Immunological Flashcards

(91 cards)

1
Q

What is HIV?

A

Retrovirus that infects and replicates in human lymphocytes and macrophages, resulting in immunodeficiency

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2
Q

Where does HIV replicate primarily in?

A

Human CD4+ T cells and macrophages

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3
Q

What is HIV transmitted via? (3)

A
  • Sexual fluids (majority of cases)
  • Blood (IV drugs users sharing contaminated needles or blood transfusions)
  • Breast milk
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4
Q

Risk factors of HIV? (4)

A
  • HIV-infected blood transfusion
  • IV drug use
  • unprotected sexual intercourse
  • percutaneous needle prick injury
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5
Q

what is Toxoplasmosis

A

an infection with a parasite called Toxoplasma gondii. People often get the infection from eating undercooked meat. You can also get it from contact with cat feces. The parasite can pass to a baby during pregnancy.

Happens in 50% of cerebral lesions in HIV patients

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6
Q

Symptoms of toxoplasmosis? (4)

A
  • Constitutional symptoms
  • Headache
  • Confusion
  • Drowsiness
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7
Q

what will imaging show for toxoplasmosis

A

CT showing single or multiple ring-enhanced lesions

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8
Q

Management of toxoplasmosis?

A

Pyrimethamine + sulphadiazine for 6 weeks

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9
Q

When does HIV seroconversion happen?

A

it’s symptomatic in most patients and presents 3-12 weeks after infection

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10
Q

How does HIV present? (10)

A

Glandular fever type illness

  • Fevers, night sweats, weight Loss
  • Skin Rashes → maculopapular rash
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Sore Throat
  • Oral Ulcers
  • Diarrhoea
  • TB
  • Genital STIs
  • Candidiasis → recurrent infections
  • Shingles
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11
Q

What is first line investigation for HIV?

A

Combination test → HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody test

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12
Q

What happens if combination test is positive for HIV?

A

Do it again to confirm diagnosis alongside starting treatment

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13
Q

What is the HIV p24 antigen?

A

Viral core protein that appears early in blood as viral RNA levels rise (earlier than antibodies)

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14
Q

How can we detect HIV antibodies?

A

Serum HIV Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) → positive for HIV antibodies (however antibodies may not be present in early infection)

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15
Q

How can we track immune status in HIV ppl?

A

CD4 count

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16
Q

What is first line treatment for HIV?

A

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) asap → 2 NRTIs and 1 INSTI
Can be 2 NRTIs and 1 PI/NNRTI if there are resistance issues, drug interactions or in some special situations such as pregnancy or intolerance

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17
Q
  • What NRTIs are there? (3)
A
  • Zidovudine
    • Abacavir
    • Tenofovir
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18
Q

What NNRTIs are there? (2)

A
  • Nevirapine
  • Efavirenz
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19
Q

What PI (Protease Inhibitors) are there? (3)

A

Navir tease a pro

  • Indinavir
  • Nelfinavir
  • Ritonavir
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20
Q

How can we prevent HIV?

A

HIV Preexposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) for individuals at high risk of contracting HIV

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21
Q

What do we give to patients up to 72 hours after potential exposure to HIV?

A

HIV Postexposure Prophylaxis (PEP) which is a short course of ART for 4 weeks

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22
Q

What do we give if CD4 count <200/mm³ in HIV and why?

A

Co-trimoxazole as prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia PJP

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23
Q

What complications are there for HIV? (2)

A
  • Acute seroconversion
  • AIDS
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24
Q

What is prognosis like for HIV?

A

if untreated, leads to death on average 8-10 years after infection

If receiving adequate ART, then no changes to life expectancy than healthy individuals

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25
what is Anaphylaxis
Acute, life threatening, type 1 hypersensitivity reaction due to IgE-mediated mast cell activation
26
What can trigger anaphylaxis? (3)
- Food allergies - Insect stings - Drug reactions (e.g. penicillin, latex)
27
Describe the pathophysiology of anaphylaxis
Degranulation of mast cells → massive histamine release → systemic vasodilation → increased capillary leakage → anaphylactic shock
28
What is a risk factor of anaphylaxis?
History of atopy
29
Clinical features of anaphylaxis (12)
- Acute onset - Airway swelling (angio-oedema) - Stridor (noisy breathing through obstructed airway) - dyspnoea - wheezing - resp arrest - Pale, clammy skin - hypotension - tachycardia - confusion - Urticaria, erythema - Pruritus
30
What is the main blood test for anaphylaxis?
Mast-cell tryptase → may remain elevated for up to 12 hours after acute episode
31
What are useful investigations for a medical emergency? (3)
- ECG - U&Es - ABG
32
What is the first step of anaphylaxis management?
Remove the trigger + call for help
33
What is the main emergency management for anaphylaxis? (2)
ABCDE + high flow oxygen (15L/min non-rebreathe mask)
34
What drug do we have to give ASAP for anaphylaxis ?
Intramuscular adrenaline (one 500mcg dose of 1:1000 IM adrenaline for adults >12 years old into anterolateral aspect of medial thigh)
35
What is refractory anaphylaxis?
Anaphylaxis persists despite 2 doses of IM adrenaline (treatment with IV adrenaline and IV fluid bolus)
36
What do we give after adrenaline in anaphylaxis? (2)
IV chlorphenamine 10mg + IV hydrocortisone 200mg
37
Complications of anaphylaxis? (3)
- Recurrence - Cardiac arrest - Distributive
38
What is a lymphoma?
Malignant proliferation of lymphocytes (B and T cells) which accumulate in lymph nodes or other organs
39
What is a Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Malignant lymphoma of B-cell origin
40
How common is Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Uncommon
41
What is Hodgkin’s lymphoma characterised by?
Reed-sternberg cells
42
What types are there for Hodgkin lymphoma? (4)
- Nodular sclerosing- associated with lacunar cells- most common - Mixed cellularity - Lymphocyte predominant- best prognosis - Lymphocyte depleted- worst prognosis
43
Describe hogkin lymphoma's epidemiology (2)
- M>F - Bimodal age distribution - 1st peak is 25-30 years - 2nd peak is 50-70 years
44
What conditions are associated with lymphoma? (3)
- Epstein-Barr virus - Immunodeficiency - Autoimmune disease e.g. RA, sarcoidosis
45
What is Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Every other type of lymphoma that is not HL (no reed-sternberg cells), may affect B or T cells
46
How common is non Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
More common than HL
47
What does the incidence of non Hodgkin’s lymphoma increase with
age
48
causes of non Hodgkin’s lymphoma?(4)
- Chromosomal translocations - Infections- such as? **(3)** - EBV - HIV - H.pylori - Autoimmune diseases - Immunodeficiency
49
Most common subtype of non Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
50
Another subtype of non HL
Burkitt’s lymphoma
51
What would you see on microscopy for Burkitt’s lymphoma?
‘Starry sky’ appearance
52
What patients is Burkitt’s lymphoma common in? (2)
HIV patients (or generally immunosuppressed) and young patients
53
What is a common complication of Burkitt’s lymphoma?
Tumour lysis syndrome
54
What are clinical features of Hodgkin’s lymphoma? (5)
- Painless lymphadenopathy- most commonly in which nodes? **(2)** Cervical or supraclavicular nodes - Involvement of single group of lymph nodes - Alcohol induced pain - Pruritus - B symptoms
55
What are Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma symptoms? (4)
- Rubbery painless lymphadenopathy associated with fatigue - Affects multiple nodes - Splenomegaly - Extranodal disease-
56
Extranodal disease- affecting what systems? (3)
- GI- how can this be affected? (3) - Dyspepsia - Dysphagia - Abdo pain - Bone marrow- how can this be affected? Bone pain - Neurological- how can this be affected? Headache
57
What are B symptoms? (3)
- Unexplained fevers - Unexplained night sweats - Unexplained weight loss
58
When do B symotoms occur in Non-Hodgkin’s vs Hodgkin’s?
Typically occur earlier in hodgkin’s
59
What does histology and biopsy show in Hodgkin’s?
Reed-sternberg cells (binucleate lymphocytes) - What are 2 other descriptions of these cells? - large multinucleate cells with eosinophilic nucleoli - mirror image nucleoli
60
What does lymph node biopsy show in Non-Hodgkin’s?
Positive
61
What does FBC show in lymphoma?
Lymphocytosis
62
what is immunohistochemistry useful for in Non-Hodgkin’s?
Determines specific cell type and identifies specific markers
63
- What is PET-CT CAP used for?
Staging (Ann-Arbor staging)
64
Staging (Ann-Arbor staging)-stage 1
1 node affected
65
Staging (Ann-Arbor staging)-stage 2
More than 1 node affected on same side of diaphragm
66
Staging (Ann-Arbor staging)-stage 3
Nodes affected on both sides of diaphragm
67
Staging (Ann-Arbor staging)-stage 4
Extra-nodal involvement e.g. Spleen, bone marrow or CNS
68
What do we see on CXR for lymphoma? (2)
- Widened mediastinum - Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
69
What is elevated LDH an indicator of in lymphoma?
Poor prognosis
70
What is the management plan for hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Chemotherapy +/- radiotherapy
71
What specific chemo meds are taken for HL? (4)
ABVD - adriamycin/doxorubicin - bleomycin - vinblastine - dacarbazine
72
What is the management plan for non-hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Chemotherapy +/- radiotherapy
73
Which lymphoma has better prognosis?
HL has better prognosis than NHL
74
Define Allergic disorder
Conditions caused by hypersensitivity of the immune system to typically harmless substances
75
Describe the pathophysiology of Allergic disorder
IgE binds to receptor on mast cell or basophil, triggering release of histamine
76
Causes of allergic disorder? (7)
- Dust - Foods - Latex - Medications - Insect stings - Genetics - Stress
77
Type 1 Hypersensitivity Reactions- anaphylactic → what happens?
Antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells
78
Conditions type 1 Hypersensitivity Reactions causes? (2)
- Anaphylaxis - Atopy (e.g. asthma, eczema, hayfever)
79
Type 2 Hypersensitivity Reactions- cellbound → what happens?
igG or IgM binds to antigen on cell surface
80
Conditions type 2 Hypersensitivity Reactions causes? (7)
- Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia - Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions - ITP - Goodpasture’s sydrome - Pernicious anaemia - Rheumatic fever - Pemphigus vulgaris/bullous pemphigoid
81
Type 3 Hypersensitivity Reactions- immune complex → what happens?
free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine
82
Conditions type 3 Hypersensitivity Reactions causes? (4)
- Serum sickness - Systemic lupus erythematosus - Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis - Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially acute phase)
83
Type 4 Hypersensitivity Reactions- delayed hypersensitiviy → what happens?
T cell mediated
84
Conditions type 4 Hypersensitivity Reactions causes? (7)
- TB - GvH disease - Allergic contact dermatitis - Scabies - Extrinsic allergic alveolitis - MS - Guillain-Barre syndrome
85
What are the clinical features of alergic disorder? (4)
- Runny nose & sneezing - Redness & itching of eyes - Coughing & wheezing - Rashes & hives (urticaria)
86
What are the main investigations for allergic disorder? (4)
- Skin prick testing - Scratch testing - Blood testing - Serum tryptase
87
skin prick testing- why is it done? - What is it done for?
Most commonly used- easy to perform and inexpensive For type I hypersensitivity reactions (IgE mediated) that cause systemic reaction
88
Scratch testing- what is it done for? **(2)**
- Used for contact dermatitis - For skin reactions (type IV hypersensitivity reaction, not IgE mediated)
89
Blood testing in allergic disorder- what does this do?
Measure concentration of specific IgE antibodies in the blood
90
Serum tryptase- what is this?
Specific marker of mast cell activation
91
What is the management plan for allergic disorder? (4)
- Antihistamines e.g. Cetirizine - Glucocorticoids - Emergency → Adrenaline auto-injectors for self-treatment - Allergen Immunotherapy