Immunodiagnostic Tests (Satti) Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

Define a qualitative immunodiagnostic test.

A

Indicates yes/no as to presence of pathogen without indicating strength of immune response.

In some cases, just knowing that an immune response was developed to pathogen is all clinical info needed.

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2
Q

Define a quantitative immunodiagnostic test.

A

Measures the level of the causative agent of the disease or the level of antibodies against a certain pathogen.

Important because the level of causative agent correlates with pathogenesis and influences whether no, mild, or severe disease produced.

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3
Q

Describe the basic common methods used for immunodiagnostic testing.

A

Primary antigen/antibody Interaction – non-covalently binding of specific antibody to its matching epitope

  • Radioimmunoassay, ELISA, Immunofluorescence Assay, Flow Cytometry, Immunoelectrophoresis/Western blotting, Immunohistochemistry, Antiglobulin test, and monoclonal antibody testing.

Secondary antigen/antibody interaction - multiple antigen–antibody bindings cross-link many molecules/cells

  • Rocket electrophoresis, Immunodiffusion, Complement fixation test, Agglutination, Immunoelectrophoresis
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4
Q

Define an antibody titer and what it represents.

A

Antibody titer is the highest dilution at which agglutination occurs
Ex: Dilutions tested: 1:2, 1:4, 1:8, 1:16, 1:32; Agglutination seen up to 1:16, but not at 1:32 → Titer = 16
It tells that the patient has been exposed to the antigen at some point.

Interpretation includes:
* ≥4-fold rise over 1–3 weeks → recent/active infection
* Stable/low titer → past exposure or immunity

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5
Q

Interpret single titer results.

A

Low or absent titer → may indicate no prior exposure or infection.
High titer (in isolation) → could indicate past exposure and immunity or recent/current infection.

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6
Q

Paired Samples (taken 1–3 weeks apart)

What does a fourfold rise in titer indicate?

A

Strong evidence of recent or ongoing infection.

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7
Q

Paired Samples (taken 1–3 weeks apart)

What does a stable titer suggest?

A

Past exposure or immunity rather than active disease.

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8
Q

Contextual Interpretation

Does presence of antibody equal a positive infection?

A

No, antibodies may persist long after infection has resolved.

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9
Q

Low specificity → ______________.

A

Low specificity → risk of false positives.

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10
Q

Low sensitivity → risk of ____________.

A

Low sensitivity → risk of false negatives.

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11
Q

What is the relationship between diagnostic sensitivity and specificity?

A

There is an inverse relationship; improving one often reduces the other.

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12
Q

What is diagnostic sensitivity calculated from?

A

Calculated from the number of false negatives given by the test.

  • A 100% sensitive test has zero false negatives.
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13
Q

What is diagnostic specificity calculated from?

A

Calculated from the number of false positives given by the test.

  • A 100% specific test has zero false positives.
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14
Q

Difference between primary and secondary antigen/antibody binding?

A

The primary antibody to antigen interaction is a direct interaction (serology) visualized through conjugate-substrate reaction, fluorescence or radiolabeled antiglobulin.

Primary
* Measures direct Ab–Ag binding with labels (enzyme, fluorescent, radioactive)

Secondary
* Measures effects of binding: precipitation, clumping, lysis

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15
Q

How does the detection of antibodies in serum assist in the diagnosis of
infectious diseases and noninfectious disorder?

A

Infectious disease
* Exposure/active infection (e.g., ELISA; Coggins = immunodiffusion for EIA)

Noninfectious disorders
* Hormones by RIA (prolactin, progesterone, testosterone, LH)
* Autoimmune disease (Coombs for IMHA)

  • In infectious disease, antibody detection shows whether an animal/human has been exposed, is actively infected, or has immunity.
  • In noninfectious disorders, antibody detection identifies abnormal immune responses such as autoimmunity or allergies.

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16
Q

What is Radioimmunoassay?

A

Labeled and unlabeled antigen compete for limited antibody binding sites.

Radioactivity measured reflects how much unlabeled antigen is present.

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17
Q

What is ELISA?

A

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay. Enzyme is chemically linked to antibody or antigen. Detects antibodies or antigens in serum/other fluids.

Direct:
A target protein (or a target antibody) is immobilized on the surface of microplate wells and incubated with an enzyme-labeled antibody to the target protein (or a specific antigen to the target antibody

Indirect:
A target protein is immobilized on the surface of microplate wells and incubated with an antibody to the target protein (the primary antibody), followed by a secondary antibody against the primary antibody. After washing, the activity of the microplate well-bound enzyme is measured. Although indirect ELISA requires more steps than direct ELISA, labeled secondary antibodies are commercially available, eliminating the need to label the primary antibody

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18
Q

What is Immunofluorescence (IFA)?

A

Fluorescent dye is linked to the antigen/antibody.

  • Reagents need to be in pure form
  • Need immunofluorescence microscope to read

Direct: detect antigen. Labeled antibody is incubated with antigen of the micro-organism to be diagnosed, wash, and check for fluoresence
Indirect: detect AB or antigen. Uses antiserum.

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19
Q

What is Immunochromatography?

A

Sample flows along a strip by capillary action, and if the target antigen (or antibody) is present, it binds to labeled antibodies to form a visible line through specific antigen–antibody interactions. Can be read by naked eye.

Example: covid rapid antigen test/pregnancy test

20
Q

What is Flow cytometry (FACS)?

A

Counts, examines, and sorts cells based on fluorescence activation. For example, you want CD4+ cells. You label the machine to find them, and it will fluoresce those cells. This also allows you to detect a fluorescent monoclonal antibody to a specific cell surface antigen.

21
Q

What is Immunoelectrophoresis?

A

Perform gel electrophoresis on a protein mixture (run the mixture on a gel and based on fragment size, the smallest size will travel the furthest).

22
Q

What is Western blotting?

A

Follows immunoelectrophoresis.
You then transfer the bands created from the gel over to nitrocellulose paper (blotting paper on top of the gel with sponges in between in a buffer).

  • Visualize results using an enzyme immunoassay or radioimmunoassay.
  • This is useful to identify antigens in microorganisms or parasites.

23
Q

What is an Antiglobulin Test (Coombs Test)?

A

Lab test that identifies antibodies that can bind to the surface of RBCs or platelets and destroy them. This is used to diagnose blood disorders where they make antibodies that are destroying their own cells.

  • Generally, a supportive diagnostic test for immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)
  • Commonly performed in dogs, cats, and horses

24
Q

What is Monoclonal antibodies testing?

A

Antibodies produced in a lab to recognize one single epitope of an antigen/pathogen. This is useful to find the precise identification of an organism.

  • Monoclonal antibodies can be used in different tests (like every quantitative immunodiagnostic test we discussed)
  • Used against bacterial and fungal infections of livestock

25
What is the primary binding of Antigen-Antibody?
Initial interaction where antibody Fab region binds to specific antigen epitope.
26
What is secondary binding of Antigen-Antibody?
Fc regions now involved, link particles or bind complement. Multiple antibodies bound to multiple epitopes can link together or activate downstream systems. Produces visible effects (x3).
27
Explain precipitation in the context of Ag-Ab reactions.
Ab binds to Ag, forming lattice cross-links that grow until large enough to be insoluble, forming a visible precipitate.
28
Define agglutination.
Clumping of particulate antigens due to bivalent Ab cross-linking multiple particles.
29
What is complement fixation?
Surface-bound Ag with complement-activating Ab triggers the classic pathway, forming MAC complex that lyses cells. Blood test in which a sample of serum is exposed to a particular antigen and complement in order to determine whether or not antibodies to that particular antigen are present.
30
Describe the radial immunodiffusion technique.
Antigen solution diffuses in agar with antiserum, forming a ring proportional to the antigen concentration. ## Footnote *Antiserum is a type of serum that has a high concentration of antibodies against a specific antigen*
31
What is the purpose of hemagglutination?
Measures the ability of antibodies to prevent the agglutination of red blood cells by viruses.
32
What does a positive complement fixation test indicate?
Positive CFT = Complement was fixed. → Means the patient’s serum had antibodies against the specific antigen being tested. Absence of lysis indicating that complement was consumed.
33
What does a negative complement fixation test look like?
Results in the lysis (or breakdown) of the indicator sheep red blood cells, making the solution turn pink. ## Footnote This indicates the absence of target-specific antibodies in the patient's serum, as the free complement was not "fixed" or bound to an antigen-antibody complex and was therefore able to lyse the red blood cells.
34
What is the purpose of the Antiglobulin Test (Coombs Test)?
Identify antibodies that can bind to the surface of RBCs or platelets and destroy them.
35
What is the key principle behind monoclonal antibodies testing?
Antibodies produced in a lab to recognize one single epitope of an antigen/pathogen.
36
Fill in the blank: Antibody titer is the highest serum dilution still showing a _______.
reaction.
37
True or False: Presence of antibodies always means active infection.
False.
38
What is the significance of using paired samples in antibody titer interpretation?
It helps distinguish between recent infections and past immunity.
39
What is a disadvantage of ELISA tests?
Loss of enzymatic activity
40
What does the radioallergoabsorbent test (RAST) measure in animals?
Specific IgE
41
What tests is most likely to be used to measure prolactin hormone in blood?
Radioimmunoassay (RIA) | Typically use this test for any hormone related stuff
42
Which test is sometimes used to detect **rabies virus present in nervous tissues?**
Fluorescence immunoassay
43
What are the 3 outcomes that can result from secondary antigen-antibody interaction?
* Precipitation * Agglutination * Complement fixation
44
# TRUE or FALSE? Rocket electrophoresis immunodiagnostic test is used to check for deficiency in major serum proteins.
True
45
Which immunoglobulin has the strongest agglutination ability?
IgM | Because it is a pentamer!