IFR Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

Speed restrictions (CAR 91.237)

A

When operating IFR in class D or G airspace, must not exceed 250kt IAS when 10,000ft AMSL or below.

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2
Q

**IFR cruising altitudes (CAR 91.425 & ENR 1.7-7)

A

IFR aircraft cruising NOSE.
North = 270° to 089°
South = 090° to 269°

STARTS AT 3000FT AMSL

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3
Q

**When is an IFR alternate required? (CAR 91.405)

A

Must nominate an alternate when +/- 1hr of the estimated time of landing:
- Cloud ceiling is at least 1000ft above DH/MDH of approach to be flown.
- Visibility is 5km or 2km above that required for the approach to be flown (whichever is higher).

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4
Q

**IFR alternate aerodrome met
requirement (CAR 91.405 & ENR 1.5-44)

A

Conditions must be at or above the below met minima:
Precision approach:
- Ceiling 600ft, or 200ft about DA/DH (whichever is higher)
- Vis 3000m or 1000m above prescribed for the approach (whichever is higher)

Non-precision approach:- Ceiling 800ft, or 200ft about MDA/MDH (whichever is higher)- Vis 4000m or 1500m above prescribed for the approach (whichever is higher)

The aerodrome must have secondary power supply for the ground based navaid of the approach planned to be flown and aerodrome lighting for night operations.

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5
Q

When to advise ATC of change in ETA and speed (CAR 91.411 & ENR 1.1-4)

A

ETA to next reporting point changes greater than 2 minutes.
Variation in TAS +/-5% or mach +/-0.02

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6
Q

**Operation below DA, DH or MDA (CAR 91.413 & ENR 1.5-33)

A

A/C must not be operated below MDA, or an appch be continued below DA unless;
- The aircraft is continuously in a position where a landing can be achieved in the touchdown zone of the intended runway using normal rates of descent and normal manoeuvres.
- On a circling appch the aircraft can be manoeuvred within the appropriate circling area.
- Visibility is not less than that prescribed for the instrument approach being flown.
- At least one of the following is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot; approach lighting system, threshold markings/lights, runway end indicator lights, VASI lights, touchdown zone markings/lights, runway markings/lights.

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7
Q

IFR takeoff minima (CAR 91.413 & ENR 1.5-11)

A

At or above specific IFR takeoff minima for the aerodrome.

If not published ceiling of at least 300ft and more than 1500m vis.

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8
Q

Reduced takeoff met minima (CAR 91.413 & ENR 1.5-11)

A

0ft cloud ceiling and at or above 800m vis.

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9
Q

Reduced takeoff met minima requirements (CAR 91.413 & ENR 1.5-11)

A
  • Runway has centre-line markings/lights.
  • Visibility can be confirmed by the pilot by observation of the centre-line markings/lights.
  • Reduced takeoff met minima is allowed in the AIP for the aerodrome.
  • Any obstacles in the takeoff path are taken into account.
  • Twin prop driven aircraft have an serviceable auto-coarse system.

Runway centreline markings are 120ft long and spaced 80ft apart.
Runway centreline lights are 50ft apart.

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10
Q

Minimum altitudes for IFR (CAR 91.423)

A

Aircraft must not operate below:
- Minimum altitudes in applicable AIP.
- Where no altitude is prescribed; a height of less than 2000ft above highest obstacle within a 5nm radius over mountainous terrain or 1000ft above highest obstacle within 5nm radius of aircraft elsewhere.

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11
Q

**PBN - RNAV vs RNP
Maximum PBN cross track error/deviation, RNP vs RNAV (ENR 1.5-3)

A

Both are different types of PBN, both use GPS.

RNP: allows for curved routing. Must remain within 1x limit 95% of the time, and 2x limit 100% of the time.

RNAV: lateral tracking must remain within 1x tracking tolerance 95% of the time (e.g. RNAV 1 = 1nm L/R of track). The other 5% is undefined.

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12
Q

Minimum height of obstacles taken into account for departure gradients IAW PANS-OPS II (ENR 1.5-4)

A

60m (200ft) above the departure end of the runway.

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13
Q

When climbing in an evaluated climb sector and crossing over multiple sectors, which sector applies? (ENR 1.5-6)

A

The highest gradient applies from takeoff.

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14
Q

When climbing in an evaluated climb sector and along a radial that divides two sectors, which sector applies? (ENR 1.5-6)

A

The lower climb gradient applies.

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15
Q

Prior to leaving an evaluated climb sector an aircraft must be established on what? (ENR 1.5-6)

A
  • On an evaluated route.
  • On a climb above VORSEC steps.
  • Under radar control, above minimum radar terrain.
  • At or above area MSA.
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16
Q

Generic SID performance requirements (ENR 1.5-9)

A
  • Minimum climb gradient of 3.3% (200ft/nm)
  • Climb on centreline to 400ft above departure end of the runway before commencing a turn.
  • Maximum 165kt IAS (Cat B) for turns during SID assuming 15° AOB.
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17
Q

Obstacle clearance for hold minimum heights (ENR 1.5-12)

A

1000ft, 2000ft over mountainous zones.

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18
Q

**Cat B holding speeds (ENR 1.5-13)

A

14,000ft and below = 170kt & 170kt turb
14,000ft to 20,000ft = 240kt & 280kt/M0.8 turb
20,000ft to 34,000ft = 265kt & 280kt/M0.8 turb
Above 34,000ft = M0.83 & M0.83 turb

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19
Q

**Hold outbound timing and when does it start (ENR 1.5-14)

A

Timing starts at the end of the turn or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later.

At or below 14,000ft = 1 minute
Above 14,000ft = 1.5 minutes

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20
Q

**Hold turns (ENR 1.5-14)
(Same turns ATC expects of us under radar vectors)

A

25° or rate one turn (3°/second), whichever requires lesser bank.

Rate one turn = TAS/10 + 7

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21
Q

**Tolerance between hold entry sectors (ENR 1.5-14)

A

-/+5° either side of sector boundary.

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22
Q

**Sector 1 hold entry (ENR 1.5-15)

A

Parallel Entry:
On reaching the fix, turn to the reciprocal of the inbound and fly for the outbound time/limiting distance. Then turned towards the holding side to intercept the inbound track.
Established once overhead the fix for the second time.

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23
Q

**Sector 2 hold entry (ENR 1.5-15)

A

Offset Entry:
On reaching the fix, turn to the 30° off the reciprocal of the inbound (on the holding side), and fly for the outbound time/limiting distance. Then turn (rate one) to intercept the inbound track.
Established once overhead the fix for the second time

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24
Q

**Sector 3 hold entry (ENR 1.5-15)

A

On reaching the fix, turn to follow the hold pattern.
Established over the fix.

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25
When are you established in the hold? (ENR 1.5-17)
For sector 1 & 2 entries, upon crossing the fix the second time (after entry procedure reversal turn). For sector 3 entry, upon initial crossing of the fix.
26
**Cat B VaT
Vat = 91kt-120kt
27
**Cat B Initial appch speed
Initial approach = 120kt-180kt
28
**Cat B Final appch speed
Final approach = 85kt-130kt
29
**Cat B Speeds: Circling Reversal Mapp
Circling (visual man'vring) = 135kt Reversal procedure = 140kt Missed approach = 150kt
30
When cleared for an instrument approach, you are authorised to descend (unless given a restriction) to the minimum initial approach altitude IAW what? (ENR 1.5-21)
- STAR - 25nm sector MSA - RNAV/RNP arrival - Route MSA/distance steps - VORSEC chart - TAA
31
Tolerance allowing an aircraft to track direct outbound from the overhead for a base turn instrument approach (ENR 1.5-22)
-/+30° of the outbound course.
32
Minimum obstacle clearance on DME arc (ENR 1.5-32)
1000ft (2000ft for mountainous areas) out to 2.5nm either side of arc, then clearance reduces linearly to 0ft another 2.5nm out.
33
When must you execute a missed approach (ENR 1.5-34)
- If at MAP, the pilot has not established visual reference with runway/landing aids. - During a circling approach the aerodrome is not distinctly visible at or above MDA. - Any time on final approach as directed by ATC.
34
Minimum AOB for MAP (ENR 1.5-35)
15°
35
Minimum climb gradient and obstacle clearance for missed approach (ENR 1.5-35)
98ft of obstacle clearance assuming a minimum of 2.5% climb gradient from MAP.
36
**Cat B, C & D circling areas (ENR 1.5-39)
- Cat B = 2.66 NM - Cat C = 4.2 NM - Cat D = 5.28 NM Arcs centred on the threshold of each usable runway, joined with tangents.
37
**Requesting vsual approach requirements (ENR 1.5-40)
- Specifically states "Request visual approach". - Can maintain visual reference to terrain. - The reported ceiling is not below the approved initial approach level, or; - The pilot reports at the initial appch level or instrument procedure that wx conditions will permit a visual approach and has reasonable assurance that a landing can be accomplished.
38
**Remote QNH calculation (ENR 1.5-43)
Add 5ft to the MDA for every 1 NM in excess of 5 NM. Must not state "Use local QNH only".
39
Descent restriction during IFR approach to uncontrolled aerodrome with circuit traffic (ENR 1.5-46)
Do not descend below 1200ft AGL if integration with circuit traffic cannot be guaranteed.
40
MEA (GEN 2.2-36)
Minimum Enroute Altitude: Lowest altitude at which adequate NDB signal can be received on an NBD route.
41
MRA (GEN 2.2-37)
Minimum Reception Altitude: Lowest altitude at which adequate VOR signal can be received on a VOR route.
42
**MFA (GEN 2.2-37)
Minimum Flight Altitude: The lowest level at above the route MSA, MRA/MEA and upper limit of VHZ/Danger/Restricted areas.
43
**RAIM FD (ENR 4.3-1)
Fault detection compares PNT data derived from atleast 5 satellites. Provides warning of faulty satellite and that the system should not be used as a navigation solution.
44
**RAIM FDE (ENR 4.3-1) 5 & 4 satellites?
Fault detection and exclusion needs a minimum of 6 satellite inputs to identify and remove a faulty satellite to continue providing a viable navigation solution. 5 sats: fault detect but nil exclusion 4 sats: fix only
45
List of procedural aerodromes NZ (ENR 1.1-6)
Gisborne, New Plymouth, Napier, Nelson, Dunedin & Invercargill.
46
When are position reports required enroute IFR (ENR 1.1-7)
Except when under radar control/identified: - Over each compulsory reporting point and navaid, or at intervals not exceeding 30 minutes. - Prior to entry into controlled airspace. - On initial contact with each ATC unit/sector. - As requested by ATC. In addition, must report reaching or leaving assigned levels.
47
When are position reports required during STAR and instrument approaches at controlled aerodromes? (ENR 1.1-8)
- At point associated with commencement of the STAR. - Overhead the navaid prior to reversal turn. - Overhead navaid outbound for base turn. - Established on the DME arc. - Crossing IAF on GNSS approach. - Commencing base/procedure turn leading to final approach. - Established inbound from a DME arc/base turn. - Established inbound following radar vectors. - When crossing IF on GNSS approach. - When crossing final approach fix unless reported visual and been acknowledged. - When terrain becomes continually visible and instruments no longer required. - When commencing missed approach.
48
Position reporting at unattended aerodrome IFR (ENR 1.1-11)
- Overhead the navaid, commencing instrument approach or established in a DME arc. - When established on final approach. - Termination of instrument approach/proceeding VFR. - Breaking off to join circuit.
49
Position reporting on departure into approach controlled airspace (ENR 1.1-6)
- Callsign - Altitude (passing/climbing)
50
Position report on departure procedural aerodromes (ENR 1.1-6)
- Callsign. - Estimated set heading time. - Altitude (passing/climbing). - ETA to route starting waypoint.
51
**Vertical separation and RVSM (ENR 1.1-23)
Reduced Vertical separation minima. Applies >FL290 in CTA. Stdd sep is 1000ft below FL290, and 2000ft above FL290. This can be reduced to 1000ft if both aircraft are RVSM approved below FL290 The 1000ft may be reduced to 500ft in controlled airspace, if both aircraft are light-medium weight and the lower aircraft is VFR/SVFR at or below 4500ft.
52
Speed requirement/tolerance under radar control (ENR 1.6-16)
+/- 10kt of speed required by ATC.
53
Containment within controlled airspace is base on what climb/descent gradient on approaches, departures and missed approaches? (ENR 1.5-2)
5%
54
Where does a SID originate from? (ENR 1.5-9)
16ft above the departure end of the runway.
55
At what point does a SID terminate? (ENR 1.5-10)
When the aircraft is established on the cleared route.
56
Obstacle clearance heights on circling approach (PANS OPS II)
A/B = 295ft C/D = 394ft
57
Visual approach by night requires? (ENR1.5-41)
Requires the pilot to sight the runways lights. The aerodrome beacon, REIL and approach lights are insufficient.
58
Within what distance from touchdown will an approach controller not apply speed control (ENR 1.6-17)
Once past 5nm on an instrument approach or 4nm on a visual approach, a radar controller will not apply a speed restriction. A clearance for a visual approach will terminate any ATC speed restriction unless specified in the clearance.
59
Airway designators
H = V = Q = Y = W = Uncharted conventional
60
**Destination Met mins? When else must you hold an alt?
Forecast ETA +/-1h; bases BKN <1000ft abve MDH/DH. Vis <5km or <2km above mins - If there is nil backup power to the NAVAID/lights (night only) - If there is nil published instrument appch
61
Min Obs clearance: departure
If >15deg turn required, min sep is 90m (295ft)
62
Min Obs clearance: racetrack/reversal
300m (984ft)
63
Min Obs clearance: intermediate appch
min 150m rounded up to the nearest 50m (492ft)
64
Min Obs clearance: FNA
75m (246ft) with FAF, or 90m (295ft) without/
65
**How to work out circling area of an A/D?
An arc is drawn centered on the threshold of each usable runway, connected using tangent lines. Is the area that is safe for circling alt.
66
**Frequency change, comms required when radar ID'd? On departure
Nil pstn report rqd; pilots must advise callsign & cruise level level climbing or descending to. "TexXX, maintaining FLXXX" Departure when appch ctrl is provided; altitude passing in nearest 100ft & level climbing to.
67
**What does a provisional rating allow us to do? Wx mins?
No instrument appchs, allows for radar vectoring through cloud layer to gain VMC. You can climb & descend through cloud. Min cloud base 2500ft, 5km vis.
68
**What alt to descend to if IMC & there is CCT TFC?
1200 AGL
69
What does RNP2 mean?
Must remain within 2nm 95% of the time, and 4nm 100% of the time.
70
Can we cruise at FL140 QNH or QNE?
Yes, on request - non standard (permission granted by ATC) If uncontrolled, with prior notice to ATS Baro as directed by ATC
71
**On vectors - what turns do we do Through 180deg?
Rate one (3deg per sec), or to 25deg AOB, the lesser ATC will repeat direction of turn twice if turing through 180deg
72
Can we descend below MDA/DA?
- Minimum descent alt: no, which is why we have DDA, prevents descent below MDA when conducting the MAPP. Cannot go below unless you meet the requirements for the non precision appch. DA: Is the alt at which you make the decision to continue or go MAPP. Descent below when not visual is permissable when conducting the missed app.
73
**Height constraints; at or above, at or below, at
At or above: line under alt At or below: line above alt At: alt with lines above & below
74
**IFR departure, if not designated, what alt to make a turn at?
400AGL
75
**Where does a SID begin?
16ft above departure end of the RWY (THRS)
76
**Define IMC
Met conditions that are less than VFR met mins (& require us to fly using instruments)
77
**T6 Unusable fuel
0lbs
78
**T6 ground handling fuel
50lbs (35lbs = approx 12mins at 180lbs/hr, plus 15lbs for 5mins flex at 180lbs/hr)
79
**T6 minimum fuel
100lbs
80
**T6 SUTTO fuel
50lbs
81
**T6 enroute fuel
as calced using FM (3lbs/nm)
82
**T6 Divert fuel
to inclue; MAPP at dest + transit to alt + appch at alt + holding fuel of 100lbs - this is included in the min 200lbs (15mins at 400lbs/hr).
83
**T6 Contingency fuel
5% of enroute and 5% of divert fuel.
84
**T6 Appch & landing fuel
70lbs for full instrument appch (10mins at 420lbs/hr)
85
**T6 min landing fuel
Plan to land with no less than 200lbs fuel remaining. (consisting of 100lbs hold for 15mins at 400lbs/hr, and 100lbs min fuel). absolute min is 100lbs
86
Circling area radius assumes?
max speed 135kias, +/-25kts wind, 20deg AoB or rate 1 turn (the lesser), ISA +15.
87
Comms on 1st contact with ATC; - Identified - Unident (radar) - Unident
- Identified: Them, us, maintaining FLXXX (or passing/climbing) - Unident (radar): Them, us, passing XXX, climbing/descending XXX - Unident: PTA ETA
88
If procedural, when are you required to make radio calls?
Every compulsory reporting point or not exceeding 30mins. On changing ATC unit Entering a CTZ As requested
89
**Visual appch at night?
essential that pilotm ust have runway lights in sight (not just AD beacon, REILs or appch lights)
90
**What does a clearance for a visual appch allow you/require you to do?
- Descent is unrestricted (unless a restriction is applied) - Must travel to finals by the shortest practicable means.
91
When will the visual appch be advertised?
>16km vis, day only, ceiling is >1000ft above min radar vectoring altitude or applicable instrument appch procedure commencement.
92
IFR Sep in class A asx
IFR-IFR (nil VFR)
93
IFR Sep in class C asx
IFR-IFR IFR-VFR IFR-SVFR
94
IFR Sep in class D asx
IFR-IFR IFR-SVFR (vis <5km)
95
**RAIM warning? On appch? Enroute?
On RNP appch: cannot continue. Enroute: must inform ATC if warning occurs for >5mins, or FMS is using DR, must use another nav system
96
**Describe RAIM?
Reciever autonomous integrity monitoring GPS rx on the a/c detects position errors that exceed the GPS integrity requirements for the phase of flight.
97
**What error will we get when we have a system error in terms of RNP/RNAV tracking
CHEK ANP
98
**VMC
visual meteorological conditions. conditions where a pilot has sufficient visibility to fly the aircraft using visual references, such as terrain and other aircraft.
99
**When is separation not provided?
- IFR flights in class G - IFR and VFR in class G &D - IFR flights at the lowest useable cruise level in class G & VFR at the same level in class D - SVFR >5km vis - VFR flight
100
**Transition layer? Can we fly in it? QNH/QNE?
The layer of asx located between 13,000ft & FL150. QNE set above, QNH set below. Ensure vertical sep from terrain in NZ under all deviations in temp & px. Yes but it is non standard - by approval from ATC. As advised by ATC
101
**Can we do an RNAV appch without FD&E
Yes - for exam (but not in the T6)
102
From which hold entries can you fly the arc
sector 1 or 3 only