Clinical Practicum I > Induction > Flashcards

Induction Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the first step in the induction process?

A

Visualize ETT through the cords

This step is crucial for ensuring proper placement of the endotracheal tube (ETT).

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2
Q

What should you do after visualizing the ETT?

A
  • Remove Stylet
  • Inflate the cuff

Removing the stylet and inflating the cuff are essential for securing the ETT.

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3
Q

What is a non-negotiable step regarding gloves during induction?

A

Change or remove extra gloves

Practicing this habit in the simulation lab is important for maintaining hygiene.

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4
Q

What should you do after connecting the circuit to the ETT?

A
  • Look for condensation in ETT
  • Check for chest rise
  • Confirm ETT placement with three ‘good’ ETCO2 waves
  • Check breath sounds in all 4 quadrants and over the stomach

These steps confirm proper ventilation and placement of the ETT.

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5
Q

What should you do after confirming ETT placement?

A
  • Turn on the ventilator
  • Open the APL valve
  • Turn down your O2 flow (from 10 L to maybe 4 or 5 L)
  • Turn on the Vaporizer (Smart people use Desflurane)

These actions are part of the setup for effective ventilation.

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6
Q

What should you tape during the induction process?

A

Tape your eyes and tube

This helps in confirming where equal/bilateral breath sounds were heard and the cm mark at the teeth or lips.

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7
Q

What should you do after taping your eyes and tube?

A

Reassess vitals

Monitoring vitals is crucial for patient safety during induction.

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8
Q

What action should be taken if the BP is low?

A
  • Increase fluids
  • Turn down inhalational
  • Possibly administer ephedrine/Neosynephrine depending on the situation

These interventions help manage hypotension during induction.

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9
Q

What action should be taken if the BP is high?

A
  • Increase inhalational
  • Give opioids
  • Consider undiagnosed hypertensive

These measures are important for managing hypertension during induction.

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10
Q

What is emphasized regarding situational awareness during the induction process?

A

Always be scanning your room, vitals, listen, think ahead

This practice enhances patient safety and preparedness.

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11
Q

What should you do after completing the induction process?

A

Pat yourself on the back for a job well done!

Acknowledging your efforts is important for maintaining morale.

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12
Q

What practice is suggested for improving motor tasks during induction?

A

Practice motor task such as the above with mental imagery

Mental imagery can enhance performance in practical skills.

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13
Q

What are the first two steps in Pre-Anesthesia Induction?

A
  • Case confirmed
  • Anesthesia Plan

These steps are critical for ensuring the safety and preparedness for anesthesia administration.

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14
Q

In the M-S-M-A-1-D-S acronym for Pre-Anesthesia Induction, what does ‘M’ stand for?

A

Machine

This refers to the anesthesia machine used during the procedure.

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15
Q

What does ‘S’ represent in the M-S-M-A-1-D-S acronym?

A

Suction

Suction is essential for maintaining a clear airway during anesthesia.

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16
Q

What does ‘A’ signify in the M-S-M-A-1-D-S acronym?

A

Airway equipment

Proper airway equipment is crucial for effective ventilation.

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17
Q

What is the significance of VITALS in Pre-Anesthesia Induction?

A

BP = Bed + Positioning

Monitoring vitals is essential for patient safety and effective anesthesia management.

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18
Q

What is the standard oxygen concentration for IV Induction?

A

100% for 3-6-9

This ensures adequate oxygenation during the induction phase.

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19
Q

What does VIP MD Got Shot 10 times refer to in IV Induction?

A

Verbalize Induction Plan (VIP)
Medications & Dosages (MD)

This mnemonic aids in recalling the steps for verbalizing the induction plan and medication dosages.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of cricoid pressure during induction?

A

To prevent aspiration

Cricoid pressure is applied to compress the esophagus and minimize the risk of aspiration.

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21
Q

What does C if I can V indicate in the context of administering a paralytic?

A

Give paralytic (hand positioning ‘C’)

This mnemonic helps remember the sequence for administering paralytics during intubation.

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22
Q

What is the maximum pressure for circuit pressure during RSI?

A

<20cm H2O

Maintaining circuit pressure below this threshold is important for effective ventilation.

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23
Q

What does TOF stand for in airway management?

A

Train-of-four

TOF is a method used to assess neuromuscular function during anesthesia.

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24
Q

What is the purpose of inflating the ET cuff?

A

To create a seal in the trachea

Proper cuff inflation is essential for effective ventilation and preventing aspiration.

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25
What should be checked after **ventilatory management**?
* Vitals Recheck * Vent Recheck ## Footnote These checks ensure the patient is stable and the ventilation is effective.
26
What does a **'Time out'** confirm in the anesthesia process?
Readiness for surgical team ## Footnote This step is crucial for ensuring all team members are prepared before proceeding with the surgery.
27
What is evaluated in the **Overall Evaluation** of the anesthesia process?
* Attention to safety * Universal precautions * Shows situational awareness * Appropriate responses to case management questions * Appropriate intervention if unable to intubate * Completed ET intubation <3 attempts ## Footnote These criteria ensure that the anesthesia provider is competent and prepared for the procedure.
28
What is the first step in **Pre-Anesthesia Induction**?
Assigned case confirmed ## Footnote This step ensures that the correct patient and procedure are identified before anesthesia administration.
29
In **Pre-Anesthesia Induction**, what does the 'M' in 'M- Machine check confirmed' stand for?
Machine check confirmed ## Footnote This step verifies that all anesthesia machines are functioning properly.
30
What does the 'S' in 'S- Suction available/on' indicate in **Pre-Anesthesia Induction**?
Suction available/on ## Footnote Ensures that suction equipment is ready for use in case of emergencies.
31
List the components of **Standard IV Induction**.
* Pre-oxygenate 100% FiO2 for 3 minutes @ normal TV or 6 VC breaths * Verbalize/confirm ETO2 >90% * Verbalize induction plan * Medications & dosages appropriate for case * Selected proper medication sequence * Verbalize/confirm unconsciousness & apnea (Test eyelid reflex) * Airway/BMV confirmed before paralytic (hand positioning 'C') * Re-assess vital signs ## Footnote These steps ensure proper preparation and administration of anesthesia.
32
What is the purpose of **Sellick's maneuver** during Rapid Sequence Induction?
Cricoid pressure @ 30N (do not ventilate) ## Footnote This maneuver helps prevent aspiration during intubation.
33
What does 'Demonstrates BMV' refer to in **Airway Management/Intubation**?
Demonstrates BMV while waiting onset of paralytic ## Footnote BMV stands for Bag-Mask Ventilation, which is crucial for maintaining oxygenation.
34
What is the significance of **5 point chest auscultation**?
Confirms ET tube position (5 point chest auscultation with stomach) ## Footnote This ensures that the endotracheal tube is correctly placed in the trachea.
35
What should be adjusted during **Ventilatory Management**?
* Tidal volume * Respiratory rate/l:E ratio * Fresh gas flow ## Footnote These adjustments are necessary to optimize ventilation based on the patient's needs.
36
Fill in the blank: In **Ventilatory Management**, confirm switch from bag to _______.
ventilator mode ## Footnote This transition is critical for maintaining controlled ventilation.
37
What is assessed during the **Overall Evaluation** phase?
* Attention to safety * Universal precautions * Shows situational awareness * Appropriate responses to case management questions * Appropriate intervention if unable to intubate * Completed ET intubation <3 attempts ## Footnote This evaluation ensures that all safety and procedural standards are met.
38
What is the first step in **Pre-Anesthesia Induction**?
Assigned case confirmed ## Footnote This ensures that the anesthesia plan is tailored to the specific case.
39
What should be confirmed regarding **anesthesia plan**?
Able to develop anesthesia plan for selected case ## Footnote This involves considering the patient's needs and potential complications.
40
What does **S** stand for in the machine check during Pre-Anesthesia Induction?
Suction available/on ## Footnote Ensures that suction is ready for use if needed during the procedure.
41
What does **M** represent in the Pre-Anesthesia Induction checklist?
Monitors selected/applied ## Footnote Monitoring is crucial for patient safety during anesthesia.
42
What is the purpose of **A** in the Pre-Anesthesia Induction checklist?
Airway equipment selected and tested ## Footnote Proper airway management is essential for patient safety.
43
What is the significance of confirming **IV access**?
IV access confirmed ## Footnote This allows for the administration of medications during the procedure.
44
What drugs should be confirmed during Pre-Anesthesia Induction?
Drugs confirmed ## Footnote Includes confirming any prop drugs like Versed or bronchodilators.
45
What does **D** stand for in the Pre-Anesthesia Induction checklist?
Drugs confirmed ## Footnote Important for ensuring the correct medications are prepared for the case.
46
What should be assessed as part of the **baseline vitals**?
Assess baseline vitals ## Footnote Establishing a baseline is critical for monitoring changes during anesthesia.
47
What is the purpose of **pre-oxygenation**?
Pre-oxygenate 100% FiO2 for 3 - 5 minutes ## Footnote This helps to increase oxygen reserves before induction.
48
What should be verbalized/confirmed regarding **ETO2**?
Verbalize/confirm ETO2 >90% ## Footnote Ensures adequate oxygenation before induction.
49
What is the importance of **verbalizing the induction plan**?
Verbalize induction plan ## Footnote Communication among the team is essential for safety.
50
What should be confirmed about **medications and dosages**?
Medications & dosages appropriate for case ## Footnote Ensures that the right medications are used for the patient's needs.
51
What is the significance of **selected proper medication sequence**?
Selected proper medication sequence ## Footnote The order of administration can affect the efficacy and safety of the induction.
52
What does the term **unconsciousness** refer to in the induction process?
Verbalize/confirm unconsciousness & apnea ## Footnote Important to ensure the patient is adequately anesthetized before proceeding.
53
What is the purpose of **airway management** during induction?
Able to demonstrate BMV while waiting onset of paralytic ## Footnote Ensures that the patient maintains adequate oxygenation during the induction phase.
54
What does **Sellick's maneuver** involve?
Sellick's maneuver @ 30N ## Footnote This technique helps to prevent aspiration during intubation.
55
What is the role of **cricoid pressure**?
Cricoid pressure @ 10N ## Footnote This is applied to prevent regurgitation during intubation.
56
What should be done if unable to maintain **SaO2**?
BMV/cricoid pressure & circuit pressure <20cm H2O- SaO2 90% ## Footnote This is a critical intervention to ensure patient safety.
57
What is the first step in the **General Anesthesia Induction** process?
Verbalize anatomy visualized & advance ET tube through glottic opening ## Footnote This step involves understanding the anatomy to ensure proper placement of the ET tube.
58
What should be done after advancing the **ET tube** through the glottic opening?
Holds ET tube in position to remove stylet & laryngoscope ## Footnote Proper handling of the ET tube is crucial for maintaining its position.
59
What is the purpose of inflating the **ET cuff**?
Inflates ET cuff to proper volume ## Footnote This ensures a secure seal within the trachea to prevent air leaks.
60
What should be done after attaching the circuit to the **ET tube**?
Ventilates ET tube - adjusting APL valve (Observes for proper tracheal insertion) ## Footnote Proper ventilation is essential to confirm correct placement.
61
What indicates proper placement of the **ET tube** during ventilation?
Bilateral chest rise ## Footnote This is a key sign that the ET tube is correctly positioned in the trachea.
62
What does **continuous/cyclic ETCO2** monitoring indicate?
Proper waveforms-minimal × 3 [SaO2>90%] ## Footnote This monitoring helps confirm effective ventilation and oxygenation.
63
How is the position of the **ET tube** confirmed?
5 point chest auscultation (with stomach) ## Footnote This method checks for correct placement and rules out esophageal intubation.
64
What is the proper **E position** for the ET tube?
Lip to mid-trachea cm ## Footnote This measurement helps ensure the ET tube is positioned correctly.
65
What is the next step after confirming the **ET tube** position?
Verbalize securing tube (tape) ## Footnote Securing the tube prevents accidental displacement.
66
What is the first step in **Ventilatory Management**?
Set Ventilator mode appropriate for case ## Footnote Choosing the correct mode is crucial for patient-specific ventilation.
67
What should be adjusted after setting the **ventilator mode**?
Adjust tidal volume ## Footnote Tidal volume settings are tailored to the patient's needs.
68
What is the purpose of adjusting the **respiratory rate/l:E ratio**?
Adjust respiratory rate/l:E ratio ## Footnote This ensures adequate ventilation and oxygenation based on the patient's condition.
69
What needs to be confirmed after switching from bag to **ventilator mode**?
Confirm switch from bag to ventilator mode ## Footnote This step ensures the patient is being ventilated properly by the ventilator.
70
What should be done to ensure the **volatile agent** is functioning?
Select/turn on & adjust volatile agent ## Footnote Proper adjustment is necessary for effective anesthesia delivery.
71
What is the importance of a **'time out'** in the procedure?
'time out' confirm readiness for surgical team ## Footnote This step is critical for ensuring all team members are prepared and aware of the procedure.
72
What is assessed during the **Overall Evaluation**?
* Attention to safety * Universal precautions * Shows situational awareness * Appropriate responses to case management questions * Appropriate intervention if unable to intubate * Completed ET intubation <3 attempts ## Footnote These criteria ensure the anesthesiologist's competence and readiness.
73
What is the **dose range** for **Neostigmine**?
25-75 mcg/kg ## Footnote Most commonly used reversal agent, may increase incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting.
74
What is the **onset time** for **Edrophonium**?
5-10 minutes ## Footnote Used for rapid reversal of neuromuscular blockade.
75
What is the **duration** of action for **Atropine**?
1-2 hours ## Footnote Commonly used to counteract bradycardia.
76
What is the **dose range** for **Sugammadex**?
2-16 mg/kg ## Footnote Not recommended for deep block; rapid onset and short duration.
77
What is the **postetanic count** for a **profound block**?
Count <3 ## Footnote Indicates a profound level of neuromuscular blockade.
78
What is the **TOF count** indicating **intermediate recovery**?
TOF count 1-4 ## Footnote Indicates partial recovery from neuromuscular blockade.
79
List the **common clinical signs of recovery** from neuromuscular blockers.
* Adequate tidal volume and rate * Smooth and unlabored respirations * Opens eyes widely on command * Sustained protrusion of tongue * Effective swallowing * Able to sustain head or leg lift * Arm lift and touch opposite shoulder * Strong hand grip * Effective cough * Adequate vital capacity of at least 15 mL/kg * Adequate inspiratory force of at least 25-30 cm H20 negative pressure * Sustained tetanic response to 50 Hz for 5 sec * TOF ratio >0.9 with no fade * No fade to double-burst stimulation ## Footnote These signs indicate adequate recovery from neuromuscular blockade.
80
What is the **reversal dose** of **Sugammadex** for a **deep block**?
4-16 mg/kg ## Footnote Used for reversal of neuromuscular blockade.
81
True or false: **Neostigmine** can be used for **delay reversal**.
TRUE ## Footnote Neostigmine can be used in cases where immediate reversal is not required.
82
What is the **duration** of action for **Glycopyrrolate**?
2-4 hours ## Footnote Used to reduce secretions and counteract bradycardia.
83
What is the **onset time** for **Sugammadex**?
1-2 minutes ## Footnote Provides rapid reversal of neuromuscular blockade.
84
What is the **type duration** of **Vecuronium**?
Intermediate ## Footnote Vecuronium is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug.
85
What is the **intubating dose** (mg/kg) for **Rocuronium**?
0.6 ## Footnote Rocuronium is used for rapid sequence intubation.
86
What is the **ED95 potency** (mg/kg) for **Pancuronium**?
0.07 ## Footnote Pancuronium is a long-acting neuromuscular blocker.
87
What is the **redose for maintaining block** as a percentage of the **intubating dose** for **Vecuronium**?
10% ## Footnote This is standard for maintaining neuromuscular blockade.
88
What is the **onset time** (min) for **Atracurium**?
3-4 ## Footnote Atracurium is an intermediate-acting neuromuscular blocker.
89
What is the **clinical duration** (min) for **Cisatracurium**?
30-45 ## Footnote Cisatracurium is known for its minimal side effects.
90
What is the **elimination half-life** for **Mivacurium**?
3-5 ## Footnote Mivacurium is a short-acting neuromuscular blocker.
91
True or false: **Cisatracurium** has significant accumulation and is prone to residual block.
FALSE ## Footnote Cisatracurium is less likely to cause residual block compared to other neuromuscular blockers.
92
What is the **elimination route** for **Mivacurium**?
Hoffman 30% ## Footnote Mivacurium is metabolized through both Hoffman elimination and ester hydrolysis.
93
What is the **side effect** associated with **Atracurium**?
Vagal block with large doses ## Footnote This can lead to bradycardia in patients.
94
What is the **volume of distribution** (L/kg) for **Rocuronium**?
0.3-0.7 ## Footnote This indicates how the drug disperses in the body.
95
What is the **active metabolite** of **Rocuronium**?
17-desacetyl-rocuronium ## Footnote This metabolite has minimal activity.
96
What is the **infusion rate** (ug/kg/min) for **Pancuronium**?
0.1-0.2 ## Footnote This is used for continuous neuromuscular blockade.
97
What is the **renal impairment** effect on **Atracurium**?
30% ## Footnote Renal impairment affects the metabolism of Atracurium.
98
What is the **hepatic impairment** effect on **Cisatracurium**?
20% ## Footnote Hepatic impairment has a minimal effect on Cisatracurium.
99
What is the **recovery index** (RI 25-75) for **Pancuronium**?
30-45 minutes ## Footnote This indicates the time taken for recovery from neuromuscular blockade.
100
What is the **dosage** of **Dexamethasone** for **Croup**?
0.6 mg/kg × 1 IV ## Footnote Dexamethasone is used in various conditions, including Croup.
101
What is the **maximum dosage** of **Hydrocortisone** for **Shock**?
200 mg/d ## Footnote Hydrocortisone is administered at 2-4 mg/kg/d.
102
What are the **dosages** for **Adenosine** in adults?
* 6 mg fast IV * 12 mg fast IV ## Footnote Adenosine is used for certain types of tachycardia.
103
What is the **initial dosage** of **Amiodarone** for adults?
150-300 mg IV ## Footnote Amiodarone is used for life-threatening arrhythmias.
104
What is the **dosage** of **Albuterol** for children?
* 5-10 mg/kg V * 40-80 mcg/kg/min I (max 100 mg) ## Footnote Albuterol is a bronchodilator used in asthma.
105
What is the **maximum local anesthetic dose** of **Lidocaine** without epinephrine?
5 mg/kg ## Footnote The maximum dose increases with the addition of epinephrine.
106
What is the **child's estimated weight** formula for children up to 9 years old?
(Age x 2) + 8 ## Footnote This formula helps estimate the weight in kilograms.
107
What is the **ETT size** for a child weighing **2000-3000 g**?
3.5 ## Footnote ETT size varies based on weight.
108
What is the **MAC** of **Desflurane** for adults?
6.3% ## Footnote MAC values indicate the potency of anesthetic agents.
109
What is the **dosage** of **Sugammadex** for reversal of neuromuscular blockade?
16 mg/kg ## Footnote Sugammadex is used to reverse certain neuromuscular blockers.
110
What is the **dosage** of **Epinephrine** for code situations?
0.5-1 mg IV ## Footnote Epinephrine is critical in cardiac arrest management.
111
What is the **dosage** of **Fentanyl** for pain management in adults?
0.5-2 mcg/kg IV ## Footnote Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic.
112
What is the **dosage** of **Midazolam** for status epilepticus?
0.1-0.2 mg/kg IV ## Footnote Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation.
113
What is the **dosage** of **Naloxone** for partial reversal?
0.01 mg/kg IV ## Footnote Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose.
114
What is the **dosage** of **Ketamine** for pain management?
0.1-0.5 mg/kg IV ## Footnote Ketamine is used for analgesia and sedation.
115
What is the **dosage** of **Dopamine** for children?
2-10 mcg/kg/min IV ## Footnote Dopamine is used as an inotrope and vasopressor.
116
What is the **dosage** of **Furosemide** for adults?
10-40 mg q6-12h IV ## Footnote Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for fluid overload.
117
What is the **dosage** of **Calcium Gluconate** for adults?
1-2 g IV ## Footnote Calcium gluconate is used in cases of hypocalcemia.
118
What is the **dosage** of **TXA** for hyperfibrinolysis/massive transfusion?
10 mg/kg (adults 1g) over 10 min ## Footnote TXA is used to reduce bleeding.
119
What is the **dosage range** for **Furosemide** in adults?
10-40 mg q6-12h ## Footnote Furosemide is administered intravenously at this dosage range.
120
What is the **dosage range** for **Mannitol**?
0.25-1.0 g/kg I ## Footnote Mannitol is given intravenously.
121
What is the **dosage for Electrolytes**?
1-2 mEq/kg/dose IV or 1/3rd base deficit x wt (kg) ## Footnote This dosage is for intravenous administration.
122
What is the **maximum dosage** for **Dextrose**?
2-4 cc/kg D25W N ## Footnote Dextrose 25% in water is used in this dosage.
123
What is the **dosage for Insulin and Glucose**?
Glucose 0.5-1.0 g/kg with insulin 0.1 units/kg IV ## Footnote This combination is administered intravenously.
124
What is the **loading dose** for **Phenobarb**?
15-20 mg/kg IV ## Footnote After the loading dose, the maintenance is 5 mg/kg/d q12 IV.
125
What is the **loading dose** for **Phenytoin**?
15-20 mg/kg I ## Footnote The maintenance dose is 5 mg/kg/d q12 IV.
126
What is the **dosage for Levetiracetam** in adults?
500 mg N q12 ## Footnote This is the dosage for adults administered intravenously.
127
What is the **dosage for Fosphenytoin**?
Dosed like phenytoin (max: 1.5 g) ## Footnote Fosphenytoin may be given intramuscularly.
128
What is the **dosage for Magnesium Sulfate**?
05-1 mEq/kg IV over 1-2 h ## Footnote This dosage is administered intravenously over a period of 1-2 hours.
129
What is the **dosage for Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate (Kayexalate)**?
1g/kg/dose with 5 cc 20% sorbitol PR ## Footnote This is administered rectally.
130
What does **cc** stand for in medical dosages?
cubic centimeters ## Footnote It is a unit of volume commonly used in medicine.
131
What does **IV** stand for?
intravenous ## Footnote This refers to the administration of substances directly into the bloodstream.
132
What does **kg** stand for?
kilogram ## Footnote It is a unit of mass commonly used in medical dosages.
133
What does **mg** stand for?
milligram ## Footnote It is a unit of mass equal to one-thousandth of a gram.
134
What does **q** mean in medical prescriptions?
every ## Footnote It indicates the frequency of administration.
135
What is the **induction dose** range for **Etomidate**?
0.1 - 0.4 (mg/kg) ## Footnote Etomidate is supplied in concentrations of 2 mg/ml and 10 mg/ml.
136
What are the **onset, peak, and duration** times for **Ketamine**?
Onset: 5 min | Peak: 0 | Duration: 5-10 min ## Footnote Ketamine is supplied in concentrations of 10 mg/ml.
137
What is a common **side effect** of **Propofol**?
Pain on injection ## Footnote Propofol is supplied in concentrations of 20 mg/ml.
138
What is the **induction dose** range for **Thiopental**?
3 - 5 (mg/kg) ## Footnote Thiopental is supplied in concentrations of 1 mg/ml.
139
True or false: **Midazolam** can cause respiratory depression.
TRUE ## Footnote Midazolam is supplied in concentrations of 1 mg/ml.
140
What are the **supplied concentrations** for **Methohexital**?
10 mg/ml ## Footnote Methohexital is also known as Brevital.
141
What is the **onset** time for **Rocuronium**?
1-2 min ## Footnote Rocuronium is supplied in concentrations of 10 mg/ml.
142
What are the **supplied concentrations** for **Alfentanil**?
600 mcg/ml ## Footnote Alfentanil is a potent opioid analgesic.
143
What is the **maximum dose** for **Flumazenil**?
3 mg/hr ## Footnote Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist.
144
What is the **MAC** for **Isoflurane**?
1.15% ## Footnote Isoflurane is used as an inhalational anesthetic.
145
What is the **duration** of action for **Dexamethasone**?
2-4 hrs ## Footnote Dexamethasone is supplied in concentrations of 4 mg/ml.
146
What is the **induction dose** for **Sufentanil**?
1-2 mcg/kg ## Footnote Sufentanil is a potent opioid used in anesthesia.
147
What are the **common side effects** of **Morphine**?
* Respiratory depression * Nausea * Vomiting ## Footnote Morphine is supplied in concentrations of 10 mg/ml.
148
What is the **onset** time for **Epinephrine**?
Immediate ## Footnote Epinephrine is supplied in a concentration of 1:1000 (0.01 mg/ml).
149
What is the **induction dose** for **Meperidine**?
0.5-1 mg/kg ## Footnote Meperidine is also known as Demerol.
150
What is the **duration** of action for **Hydromorphone**?
2-4 hrs ## Footnote Hydromorphone is supplied in concentrations of 1-2 mg/ml.
151
What is the **maximum dose** for **Naloxone**?
2 mg (usually IM) ## Footnote Naloxone is used for opioid overdose reversal.
152
What is the **supplied concentration** for **Droperidol**?
2.5 mg/ml ## Footnote Droperidol is used as an antiemetic and sedative.
153
What is the **onset** time for **Dopamine**?
2-5 min ## Footnote Dopamine is supplied in concentrations of 200-400 mg/5 ml.
154
What is the **induction dose** for **Vecuronium**?
0.1 mg/kg ## Footnote Vecuronium is supplied in concentrations of 1 mg/ml.
155
What is the **duration** of action for **Atracurium**?
20-35 min ## Footnote Atracurium is supplied in concentrations of 10 mg/ml.
Clinical Practicum I
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