b) Penicillin

second line = cephalosporin if rxn to PCN is mild, otherwise azithromycin or clindamycin

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3
Q

A pt had malaise, headache, cough, and a sore throat. They then began experiencing abdominal pain, distention, and pea soup diarrhea. Physical exam shows splenomegaly and a pink rash on their trunk. How would you diagnose this form of salmonella?
a) Clinically
b) Stool culture
c) Blood culture

A

c) Blood culture

(pt has Enteric (typhoid fever) so stool culture is unreliable)

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4
Q

Sudden, severe, “rice water” (grey, turbid, not odorous) diarrhea is the classic presentation of?
a) Salmonella
b) Shigella
c) Diphtheria
d) Cholera

A

d) Cholera

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5
Q

Coryza (inflammation of nasal mucous membranes) is a part of the catarrhal stage of what condition Morgan’s sister almost died from as an infant?
a) Diphtheria
b) Pertussis
c) Botulism
d) Influenza

A

b) Pertussis

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6
Q

Impaired EOMs, __________ pupils, loss of accommodation, nerve palsies, dry mouth, dysphagia, nausea/vomiting, and potentially respiratory paralysis (death) are all Sxs of botulism
a) constricted
b) dilated

A

b) dilated

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7
Q

Can a pt be cured of pulmonary anthrax if it’s reached the hemorrhagic pneumonia form?
a) Yes, it’s potentially curable
b) No, it’s always fatal

A

b) No, it’s always fatal

(pulmonary form at this stage is always fatal)

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8
Q

Which cause anogenital warts? Select all that apply
a) 6
b) 11
c) 16
d) 18

A

a) 6
b) 11

(11 may also cause laryngeal warts)

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9
Q

_____________ is transmitted via saliva, 85% of US affected
a) HSV-1
b) HSV-2
c) Both of the above

A

a) HSV-1

(HSV-2: transmits via sexual contact, 25% of US affected)

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10
Q

Oseltamivir or zanamivir can be considered in low-risk patients with __________ 12 years or older
a) Human Papillomavirus
b) Herpes Simplex Virus
c) Influenza
d) Varicella-Zoster Virus

A

c) Influenza

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11
Q

What should you NOT give to chickenpox pts due to Reye’s syndrome risk?
a) Tylenol
b) ASA
c) Antivirals
d) Analgesia

A

b) ASA

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12
Q

Which can give you rabies? Select all that apply
a) Bats
b) Skunks
c) Raccoons
d) Foxes
e) Mice
f) Rats
g) Rabbits

A

a) Bats
b) Skunks
c) Raccoons
d) Foxes

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13
Q

Intracytoplasmic inclusions (“owl’s eyes”) and hilar/mediastinal lymphadenopathy are indicative of?
a) Rhabdovirus
b) CMV
c) HIV
d) Candidiasis

A

B) CMV

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14
Q

Which has a disseminated complication rate higher than 40% in pts who are very sick patients with indwelling catheters? (Hint: Tx = amphotericin B)
a) Rhabdovirus
b) CMV
c) HIV
d) Candidiasis

A

d) Candidiasis

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15
Q

A pt who used to cave in structures with bird droppings presents w hilar/mediastinal lymphadenopathy, and GI ulcers. What is the Tx for less severe disease?
a) Oral itraconazole
b) Amphotericin B
c) Lifelong itraconazole after recovery for all pts

A

a) Oral itraconazole

(Histoplasmosis)

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16
Q

A pt who keeps pigeons has had mental status change, visual abnormalities, and headache. CSF findings indicate lymphocytosis, low glucose, and increased protein. What is the best next step in Tx?
a) Oral itraconazole
b) Amphotericin B + suppressive therapy with fluconazole
c) Lifelong itraconazole after recovery for all pts

A

b) Amphotericin B + suppressive therapy with fluconazole

(pt has Cryptococcus)

17
Q

The most common opportunistic infection in AIDS patients presents with respiratory findings out of proportion to imaging findings and bilateral diffuse infiltrates. This is describing what?
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Candidal fungemia
c) Histoplasma capsulatum
d) Entamoeba histolytica
e) Pneumocystis Jiroveci

A

e) Pneumocystis Jiroveci

18
Q

What is the first line Tx for Pneumoscystis Jiroveci pts?
a) Steroids only
b) Vancomycin + steroids
c) Amoxicillin-clavinate + steroids
d) TMP-SMX + steroids

A

d) TMP-SMX + steroids

19
Q

A pt has anchovy paste purulence, fever, painful hepatomegaly, and sweating. Stool specimen shows cysts and trophozoites. Liver enzymes and eosinophils are normal. Antibodies for Amebiasis are positive. The pt is given Metronidazole and iodoquinol, along with fluids, electrolytes, & opioids, but their hepatic symptoms are still the same 4 days later. What is the next step?
a) Try Paromycin along with Metronidazole
b) Add chloroquine
c) Add permethrin
d) Drain hepatic abscesses

A

d) Drain hepatic abscesses

(pt has hepatic amebiasis)
Then, confirm treatment success with colonoscopy or 3 stool examinations

20
Q

A pt who just visited Brazil presents with coughing, wheezing, and blood-tinged sputum. You note a site of erythematous dermatitis with maculopapular and vesicular eruption. Stool test notes eggs and occult blood. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate Tx?
a) Mebendazole
b) Albendazole
c) Pyrantel
d) Permethrin

A

d) Permethrin

(Pt has hookworms)

21
Q

Pinworms can be treated with all of the same things as hookworm, and presents with what primary symptom?
a) Perianal pruritus
b) Painless perianal ulcers
c) Gummatous lesions
d) Chills, then fever, then diaphoresis

A

a) Perianal pruritus

22
Q

Another pt who just visited Brazil says they just had chills, then fever, and now they have diaphoresis and hepatosplenomegaly with fatigue. Which is an appropriate Tx?
a) Try Paromycin along with Metronidazole
b) Chloroquine
c) Permethrin
d) Drain hepatic abscesses

A

b) Chloroquine

23
Q

Which are an appropriate combination of tests for syphilis? Select all that apply
a) VDRL + RPR
b) VDRL + FTA-ABS
c) RPR + FTA-ABS

A

b) VDRL + FTA-ABS
c) RPR + FTA-ABS

24
Q

Ceftriaxone treats which?
a) Gonorrhea
b) Chlamydia

25
_____________ is caused by gram-negative intracellular diplococci, and _________ is caused by intracellular parasites a) Gonorrhea; chlamydia b) Chlamydia; gonorrhea
a) Gonorrhea; chlamydia
26
What should you give for a pregnant chlamydia pt? a) Doxycycline b) Azithromycin c) Erythromycin d) Amoxicillin e) Any of the above
c) Erythromycin
27
What should you give a pregnant lyme disease pt? a) Doxycycline b) Azithromycin c) Erythromycin d) Amoxicillin e) Any of the above
d) Amoxicillin (Doxy if not pregnant)
28
A pt who went hiking about 10 days ago has a rash that started at the wrists and ankles, but has now spread centrally. IgGs are elevated. What is the best Tx? a) Doxycycline b) Azithromycin c) Erythromycin d) Amoxicillin e) Any of the above
a) Doxycycline (pt has Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever)
29
How do you confirm an HIV Dx? a) Rapid HIV antibody b) CD4 count and viral load c) ELISA
c) ELISA
30
A very sick patient with an indwelling catheter is now experiencing retinal lesions, dermatitis, and meningitis. What is the Tx? a) IV amphotericin B b) IV itraconazole c) PO Fluconazole d) Topical itraconazole
a) IV amphotericin B (pt has candidal fungemia)
31
Which is an example of a third stage (late persistent infection) symptom of Lyme disease? a) Aseptic meningitis b) Bell palsy c) Encephalitis d) Headache e) Polyneuropathy f) Pericarditis
e) Polyneuropathy (other stage 3 Sxs = chronic memory/ mood issues, bladder dysfunction)