1
Q
What is the concept that each person reports to only one direct supervisor, each supervisor answers to only one boss, so on….
A
Unity of Command
2
Q
____ of career firefighters work in communities with populations of 25,000 or more?
A
About 71%
3
Q
______ is the rapid evaluation of an incident to determine which resources need to be deployed and which actions can be undertaken safely.
A
Incident Size-up
4
Q
_____ administers the national Incident Management System.
A
FEMA
5
Q
The _____ fire resulted in mandatory upgrades in exit lighting; automatic sprinklers; standpipes; fire alarms; and flame resistant scenery, props, and curtains.
A
Iroquois Theater
6
Q
Some volunteer departments allow members younger than 18 to join as a _____ but restrict their activities until they reach age 18.
A
Junior member
7
Q
A ______ is two or more different types of single resources who work together to accomplish a specific task.
A
Task Force
8
Q
The _____ fire was started by pyrotechnics that ignited unapproved and highly flammable foam-lined walls.
A
Station nightclub
9
Q
The IAP is typically developed based on ______, predicting where the fire is likely to spread and anticipating potential problems.
A
Probabilities
10
Q
The liaison officer should set up their point of operations_____.
A
Adjacent to, but not inside the incident command post
11
Q
The IC activates the _______ section and appoints a section chief when information needs to be obtained, managed, and analyzed
A
Planning
12
Q
______ is a risk-benefit analysis that weighs the viability and survivability of potential victims based on the current conditions in the structure.
A
Survivability profiling
13
Q
The _____ is responsible for ensuring that the requirements of a standard adopted into law by a jurisdiction are upheld.
A
AHJ
(Authority Having Jurisdiction)
14
Q
The ____ delivers, manages, and/or administers fire protection and life safety-related codes and standards, investigations, education, and/or prevention services.
A
Fire Marshal
15
Q
Firefighters candidates have _____ to complete all eight scenarios of the CPAT.
A
10 minutes 20 seconds
16
Q
The first standard incident command system was developed by____.
A
FIRESCOPE
17
Q
The ______ inspects businesses and enforces public safety laws and fire codes.
A
Fire Inspector
18
Q
The component that exists at every incident is _____, which establishes the incident objectives and creates the plan for achieving them.
A
Command
19
Q
. The introduction of _____ has improved response times because the closest available fire units can quickly be sent to the site of the emergency.
A
Computer-aided dispatch facilities
20
Q
During a large incident, the _____ serves as a liaison between the IC and the news media.
A
PIO
(Public Information Officer)
21
Q
The ____ is the part of NIMS that formally defines roles and responsibilities for managing emergency incidents of all sizes.
A
Incident Command System
22
Q
Organizations in the United States begin to move toward a standardized method of managing incidents in the ______.
A
Early 1970’s, after several large-scale wildland fires in California.
23
Q
The “R” in the acronym RECEO stands for _____.
A
Rescue
(Rescue, Exposure, Confine, Extinguish, Overhaul, Ventilation, Salvage)
24
Q
The five components of a quint apparatus are the pump, water tank, fire hose storage area, ground ladders, and _____.
A
Aerial device
25
A ____ is an individual, a company, or a crew with an identified supervisor that can perform specific tasks at an incident or planned event.
Single Resource
26
The U.S. Department of Homeland Security developed the _____ to provide a consistent, nationwide framework for incident management based partly on the previous work done by the fire service in developing the ICS.
National Incident Management System
27
The International Association of Fire Chiefs adapted the _____ concept from the aviation industry.
CRM
28
The deputy chief is also referred to as a _____.
Division chief
29
______ is considered a “section” within the Incident Command System.
Planning
30
The ______ incident occurred at the same time as the Great Chicago Fire.
Peshtigo
31
The first fire department with paid firefighters in the US was established in ______.
1678 in Boston
32
A(n)____ helps with operations and provides personnel or other tactical resources to command.
Assisting agency
33
The ______ section is not staffed at most incidents because cost and accounting issues are typically addressed after the incident.
Administration
34
A(n) _____ is the apparatus that has a pump, carries hose, and maintains a booster tank of water.
Engine
35
A(n) _____ is a fire department member who is not trained to the Firefighter I level, but assists members of a fire department by performing duties in environments that are not hazardous.
Support Person
36
Frederick Graff Sr., a fire fighter in New York City, developed the first modern ____ in 1801.
Fire Hydrant
37
The ______ is a formal system with defined roles and responsibilities for handling unexpected or emergency incidents.
Incident Management System
38
The _____ symbolizes ranks in the fire service.
Chief’s bugle
39
Key components of an effective incident command system include _______.
Planning, delegation, supervision, and communication
40
The ____ section is also responsible for developing, disseminating, and updating the IAP.
Planning
41
A _____ would be considered a specialized response role.
EMT
42
The _____ is responsible for ensuring that the requirements of a standard adopted into law by a jurisdiction are upheld.
AHJ
(Authority Having Jurisdiction)
43
Using technology, such as smoke alarms, sprinkler systems, child-resistant medication caps, and car seats are examples of the _______ strategy of the 5 Es.
Engineering
44
The _____ inspects businesses and enforces public safety laws and fire codes.
fire inspector
45
Safety during an emergency response must begin_____.
Before there is an actual response
46
_____ is the most serious type of heat stress.
Heat Stroke
47
A(n) _____ is an accountability check or roll call taken by a supervisor at an emergency incident that may be conducted as part of the personnel accountability system.
PAR
48
A _____ is a protective suit that fully covers the responder, including the breathing apparatus .
Fully encapsulated suit
49
A ____ provides a forum for firefighting and EMS personnel to discuss the anxieties, stress, and emotions triggered by a difficult call.
CISD
(Critical Incident Stress Debriefing)
50
After ______ of intense work without SCBA, a fire or emergency crew should perform self-rehabilitation for a minimum of 20 minutes.
40 minutes
51
____ is brief and consists of taking a few minutes to rest, hydrate, and change SCBA bottle before getting back to work.
Recycling
52
States that have not adopted the OSHA regulations are called _____ states.
Non-plan
53
An indoor rehabilitation area may not be needed if the temperature is _____, the humidity is low, and plenty of shade is available.
between 68°F and 72°F
54
The laws of physics tell us that when the speed of a vehicle doubles, the force exerted by that vehicle increases by a factor of____.
4
55
The leading cause of death among firefighters is (are)_____.
Cardiac events
56
The symptoms of dehydration once _____ of body weight has been lost include increased respiration, nausea, decreased sweating, muscle cramps, and headache.
5%
57
Estimates reveal that a fire department is _____ likely to experience a suicide than a line-of-duty death in any given year.
Three times more
58
At the 2004 Firefighter Life Safety Summit, the ______ program was created.
Everyone Goes Home
59
The importance of _______ for fire department vehicles should not be underestimated .
Proper maintenance
60
_______ is performed by removing PPE and other clothing and moving to a cooler environment .
Passive cooling
61
_____ is the standard on fire department occupational safety, health, and wellness program.
NFPA 1500
62
_____ are responsible for evaluating the hazards of various situations and recommending appropriate safety measures to the incident commander.
Safety Officers
63
At high-rise fires, the rehabilitation area is often located_____.
2-3 floors below the fire
64
Debriefing sessions are held ______ a major incident.
Within 24 to 72 hours of
65
Rest and recovery, cooling or rewarming, rehydration, calorie and electrolyte replacement, medical monitoring, and possible treatment by EMS are the concepts behind _____.
Emergency incident rehabilitation
66
During firefighting activities, the firefighter’s body loses a substantial amount of water through perspiration, _______.
As much as 1 quart of fluid in less than 1 hour.
67
NFPA ________ is the standard on selection, care, and maintenance of protective ensembles for structural firefighting and proximity fire firefighting.
NFPA 1851
68
A fire or emergency crew should perform self-rehabilitation for ______ following the depletion of one SCBA cylinder.
A minimum of 20 minutes
69
Condition that occurs when the body cannot get rid of excess heat is called_____.
Heat stress
70
During any major fire, the electrical power supply to the building should be turned off as part of the foreground task called ______.
Controlling the utilities
71
______ is the most predominant substance found in a typical bed mattress.
Polyurethane foam
72
The most commonly used bands for public safety communication are ______.
VHF and UHF
73
A(n) _____ system allows all types of digital information, including voice, text messages, photos, and video, to be transmitted to a PSAP or stand-alone communications center.
NG911
74
Protective clothing designed specifically for fighting wildland or brush fires must meet the requirements outlined in _____.
NFPA 1977
75
A _____ is a combination of a radio receiver and a transmitter that receives a signal and retransmits it to a wider geographical area.
Repeater
76
The ______ is the federal agency that specifies the design, testing, and certification requirements for respiratory protection.
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health
77
______ and state agencies are responsible for establishing and enforcing regulations for respiratory protection programs.
OSHA
78
The EOSTI or low-air warning alarm is constructed to sound when the pressure in the air cylinder is down to _____ of its capacity.
35%
79
The Americans with Disabilities Act requires every call-taking position within a PSAP must have its own ______ and be able receive call via the system .
TTY - compatible equipment
80
The communications center should prompt the IC to report at set intervals, known as _______.
Time marks
81
In disaster situations, the larger cellular network providers can deploy 5G-capable, portable cell signal towers called _____.
COWS
82
_____ is the process of finding, exposing, and suppressing any smoldering or hidden pockets of fire in an area that has been burned.
Overhaul
83
The first arriving unit at an incident needs to give a brief initial ______ report and establish command.
Size-up
84
People with a speech or hearing impairment can communicate by phone using a(n) ______.
TTY/TDD
85
A direct line phone may also be referred to as a _______.
Ring-down phone
86
Many fire departments use the acronym _______ to report a mayday.
LUNAR
87
A ______ is an application that layers a wide variety of data about a community on top of a map of the community.
GIS
88
According to NFPA 1971, particulate ______ must block a minimum of 90% of particulates ranging in size from 0.1 to 1.0 microns.
Hoods
89
A supplied air respirator may also be referred to as a(n)_____.
Air-line respirator
90
There are 2 basic categories of breathing apparatus: atmosphere-supplying respirators and _______.
Air purifying respirators
91
______ is caused by inadequate oxygenation of the blood and tissue sufficient to cause impairment of function.
Hypoxia
92
A(n) _____ includes a small fan to help circulate air into the mask.
Powered air-purifying respirator
93
Firefighters should note the volume, color, and _____ of smoke as it exits a fire building and use that information to implement appropriate foreground tactics.
Force
94
According to NFPA 1851, advanced cleaning of PPE should be performed _______.
Every 6 months
95
CAD systems can provide information such as pre incident plans, lockbox locations, and hazardous materials lists directly to ______ on an apparatus.
MDTs
(Mobile Data Terminal)
96
Yonkers Fire Department Chief Chris Kiernan used to say that a good command structure created an environment of ______.
Controlled chaos
97
The acronym “ANSI” stands for ______.
American National Standards Institute
98
Firefighters should be able to don SCBA in _________.
60 seconds
99
Normal outside or room air contains _______ oxygen.
Approximately 21%
100
A(n) ______ has a cartridge or canister that removes specific air contaminants by passing ambient air through the air-purifying element.
Air-purifying respirator
101
A(n) ______ is a computer system that keeps a detailed record of every incident and activity that occurs.
Activity logging system
102
A closed-circuit self-contained breathing apparatus is commonly called a _______.
Rebreather
103
A _____ has several large storage cylinders of compressed breathing air with pressure ranging from lower pressure to higher pressure connected by a high-pressure manifold system.
Cascade system
104
A(n) ______ radio system is a repeater system that operates on the same principles as a conventional radio repeater system, except that a computer connected to a control channel sets the operating frequencies.
Trunked
105
As stated in NFPA 1225, the generally accepted performance objective is to dispatch units to the highest priority of calls within _______.
60 seconds
106
The performance requirements in NFPA ________ govern the design and construction of public safety communication centers.
1225
107
The “U” in LUNAR stands for ______.
Unit
108
An SCBA is required to have a _______, which must be visible to the user while wearing the face piece, enabling the user to constantly monitor the amount of air in the air cylinder.
Heads-up display
109
The four main parts of an SCBA are________.
Harness, air cylinder, regulator assembly, and face piece assembly
110
The “A” in LUNAR stands for ______.
Air
111
An SCBA air cylinder rated for 30 minutes can be expected to last for a maximum of ________ during strenuous firefighting
15 minutes
112
The PASS device combines an electronic motion sensor with an alarm system so that if the user remains motionless for _____, it produces a low warning tone before sounding a full alarm.
More than 30 seconds
113
Thermal layering is also known as _______.
Heat stratification
114
A ________ is caused by rapid molecular expansion of the gases within the smoke and restrictions created by the building.
Turbulent smoke flow
115
A ventilated, fuel-limited, solid-fuel fire progresses through_____ classic stages of growth.
Four
116
A ________ fire involves combustible metals such as sodium, magnesium , zirconium, lithium, potassium , and titanium.
Class D
117
_______is the minimum temperature at which a material ignites in the prescience of oxygen.
Ignition temperature
118
Propane gas settle close to the ground indicating that its vapor density is _______.
More than 1.0
119
UFL is also referred to as the ________.
Upper flammable limit
120
A ________ fire involves energized electrical equipment.
Class C
121
The acronym “UEL” stands for ______.
Upper explosive limit
122
______ is a high-volume, high-velocity, turbulent, ultra-dense, black smoke.
Black fire
123
The first step in reading smoke is to consider the four key attributes of the smoke: volume, velocity, density, and _______.
Color
124
A______ fire involves combustible cooking oils and fats and often occurs in kitchens.
Class K
125
In wildland fires, _______ is a swath where the fuel is removed.
A firebreak
126
________ is the process during which oxygen combines chemically with another substance to create a new compound.
Oxidation
127
A _______ has a specific volume, but does not have a specific size or shape.
Liquid
128
Fires are categorized into one of _____ classes based on the type of fuel.
5
129
A ______ fire involves flammable or combustible liquids such as gasoline, kerosene, diesel fuel, grease, tar, and motor oil.
Class B
130
Air is composed of _______ oxygen.
21%
131
If a fire involves live electrical sources, it should be treated as a _______ fire until the source of electricity has been disconnected.
Class C
132
The _______ stage of fire development occurs when there is an adequate supply of fuel, oxygen, and heat or ignition.
Incipient
133
Apply water to ______ fires will result in violent explosions.
Class D
134
The critical temperature for a flashover to occur is _____.
Approx. 1000 degrees
135
____ is a rapid chemical chain reaction between a material or a substance and oxygen that produces heat and usually light.
Combustion
136
When wood is heated to about 425 degrees, ______ begins.
Pyrolysis
137
A ______ fire involves ordinary solid combustibles such as wood, paper, plastics, and cloth.
Class A
138
_____ energy is the stored potential energy in molecular bonds and the kinetic energy created by a chemical reaction.
Chemical
139
Synthetic materials such as polyester emit _____ smoke.
White
140
_____ is the energy possessed by an object because of its motion.
Kinetic energy
141
A combustion process during which the fuel is not completely consumed is called _________.
Incomplete combustion
142
______ is the rapid transition from a fire that is growing by igniting one type of fuel, to a fire when all the exposed surfaces have ignited.
Flashover
143
The exchange of heat energy between materials is known as _______.
Heat transfer
144
______ is the weight of a gas compared to an equal volume of dry air.
Vapor density
145
_____ is the potential energy of a combustible material and the kinetic energy released when heat is applied to the material.
Heat energy
146
_______ point is the temperature at which a liquid continually vaporizes in sustained amounts and, if held at the temperature long enough, turns completely into a gas.
Boiling point
147
The _______ is the range between the lower and upper flammable limits.
Explosive limit
148
The process of liberating gaseous fuel vapors due to the heating of a solid fuel is called _______.
Pyrolysis
149
______ is composed of 3 main components: solids in the form of smoke particles, liquids in the form of an aerosol, and gases.
Smoke
150
Low-level exposure to ______ can cause cyanosis, headache, dizziness, unsteady gait, and nausea.
Hydrogen cyanide
151
NIST research has shown that wind speeds _______ create wind-driven fire conditions inside the structure .
As low as 10 mph
152
_______ chemical reactions absorb heat.
Endothermic
153
______ is the spontaneous ignition of hot gases in the upper levels of a room or compartment .
Rollover
154
The UEL (upper explosive limit) of carbon monoxide is _______ percent.
74
155
______ are the classic stages of fire growth.
incipient, growth, fully developed, and decay
156
A(n) _______ is a violent and pressurized release of energy.
Explosion
157
A _______ is a nonbearing exterior wall attached to the outside of a building.
Curtain wall
158
_______ refers to older building that were constructed before 1970.
Legacy construction
159
Wood-frame construction is used not only in one- and two-family dwellings, and small commercial buildings, but also in larger structures _____ stories in height.
Up to 4
160
Modern homes are also known as ______homes.
Contemporary
161
A(n) _______ is a partial collapse that results when the middle section of a floor fails and is still attached or leaning against one load-bearing wall.
Lean-to collapse
162
A ______ is a complete collapse that results when the entire floor fails and drops onto the floor below.
Pancake collapse
163
A ______ is an area in a building that is constructed so that if a fire is burning within the compartment, the fire will be confined to that compartment for a specified length of time.
Fire compartment
164
______ is the ability of a material or component to withstand fire.
Fire resistance
165
______ describes whether a material will burn and how quickly it will burn.
Combustibility
166
The term ______ describes how a building is used.
Occupancy
167
Lumber cut to nominal sizes, then dried and cut down to new, smaller standard sizes is referred to as _______.
Dimensional lumber
168
______ is a partial collapse that results when the middle section of a floor fails still attached or leaning against two load-bearing walls.
V-shaped collapse
169
The typical ranch house, also known as a _______, is a single-story house that features an open layout for the living, dining, and kitchen areas.
Rambler
170
A _____ house dates back to the colonial era and presents a key tactical challenge because it includes knee walls in the half story.
Cape cod
171
The roof a building with bowstring trusses has a distinctive _____ shape.
Curved
172
______ is the glass most often used for windows; when broken, it will break into large shards that usually have sharp edges.
Annealed
173
_______ are fundamental physical, presences, for example, gravity and wind.
Forces
174
Lumber that is true to its stated dimensions is referred to as _______.
Nominal lumber
175
Type II construction is also referred to as _______.
Non combustible
176
_______ are forces to which a structure is subjected due to superimposed weight or pressures.
Loads
177
Concrete may be reinforced with steel cables under tension, commonly called _______.
Tendons
178
_______ is/are often used to construct fire walls to protect vulnerable materials .
Masonry
179
______ describes how quickly a material will conduct heat.
Thermal conductivity
180
______ construction became the method of choice for single dwelling construction starting the 1950s and is used for almost all modern wood-frame construction.
Platform-frame
181
_______ is treated so that it is much stronger than ordinary glass and when broken, shatters into small pieces that do not have sharp edges.
Tempered glass
182
A ______ is one that does not fit entirely into any of the five construction types because it incorporates building materials of more than one type, such wooden beams and steel columns.
Hybrid building
183
The quantity and combustibility of the contents and structural components in a space, compartment, or structure are known as the _____.
Fire load
184
Wood products are broadly grouped into three categories: solid lumber, engineered wood, and _____.
Mass lumber
185
A _____ roof is often used in buildings that require large, open interiors, such as warehouses and auditoriums.
Curved
186
_______ is a paint-like coating of mineral materials or cement-like materials to insulate steel from heat in case of fire.
Intumescent coating
187
Making a connection using bolts or rivets is known as ______.
Pinning
188
Dimensional lumber is often referred to as _______.
Solid lumber
189
A(n) _____ is a partial collapse that results when the sections of floor attached to the load-bearing wall fail and the middle remains intact.
A-frame collapse
190
Heavy timber construction uses posts and beams that are _____ on the smallest side.
At least 8 inches
191
_____ force occurs when materials slide past each other, such as when an earthquake causes a multi-story structure to shift and move floors in opposite directions.
Shear
192
Roof assemblies consists of 3 major components: the supporting structure, the roof, the decking, and the roof.
Covering
193
A(n) ________ is a load in one specific area of a building.
Concentrated load
194
________ is a rapid chemical chain reaction between a material or a substance and oxygen that produces heat and usually light.
Combustion
195
Thy typical ranch house, also known as a ______, is a single-story house that features an open layout for the living, dining, and kitchen areas.
Rambler
196
The process of liberating gaseous fuel vapors due to the heating of a solid fuel is called ________.
Pyrolysis
197
A _____ is a nonbearing exterior wall attached to the outside of a building.
Curtain wall
198
______ is energy stored by an object as a result of its position or condition.
Potential energy
199
The term ______ is typically used to refer to the exposed interior surfaces of a building.
Interior finish
200
The ______ point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid produces enough vapor to sustain a continuous fire
Fire point
201
Glass ______ are thick pieces of glass similar to bricks or tiles.
Blocks
202
Fluid retention in the lungs is called _____.
Pulmonary edema
203
Thermal layering is also known as _______.
Heat stratification
204
______ is the spontaneous ignition of hot gases in the upper levels of a room or compartment.
Rollover
205
_______ is/are often used to construct fire walls to protect vulnerable materials.
Masonry
206
A ______ is an area in a building that is constructed so that if a fire is burning within the compartment, the fire will be confined to that compartment for a specified length of time.
Fire compartment
207
_____ are the forces to which a structure is subjected due to superimposed weight or pressures.
Loads
208
The critical temperature for a flashover to occur is _______.
Approximately 1000 degrees
209
Roof assemblies consist of three major components: the supporting structure , the roof decking, and the roof _____.
Covering
210
Regarding construction materials, the chief concern for firefighters is the ______ of the building materials under fire conditions.
Behavior
211
There are ______ methods of extinguishing fire.
4
212
______ are fundamental physical presences, for example, gravity and wind.
Forces
213
_____ is a mixture of cement, aggregates such as sand and gravel, and water.
Concrete
214
______ is a naturally occurring mineral composed of calcium sulfate and water molecules .
Gypsum
215
______ refers to the density of a liquid compared to water.
Specific gravity
216
The acronym. “UEL” stands for _____.
Upper Explosive Limit
217
______ is a partial collapse that results when the middle section of a floor fails still attached or leaning against two load-bearing walls.
V-shaped collapse
218
Lumber cut to nominal sizes, then dried and cut down to new, smaller standard sizes is referred to as ______.
Dimensional lumber
219
______ is the weight of a gas compared to an equal volume of dry air.
Vapor density
220
A(n) _______ is a violent and pressurized release of energy.
Explosion
221
The explosive limit is also called the ______.
Flammable range
222
Dimensional lumber is often referred to as ______.
Solid lumber
223
The lower explosive limit is also referred to as the _______.
Lower flammable limit
224
Modern homes are also known as _______ homes.
Contemporary
225
The UEL of carbon monoxide is ______ percent.
74
226
_______ is the glass most often used for windows; when broken, it will break into large shards that usually have sharp edges.
Annealed
227
_____ are the two agencies that create building codes.
OSHA and NFPA
228
The mantle of the rope is often referred to as the _____.
Sheath
229
The “standing point” of the rope is best described as ______.
The part of the rope between the working end and the running end
230
_____ is multiple-function tool with a combination flat-head and pick-head axe.
The PIG
231
The water knot is sometimes referred to as the ______.
Ring bend
232
_____ is the deployment of fire companies to an emergency incident.
Response
233
A static rope has a _______ than dynamic rope.
Lower range of elasticity
234
_____ is the lightest of the synthetic fibers used for ropes.
Polypropylene
235
A ______ is used to form a loop in the end of a rope.
Loop knot
236
According to NFPA 2500, ______ is the minimum required breakage strength for escape webbing.
3034 1bf
237
A specialized prying tool made of flat steel with prying ends suitable for performing forced entry is called a ________.
Flat bar
238
A _______ is usually 2 to 4 ft long and is used in smaller, tight spaces such as closets and crawl spaces.
Closet hook
239
A _______ is a manually powered hydraulic spreading tool used to pry open doors that swing inward by prying the door away from the door jam.
Rabbit tool
240
A(n) _______ is a knot that can be slipped over or tied around an object to secure the rope to the object and is easily untied when the object is removed.
Hithc
241
A _______ is a handsaw with a narrow blade set between the ends of a U-shaped frame.
Coping saw
242
The ______ is the weight limit that a rope can safely support.
Minimum breaking strength
243
A primary difference between dynamic and static rope is _____.
That dynamic rope stretches more when under a sudden load
244
The ______ is the part of the rope that is not used for forming the knot.
Running end
245
A ______ is a lock pulling tool that is used with a Halligan and a mallet to pull out a lock cylinder mounted in a wood or heavy metal door.
K tool
246
The ______ is the part of the rope you hold as you form the knot.
Working end
247
A combination ladder is also known as a(n) ______ ladder.
Multipurpose
248
A(n) ______ is sometimes referred to as an attic ladder.
Folding ladder
249
A _______ converts the fatty acids in cooking oils or fats to a soap or foam.
Wet-chemical extinguishing agent
250
A ______ is constructed in a manner similar to the stored-pressure water-type extinguisher and are typically white in color.
Water mist extinguisher
251
A ______ holds both the extinguishing agent and the expeller gas under pressure in the body of the extinguisher.
Stored-pressure fire extinguisher
252
For a commercial building, the estimated height from ground to the second story windowsill is ______.
14 to 16 feet
253
Two disadvantages of a _______ ladder are heavier weight and higher cost.
Wood
254
A _____ is a water-soluble, flammable liquid such as alcohol, acetone, ester, and ketone.
Polar solvent
255
A ______ is the identifying shape for a class C extinguisher.
Circle
256
A ______ raise is a method of raising a ladder by positioning the ladder on the ground with the butt near the building and then lifting the tip to lean it against the building.
Flat
257
Some extinguishing agents, such as _____, are self-expelling agents.
Carbon dioxide
258
______ extinguishing agents contains potassium bicarbonate, sodium bicarbonate, mica, Fuller’s earth and amorphous silica.
Purple K
259
Firefighters should always maintain ______ of clearance between a ladder and utility lines to prevent electrocution.
At least 10 feet
260
A stored-pressure water-type fire extinguisher expels water in a solid stream with a range of ______.
35 to 40 feet
261
A _____ angle is often called the rescue angle.
60 degree
262
A ______ is an extension ladder with stay poles
Bangor ladder
263
_____ is a chemical compound that is stored in fine granular or powdered form and used to extinguish class D fires.
Dry powder
264
A ______ is a mechanical locking device used in pairs to secure and hold extended fly sections in place.
Pawl
265
The colored background for a ______ extinguisher is a yellow star.
Class D
266
A wet-chemical fire extinguisher uses wet-chemical agents to extinguish _____ fires.
Class K
267
The stored pressure water type fire extinguisher with a 2-A rating carries _____ of water.
2.5 gallons
268
An advantage of water mist fire extinguishers is that they ______.
Are safe to use on class C fires
269
A(n) _______ hazard contains more class A and class B materials than ordinary hazard locations, and the combustibility and heat release rate of the materials is high.
Extra
270
A _____ angle is sometimes referred to as the climbing angle.
75 degree
271
Class A foam concentrate is sometimes referred to as ______.
Wet water
272
The colored background for a ______ extinguisher is a green triangle.
Class A
273
A _______ is used for tying off the halyard.
Clove hitch
274
_______, the original dry-chemical agent, is often used in small household fire extinguishers .
Sodium bicarbonate
275
Straight ladders, roof ladders, extension ladders, and combination ladders are required to support a weight of ______ pounds.
750
276
Ladders must meet the performance requirements described in ______.
NFPA 1960
277
A _____ radio is permanently mounted in the vehicle and powered by the electrical system in the vehicle.
Mobile
278
The performance requirements in NFPA ______ govern the design and construction of public safety communication centers.
1225
279
A _______ladder is a narrow, two-section extension ladder specifically designed to provide attic access and to be used in any tight space.
Fresno
280
A ______ is a nonbearing exterior wall attached to the outside of a building.
Curtain wall
281
The culture of the fire service is known for duty, honor, _____, and excellence.
Safety
282
A _____ uses air that is supplied from a compressed air cylinder located outside the hazardous area.
Supplied-air respirator
283
A widely used model of rehabilitation includes ______ parts that do not need to be completed in a specific order but should all be addressed.
7
284
When quickly selecting a fire extinguisher for use on a sofa fire, the ______ would be the appropriate shape and color combination.
Green triangle
285
The ______ is a nationwide broadband network for communication among first responders and communications centers to provide a national coordinated response to emergencies.
First responder network authority
286
______ chemical reactions absorb heat.
Endothermic
287
The colored background for a _______ extinguisher is a red square.
Class B
288
The acronym “CISM” stands for _______.
Critical incident stress management
289
Thermal layering is also known as ______.
Heat stratification
290
The ______ is a feature on an SCBA that automatically provides a backup method for air to be supplied to the regulator if the primary passage malfunctions.
Dual-path pressure reducer
291
Roles in the fire department can be sorted into 2 categories ______.
General and specialized rsponse
292
_______ construction became the method of choice for single family dwelling construction starting in the 1950’s and is used for almost all modern wood-frame construction.
Platform-frame
293
NFPA _____ outlines the placement of fire extinguishers .
1
294
A________ stream is a hollow cone pattern of water composed of tiny droplets.
Straight
295
A ______ hose is considered a medium-diameter hose.
2.5 inch
296
A 1.5 inch coupling is used for _______ hose.
1.5 or 1.75 inch coupling
297
A _____ is used to prevent chafing or kinking at a sharp edge while hose is being hoisted over the edge of a roof or over a windowsill.
Hose roller
298
The serrations or grooves around a fog-stream nozzle’s office that break up the water stream and create a fog pattern are called _______.
Teeth
299
The best way to prevent leaks at coupling connections is to ensure the _______ are not missing.
Swivel gaskets
300
An appliance used to attach a smaller-diameter hose to a larger-diameter hose is called a ________.
Reducer
301
The ______ hose roll is similar to the twin-doughnut roll, except that it forms its own carry loop.
Self-locking twin doughnut
302
A _____ hose roll is used for general handling and transportation of hose as well as to prepare hose to be stored on a rack.
Straight
303
The straight hose roll is also referred to as a _______ hose roll.
Storage
304
Connecting a 1.75 in hose line to a 2.5in hose line requires a _________.
2.5 in female to a 1.5 in male reducer
305
A _____ is attached to a fire hydrant outlet so that the attack engine can connect to the water supply, and then a second engine can connect to provide additional pressure without first disconnecting the attack engine's supply.
Four-way hydrant valve
306
The most appropriate method for one firefighter to couple fire hose is the _____ method.
One-firefighter foot-tilt
307
Supply hose must be tested annually at a pressure of ______.
At least 200 psi
308
Attack hose must be tested annually at a pressure of ______.
At least 300 psi
309
When using a smooth-bore nozzle for a master stream appliance, the stream size can be quickly changed by _______.
Adding or removing stacked tips
310
In a __________ arrangement, both couplings are on the outside of the roll, and the rolled hose can be connected and extended by one firefighter.
Single-doughnut hose roll
311
The ______ is the inside diameter of a hose when it is filled with water and under pressure.
Hose size
312
NFPA _______ includes procedures for the inspection and testing of fire service hose
1962
313
In water distribution system, the _______ carries large quantities of water to specific parts of a municipality .
Trunk line
314
______ is the pressure created by gravity as the water flows from a hill-top reservoir to the water mains in the valley below.
Head pressure
315
The _____ is used to transport multiple sections of connected hose over a longer distance than is practical to drag the hose.
Shoulder carry
316
A ______ is performed by two engine companies in situations where hose can or must be laid in two different directions to establish water supply.
Split hose lay
317
NFPA 291 recommends that fire hydrants should be flow-tested ________.
Every 5 years
318
The _______ allows a single firefighter to drop one fold or loop of hose at a time from the shoulder as they advance toward the fire.
Minuteman hose load
319
A dead-end water main is a_________.
Water main that is supplied from only one direction
320
The minimum usable residual pressure necessary to reduce the risk of damage to underground water mains or pumps by collapse and prevent damage to the fire engine pump is _______.
20 psi
321
_____ is the amount of pressure that remains in the system when water is flowing out of it.
Residual pressure
322
The first step for advancing a(n) ________ is to grasp the end of the load as well as the number of folds it will take to make an adequate shoulder load.
Accordion load
323
The hydrant cap is also referred to as the ______.
Discharge cap
324
______ is the volume of water moving through a pipe, hose, or nozzle over a period of time.
Water flow
325
The most common preconnected attack line is ______.
200 ft of 1.75 hose
326
Fire hydrants should be inspected ______ to ensure that they are in proper operating condition.
At least once per year
327
One advantage of a _________ is that one compartment can be loaded for both a forward hose lay and reverse hose lay.
Split hose bed
328
The _______ on a mobile water supply apparatus enables the tankers to offload as much as 3000 gallons of water in 1 minute.
Dump valve
329
A(n) _______ depends on the fire department to provide the primary water supply.
Dry standpipe system
330
In the ______, the hose is laid out from the fire to the water source in the direction opposite to the flow of water.
Reverse hose lay
331
One example of a _______ point is a place where a hose line changes direction.
Friction
332
The typical spacing distances for fire hydrants in residential areas is every _______.
500 ft
333
Short preconnected attack lines stored in front bumper compartments on engines and used to attack vehicle or dumpster fires are sometimes referred to as ______.
Trash lines
334
Per NFPA, a hydrant with a red bonnet would flow _______.
Less than 500 gpm
335
______ are conducted when large amounts of water from a static water source are needed at a fire scene.
Water shuttle operations
336
Per NFPA, a __________ hydrant features a green bonnet.
Class A
337
A ________ measures water flow in gallons per minute from an orifice.
Flow meter
338
_____ is the amount of pressure in a system when the water is not moving.
Static pressure
339
On a fire hydrant, a(n) _______ is provided to connect fire department hose to the hydrant.
Outlet
340
When descending a stairway while wearing PPE and SCBA, ______.
Use your feet to check for staircase stability
341
______ are standard methods of working with attack lines to deliver water from an attack engine to a hand line.
Attack line evolutions
342
A ______ provides water flow to a fire hydrant from two or more directions and establishes multiple paths from the water source to each area.
Grid arrangement
343
A fixed piping system with one end in a static water source and the other end accessible to attach a hose is called a ______.
Dry hydrant
344
The NFPA specifies colors to indicate the water flow available from each hydrant at _______ residual pressure.
20 psi
345
In most cases, a short length of _______ is used to transport water from a pressurized source, such as a fire hydrant to the suction side of the fire pump.
Soft sleeve hose
346
The valve that controls the flow of water into the barrel of a dry barrel hydrant is located _______.
At the base of the barrel, just below the frost line
347
The _______ is the only load that should be used with LDH.
Flat hose load
348
Per NFPA, a hydrant with a(n) _______ bonnet would flow between 500 and 999 gpm.
Orange
349
Portable tanks carried on fire apparatus typically hold between ______ of water.
600 and 5000 gallons
350
A ______ is used to deploy hose from a hose bed and advance the line over a relatively short distance to the desired location.
Working hose drag
351
The ______ attack is the safest, most reliable, and most widely accepted method of offensive attack.
Pincer
352
Protecting exposures is part of a(n) ______.
Defensive operation
353
The ______ is the route within a structure along which hot gases and smoke travel from areas of higher pressure within the fire to areas of lower pressure accessible through doorways, window openings, and roof openings.
Flow path
354
A _______ is an interior, indirect attack followed by a direct attack.
Combination
355
The primary objective of a(n) _______ is to get to the seat of the fire for extinguishment.
Offensive operation
356
The transitional attack is sometimes referred to as a_______.
Blitz attack
357
The policy requiring rapid intervention teams is called_____.
The two-in/two-out rule
358
The four types of fire attack used to conduct an offensive operation are direct, indirect, combination, and ______.
Transitional
359
A(n) ________ fire is when an individual tree or group of trees catches fire and then runs all the way up the tree, so the tree or trees look like a giant torch.
Passive crown
360
Fuels that ignite easily, such as pine needles and leaves, are called ________.
Fine fuel
361
A master stream delivers water at a flow rate of ______ gpm.
At least 350
362
A(n) ________ attack is a method of wildland fire attack in which a fire control line is located along natural fuel breaks, at favorable breaks in the topography, or at considerable distance rom the fire.
Indirect
363
A(n) _______ is a master stream appliance that is carried on the apparatus and placed on the ground wherever a master stream is needed.
Portable monitor
364
NFPA ________ describes proper wildland firefighting clothing and equipment.
1977
365
Respiratory protection for wildland firefighting is usually limited to a(n) ______.
Filter mask
366
The traveling edge of the fire is called the _____ of the fire.
Head
367
Solar PV systems consist of individual solar cells mounted together to form thin ______.
Solar panels
368
A ______ is a fire that burns debris on the surface of the ground.
Ground cover fire
369
A ________ attack is similar to a combination attack, except it begins with a brief exterior, indirect attack to start the cooling process in the fire compartment and stop the progress of the fire.
Transitional
370
Gaseous fuel that escapes from a natural gas or propane system is known as _______.
Fugitive gas
371
Firefighters carrying wildland firefighting tools should do so with _______.
Sharp edges facing the ground
372
Many electrical transformers contain a cooling liquid that contains _______, a cancer causing material
PCBs
373
To prevent fire from spreading, firefighters need to look for ______ in concealed spaces and suppress it.
Fire extension
374
_______ are responsible for the largest fatality and structural loss fires in the United States history.
Foehn winds
375
______ is the vertical movement of air into the atmosphere.
Air stability
376
If ______ watch out situations exists, firefighters should reconsider engaging in the assignment.
Five or more
377
_______ dramatically increases both flame length and rate of speed.
Wind
378
The most commonly used master stream appliances deliver flows between _______.
350 and 1500 gpm
379
Electric-drive vehicles should be towed using a(n) _______.
Flat bed truck
380
Search ropes are also referred to as ________.
Search lines
381
A _______ fire that is burning below the surface.
Below grade
382
The NWCG incident pocket response guide was created by _______.
The National Wildfire Coordinating Group
383
The 18 watch out situations are an expansion of the ______.
10 standard firefighting orders
384
The greatest danger with most fires involving electrical equipment is _________.
Electrocution
385
A critical consideration for the FOV of the TIC is that it can be ________ compared to the human eye.
Diminished by as much as 90 percent
386
In their natural state, both natural gas and propane are odorless and colorless, so the chemical _____ is added so that after the gases leave production facilities.
Mercaptan
387
Foam concentrate can be poured directly into an apparatus booster tank to produce a foam solution through a technique called _____.
Batch mixing
388
A concentrate that reduces the surface tension of water is commonly referred to as a _______.
Wetting agent
389
_________ is a description of the amount of energy radiated from a material’s surface.
Emissivity
390
The TIC uses _______ to measure reflections rather than the object itself.
Emissivity
391
A foam ______ adds foam concentrate under pressure to the water stream.
Injector
392
Medium-expansion foam has an expansion ratio between _______.
20:1 and 200:1
393
Initial interior operations may begin with water from the tank on the engine, but that supply is usually limited to _____ gallons depending on the apparatus.
500-1000
394
The term BLEVE stands for ______.
Boiling liquid/expanding vapor explosion
395
The _______ method is used to apply foam to a pool of flammable product on the open ground.
Roll-on method
396
______ is a description of the tactics to use to achieve the broad goals of the incident.
Strategy
397
Low-expansion foam has an expansion ratio of _______.
Less than 20:1
398
The ____ is used at fires where the firefighter can deflect the foam stream off an object and let the foam flow down onto the burning surface.
Bank-down method
399
Because it is lighter than air, ______ rises if it escapes, so it dissipates from the site of a leak rather than collecting in that spot.
Natural gas
400
The ______ is used when there is no object available to deflect the foam onto the burning surface of for apply foam to the edge of a large area of burning liquid fuel form a safe distance.
Rain-down method
401
The two types of foam _____ are educators and injectors.
Proportioners
402
The letter “R” in the acronym RECEO-VS stands for ______.
Rescue
403
The letter “C” in RECEO-VS stands for ______.
Confinement of the fire
404
Exterior operations are most effective when the fire stream is _______.
On the same level as the fire
405
The letter “L” in the acronym S.L.I.C.E -R.S. Stands for ______.
Locate the fire
406
A foam _____ draws foam concentrate from a container or storage tank into a moving stream of water or into a hose line.
Eductor
407
The three incident priorities in order of importance are _______.
Life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation
408
Once the size up process is complete, the crew leader/IC develops the ______ with an initial determination of the strategy and communicates it to the crews on scene and those en route.
Incident action plan
409
A(n) _______ is a fire that is burning only on the top of a spill, pool, or open container of liquid.
Two-dimensional liquid-fuel fire
410
The most common type of gas stored in pressurized containers is ________.
Propane
411
A(n) ______ is a fire in which burning liquid fuel is dripping, spraying, or flowing over the edges of a container.
Three-dimensional liquid-fuel fire
412
Once the IAP has been established, tactical objectives will be translated into _______ by the crews as dictated by operational guidelines and best practices.
Task-level actions
413
_____ is a synthetic-based foam that is particularly suitable for fires involving gasoline and light hydrocarbon fuel spills, and it can also be used on actively burning pools of flammable liquids.
Aqueous film-forming foam
414
A(n)_____ is a water-soluble flammable liquid that readily mixes with water.
Polar solvent
415
______ are specific actions taken to achieve the goals.
Tactics
416
Propane cylinders are equipped with a pressure relief valve within the vapor space that opens automatically when the pressure reaches ______.
375 psi
417
The expansion ratio of propane is ______.
270:1
418
Most class B foam concentrates are designed to be used in either 1 percent, 3 percent, or ______solutions.
6 percent
419
Key-in-knob lock sets and tubular deadbolts are two common types of ______ lock sets.
Bored
420
The hollow space between two studs in walls is called the ______.
Stud space
421
A ______ is a barrel huge with a stud or bolt on each hinge plate that connects the two plates when the door is closed.
Studded hinge
422
Gear, studded, and barrel are examples of _______.
Hinges
423
Strike plates, latches, operating spindles, knobs, levers, and cylinders are all common elements of ______.
Locksets
424
The duckbill lock breaker is best used for ______.
Breaking padlocks
425
When using a _______ battery-operated rotary saw, the cutting depth is 3 inches
9-inch
426
There are two types of modern rotary saws: 14 in. gasoline-powered or battery-powered saw and _____ battery-powered saws
9 inch
427
The primary advantage of the rectangle hinged cut over the triangle cut for an overhead door is that ______.
The opening created is much larger
428
The _____ is a single-use tool used exclusively for opening outward-swinging doors affixed with panic hardware.
J tool
429
A non-load bearing wall, often called a _____, does not bear significant weight of the structure.
Partition wall
430
______ windows have a metal, vinyl, or wood frame and open out from the building on a hinge operated by a crank.
Casement
431
The _____ of a door system includes the hinges that attach the door to the frame or the tracks that a sliding door moves in.
Hardware
432
The structural housing of a padlock that holds the main locking mechanisms and secures the shackle is called the lock________.
Body
433
A mineral-core door is a common type of _______.
Hollow-core door
434
The cutting depth of a 14 in. Gasoline-powered saw is ______.
4 to 5 inches
435
_____ glass is found in an Arcadia door.
Tempered
436
The three most common types of masonry walls are masonry block, brick, and ________.
Poured concrete
437
A rotary saw that is running can be carried _______.
Up to 10 feet
438
A ______ lockset consists of a rectangular assembly that fits into a similarly shaped cavity within the door.
Mortise
439
A foam-core door is a common type of _____.
Hollow-core doors
440
A prying/spreading tool used for forcible entry is a _______.
Kelly tool
441
An air-core door is a common type of ______.
Hollow-core doors
442
A _____ is a short, angled piece of metal that operates on a spring.
Slam latch
443
A primary search should be completed in ______.
15 minutes or less
444
The ______ drag involves tying the victim’s wrists together, placing the Vatican’s hands around the rescuer’s neck, and dragging the victim by crawling on hands and knees.
Firefighter
445
When there is no possibility of saving either lives or property, ______ risk is acceptable.
No
446
An _______ is usually preferred for rescue work if one is available.
Aerial platform
447
The ______ drag provides a secure grip around the upper part of the victim’s body, allowing for a faster removal from the dangerous area.
Webbing sling
448
If it is safe to do so, a search team usually starts a search _____.
Walking
449
When conducting a primary search in a structure fire, ____.
Speed is generally prioritized over crawling
450
The _______ carry requires no equipment and can be performed in tight an narrow spaces, such as the corridors of mobile homes, small hallways, and narrow spaces between buildings.
Two-person extremity
451
The purpose of ________ operations is to physically remove an occupant or victim from a hazardous environment.
Rescue
452
The ______ carry is used with victims who are disabled or paralyzed.
Two-person seat
453
A ladder used to rescue a person from a window should have its tip placed _______ the windowsill.
Just below
454
Firefighters should ________.
Look for clues that indicate whether a building is occupied
455
The _____ is a search method in which all members of the search team cover the same area at the same time.
Standard search method
456
The ______ carry is particularly suitable when a victim must be carried through doorways, along narrow corridors, or up or down stairs.
Two-person chair
457
_____ percent of particulates, suspended particles of toxic fire by-products, are visible to the human eye in a post-fire environment.
Approximately 3
458
The ______ search method of conducting a primary search is performed by multiple members using a rope anchored by another team member.
Team
459
The purpose of _______ operations is to locate victims
Search
460
Dark black and turbulent smoke, blackened windows, and puffing smoke are signs of possible _________.
Flashover or backdraft
461
_____ ventilation pulls or draws smoke, heat, and air out through openings in a structure using a type of fan called a smoke ejector.
Negative-pressure
462
Placing a ventilation opening as high as possible within the building or area can help to eliminate potential _______ conditions.
Backdraft
463
A ______ is a thin strip of wood used to make the supporting structure for roof tiles.
Lathe
464
A(n)______ opening is used to determine how large an area is involved, whether a fire is spreading, and in which direction it’s moving.
Examination
465
The _______ is the rigid portion of the roof between the roof supports and the roof covering
Roof decking
466
_______ construction describes buildings that have many of the same features as Type III buildings, except that the exterior walls are not required to be constructed of masonry or non-combustible materials.
Type V
467
Type IV construction is also known as _____ construction.
Heavy timber
468
_____ construction describes buildings with exterior walls that consist of masonry construction and interior walls, columns, beams, floor assemblies, and a roof structure that are made of wood.
Type IV
469
The trench cut is also known as the _______.
Strip cut
470
The _______ works well on metal roof decking because it prevents the decking from rolling away as it is cut.
Triangular cut
471
NIST stands for ________.
National Institute of Standards and Technology
472
The most common vertical ventilation opening is the ________.
Square cut
473
_______ construction describes buildings in which all of the structural components are made of noncombustible materials.
Type II
474
Ventilation should occur as ______ as possible.
Close to the fire
475
Vertical fire extension is also referred to as _____.
Auto-exposure
476
Type I construction is also known _____ construction.
Fire-resistive
477
A rapid movement of air into the structure can indicate a________.
Ventilation-limited fire
478
A(n) ________ is a fire attack that starts with a quick, indirect, exterior attack into the fire compartment before transitioning to an interior, offensive attack.
Transitional attack
479
Hydraulic ventilation is sometimes referred to as ______ ventilation.
Fog
480
A cooler fire produces a slower, ________ smoke flow.
Laminar
481
A free standing wall that extends above the normal roofline is known as a(n) _________.
Parapet
482
Type II construction is also known as _____ constuction
Noncombustible
483
Vertical ventilation on a Type II construction building should be attempted only with __________.
Aerial devices
484
______ construction describes buildings with exterior walls made of non combustible or limited-combustible materials that support the roof and floor assemblies
Type III
485
When breaking a window from a ladder, the ladder should be positioned to the ________.
Upwind side with the tip of the ladder even with the top of the window
486
The critical temperature for gases to begin to flash is approximately _____ degrees Fahrenheit with the room undergoing total flashover at _____ degrees Fahrenheit.
400; 1000
487
The purpose of EBSS is to _______.
Allow two firefighters to share air if needed in an emergency situation
488
Salvage efforts usually are aimed at preventing or limiting ______ loss that results from smoke and water damage, fire suppression efforts, and other causes.
Secondary
489
________ describes a system of identifying specific hazards in a building or a container by using a combination of colors and numbers
NFPA 704
490
_______ provides a reference guide on developing standard operating procedures for performing a risk-benefit analysis.
NFPA 1550
491
Portable lights usually range from ________ and can use several types of bulbs.
300 to 1500 watts
492
To help define safe practices of structural firefighting, the IAFC and NVFC developed the _____ Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Survival.
11
493
Physical evidence is also called ______evidence .
Real
494
The standard operational team in firefighting is referred to as a _____ and usually consists of two to five firefighters working under the direct supervision of a company officer.
Company
495
_____ _Standard System for the Identification of the Hazards of Materials for Emergency Response_ describes a system for identifying specific hazards in a building or container.
NFPA 704
496
According to the Rules of Engagement for Firefighter Survival, firefighters must evaluate personal risk exposure and determine a safe approach for completing assigned objectives, which falls under _____.
Rule 1: size up tactical area of operation
497
A ________ projects a diffuse light over a wide area.
Floodlight
498
____ of smoke should be noted for reporting later to a fire investigator.
Color, volume, and velocity
499
During overhaul operations, ____________crowbars are used to remove baseboards and window or door casings.
Crowbars
500
As of 2018, all NFPA-certified open-circuit SCBA is required to include a universally compatible _____.
Buddy breather
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