Initial Assessment Test

Question 1

1. Which of the following is not considered a system component that can be found inside a computer?

A. CPU
B. RAM
C. PCIe graphics adapter
D. Motherboard

Answer 1

1. C. System components are essential for the basic functionality of a computer system. Many of the landmarks found on the motherboard can be considered system components, even expansion slots to a degree. What you plug into those slots, however, must be considered peripheral to the basic operation of the system. See Volume 1 Chapter 1 for more information.

Question 2

2. Which of the following is a physical memory format installed directly in today’s desktop
   computer systems?

A. DIMM
B. HDD
C. SSD
D. eMMC

Answer 2

2. A. Except for DIMMs, all options represent some form of secondary storage, all of which are covered in Volume 1 Chapter 2. See Volume 1 Chapter 1 for more information.

Question 3

3. Which of the following are components that can commonly be found on a motherboard?
   (Choose all that apply.)

A. Headers
B. Fan connectors
C. Gyroscope
D. Scanner
E. HDD

Answer 3

3. A, B. Motherboards commonly have headers for lights and buttons and for powering cooling fans. Gyroscopes are most commonly found in mobile devices. Scanners are external devices. Although there might be one or more types of HDD interfaces built into the motherboard, the HDD itself is not. See Volume 1 Chapter 1 for more information.

Question 4

4. Which of the following statements is true regarding ECC RAM?

A. ECC RAM has full functionality in a non-ECC motherboard.
B. ECC RAM will not fit in a non-ECC motherboard.
C. ECC RAM will fit but not work in a non-ECC motherboard.
D. ECC RAM will fit and function without error-correction in a non-ECC motherboard.

Answer 4

4. D. Error-correcting code (ECC) RAM will fit and work in a non-ECC motherboard, but it will not have error-correcting capabilities. See Volume 1 Chapter 1 for more information.

Question 5

5. Which of the following hard drives will fit into an M.2 slot with a B-key and an M-key?

A. B-key
B. M-key
C. B+M-key
D. All of the above

Answer 5

5. C. An M.2 slot with B- and M-keys has posts in the B- and M- positions. Therefore, the drive must have notches in both the B- and M- positions or it will not fit. See Volume 1 Chapter 2 for more information.

Question 6

6. You are replacing a power supply with a new one. What is the primary characteristic you should look to ensure all internal components can be supported?

A. Amperage rating
B. 20-pin to 24-pin motherboard adapter
C. Wattage rating
D. Voltage rating

Answer 6

6. C. Wattage is the unit of output for power supplies. Make sure that the power supply has enough wattage to support all components. See Volume 1 Chapter 2 for more information.

Question 7

7. A user has asked you to install a RAID array. Except in the case of RAID 0, which two things do all types of RAID offer? (Choose two.)

A. Faster read speeds
B. Faster write speeds
C. Redundancy
D. Fault tolerance
E. Automatic restores from backup after a drive failure

Answer 7

7. C, D. Except for RAID 0, all implementations of RAID offer a way to recover from the failure of at least one drive, which is an example of fault tolerance, through the implemen- tation of some mechanism that stores redundant information for that purpose. Some RAID types offer faster read and/or write performance. RAID 1, for instance, does not guarantee either. RAID also does not automatically restore from backup. See Volume 1 Chapter 2 for more information.

Question 8

8. You are installing a new SATA hard drive. Which of the following is true, without using an adapter?

A. It will connect to a SATA controller only.
B.It will connect to a SATA controller or SAS controller.
C. It will connect to a SATA controller or PATA controller.
D. It will connect to a SATA controller or a PCIe controller.

Answer 8

8. B. SATA drives will of course connect to SATA controllers. They will connect to SAS controllers as well, although they will be much slower than SAS hard drives. See Volume 1 Chapter 2 for more information.

Question 9

9. Which of the following types of connectors would you expect to see on the end of a
   serial cable?

A. DB-9
B RS-232
C. Molex
D. VGA

Answer 9

9. A. Serial cables use a DB-9 connector. Some people will call them an RS-232 connector, but
   RS-232 is the transmission standard used by serial cables. Molex are power connectors for PATA hard drives and optical drives. VGA is a video connector. See Volume 1 Chapter 3 for more information.

Question 10

10. Which of the following video connectors has an analog variety and a digital variety?

A VGA
B. HDMI
C. DisplayPort
D. DVI

Answer 10

10. D. DVI comes in both analog (DVI-A) and digital (DVI-D) varieties. VGA is always analog;
    HDMI and DisplayPort are always digital. See Volume 1 Chapter 3 for more information.

Question 11

11. Which of the following connectors will you not find on the end of a USB cable?
    (Choose two.)

A. Lightning
B. USB-C
C. Molex
D. DB-9
E. eSATA

Answer 11

11. C, D. USB cables are multipurpose cables that connect many types of peripherals. Connec- tors include USB-C, Lightning, and eSATA. Molex connectors provide power to PATA hard drives and optical drives. A DB-9 connector is found on the end of a serial cable. See Volume 1 Chapter 3 for more information.

Question 12

12. In an LCD panel, what is the name of the component that provides power to the backlight?
    A. Diffuser
    B. Inverter
    C. Converter
    D. Digitizer

Answer 12

12. B. A backlight is given power by an inverter, which converts DC power from the power
    supply to the AC power for the backlight. There are no diffusers or converters in an LCD panel. A digitizer takes input from a stylus or fingertip and turns it into digital signals. See Volume 1 Chapter 3 for more information.

Question 13

13. You are installing a new display for a laptop. Which LCD component is responsible for
    providing brightness?

A Backlight
B. Inverter
C. Screen
D. Digitizer

Answer 13

13. A. The backlight provides light to the LCD screen. The inverter provides power to the back-
    light, and the screen displays the picture. Digitizers take physical input (such as touch) and turn it into electronic data. See Volume 1 Chapter 4 for more information.

Question 14

14. Your laptop has 8 GB of installed memory and uses shared video memory. If the video card is using 512 MB, how much is left for the rest of the system?

A. 8 GB
B. 7.5 GB
C. 512 MB
D. Cannot determine

Answer 14

14. B. If the laptop is using shared video memory, then the system memory is shared with the
    video card. If the video card is using 512 MB (half a gigabyte), then there is 7.5 GB left for the system. See Volume 1 Chapter 4 for more information.

Question 15

15. On a typical laptop, which of the following components runs through the hinge from the
    base of the laptop up into the display unit?

A. Webcam connector
B. Speaker wires
C. Microphone connector
D. Wi-Fi antenna

Answer 15

15. D. In most laptops, the Wi-Fi antenna runs from the base of the unit through the hinge and into the display. The webcam and microphone are generally part of the display unit only. Speakers are most often in the base of the laptop, not the display. See Volume 1 Chapter 4 for more information.

Question 16

16. Which of the following laptop accessories is most likely to have a full-sized internal hard
    drive bay?

A. Docking station
B. Port replicator
C. SAN
D. NAS

Answer 16

16. A. A docking station might have an internal full-sized hard drive bay. Port replicators only have additional ports, such as HDMI, DisplayPort, and USB. Storage area networks (SAN) and network attached storage (NAS) are not laptop accessories. See Volume 1 Chapter 4 for more information.

Question 17

17. A technician is preparing to perform inkjet printer maintenance. Which of the following
    should they consider?

A. Replace toner, apply maintenance kit, calibrate, clean.
B. Replace paper, clean heating element, remove debris.
C. Replace ribbon, replace printhead, replace paper.
D. Clean printheads, replace cartridges, calibrate, clear jams.

Answer 17

17. D. Inkjet printer maintenance includes clean printheads, replace cartridges, calibrate, clear
    jams. Laser printer maintenance includes replace toner, apply maintenance kit, calibrate, clean. Thermal printer maintenance includes replace paper, clean heating element, remove debris. Impact printer maintenance includes replace ribbon, replace printhead, replace paper. See Volume 1 Chapter 5 for more information.

Question 18

18. What is the function of the laser in a laser printer?
    A. It heats up the toner so that it adheres to the page.
    B. It charges the paper so that it will attract toner.
    C. It creates an image of the page on the drum.
    D. It cleans the drum before a page is printed.

Answer 18

18. C. The laser creates an image on the photosensitive drum that is then transferred to the paper by the transfer corona. The fuser heats up the toner so that it adheres to the page. The transfer corona charges the page, and the eraser lamp cleans the drum before a page is printed. A rubber blade is also used to remove toner physically from the drum. See Volume 1 Chapter 5 for more information.

Question 19

19. What is the component called that stores the material that ends up printed to the page in a laser printer?

A Toner cartridge
B. Ink cartridge
C. Laser module
D. Laser cartridge

Answer 19

19. A. Laser printers use toner, which they melt to the page in the image of the text and graphics
    being printed. A toner cartridge holds the fine toner dust until it is used in the printing pro- cess. See Volume 1 Chapter 5 for more information.

Question 20

20. When used with network scanning services, what does SMB allow for?

A. Scan to the cloud
B. Scan to email
C. Scan to a network folder
D. Scan to secured print

Answer 20

20. C. The Server Message Block (SMB) protocol allows for the saving of scanned documents
    onto a network folder. See Volume 1 Chapter 5 for more information.

Question 21

21. Which network connectivity device stops broadcasts from being sent to computers on a different network segment?

A. Hub
B.) Switch
C. Router
D. Firewall

Answer 21

21. C. A router does not pass along broadcasts to computers on other segments. Hubs and
    switches send broadcasts along because they do not segment traffic at the logical network address level. See Volume 1 Chapter 6 for more information.

Question 22

22. Which of the following cable types is made with a plastic coating that does not produce toxic fumes when it burns?

A. Plenum
B. Fiber
C. Coaxial
D. UTP

Answer 22

22. A. The plenum is an air space within buildings used to circulate breathable air for occupants
    of a building. Fiber, coaxial, and UTP cables are normally enclosed with a PVC plastic coat- ing, which produces toxic fumes if burned. For air ventilation spaces, plenum grade cable is required. All cable types have plenum-rated versions. See Volume 1 Chapter 6 for more information.

Question 23

23. Which of the following are standards used by coaxial cable? (Choose two.)

A. RG-6
B. RG-59
C. RJ11
D. RJ45

Answer 23

23. A, B. RG-6 and RG-59 are coaxial cable standards. RJ11 and RJ45 are connectors used with twisted pair cabling. See Volume 1 Chapter 6 for more information.

Question 24

24. You have a PoE switch that says it supports PoE Type 3. How many watts can it provide to
    attached devices?

A. 30 watts
B. 60 watts
C. 100 watts
D. 120 watts

Answer 24

24. B. Power over Ethernet Type 3 can provide 60 W of power. PoE is 15.4 W, PoE+ is 30 W,
    and PoE++ Type 4 is 100 W. See Volume 1 Chapter 6 for more information.

Question 25

25. On which port does FTP run by default? A. 21 B. 25 C. 53 D. 80

Answer 25

25. A. FTP operates on ports 20 and 21. Port 25 is used by SMTP, port 53 is DNS, and port 80 is HTTP. See Volume 1 Chapter 7 for more information.

Question 26

26. Which of the following protocols can be used by a client to access email on a server? A. DNS B. FTP C. SMTP D. IMAP

Answer 26

26. D. The IMAP and POP3 protocols can be used to retrieve email from mail servers. DNS is used to resolve host names to IP addresses. FTP is for file transfers, and SMTP is used to send email. See Volume 1 Chapter 7 for more information.

Question 27

27. Which of the following protocols provide secure network transmissions? (Choose two.) A. SMTP B. SNMP C. SSH D. HTTPS

Answer 27

27. C, D. Secure Shell (SSH) and Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) are both secure transport protocols. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) are not inherently secure. See Volume 1 Chapter 7 for more information.

Question 28

28. Which of the following IP addresses is not routable on the Internet? A. 192.16.33.220 B 172.18.1.101 C. 33.33.33.33 D. 192.186.33.220

Answer 28

28. B. Private IP addresses are not routable on the Internet. The Private IP address ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. See Volume 1 Chapter 7 for more information.

Question 29

29. One of your network users was recently caught at work browsing pornographic websites. Which of the following servers could be installed to prohibit this activity? A. Web B. Security C. Proxy D. DNS

Answer 29

29. C. A proxy server can be configured to block access to websites containing potentially objec- tionable material. Web servers host websites. There is no specific security server, although there are authentication servers which provide security. A DNS server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. See Volume 1 Chapter 8 for more information.

Question 30

30. Which of the following Internet appliances will include services provided by an IDS or IPS? A UTM B. Spam gateway C. Load balancer D. Proxy server

Answer 30

30. A. Unified threat management (UTM) is a security-based Internet appliance that will likely contain the services of an intrusion detection system (IDS) or intrusion protection system (IPS). See Volume 1 Chapter 8 for more information.

Question 31

31. For security purposes, your network needs to ensure that all devices have synchronized time stamps for login events. Which network service will help provide this? A. DNS B. DHCP C. AAA D. NTP

Answer 31

31. D. A Network Time Protocol (NTP) server can ensure that all devices on the network are operating at the same time. DNS, DHCP, and AAA do not provide timekeeping services. See Volume 1 Chapter 8 for more information.

Question 32

32. Which DNS record type is used for IPv4 addresses? A. AAAA B. A C. CNAME D. MX

Answer 32

32. B. IPv4 addresses are identified with an A DNS record type. AAAA is for IPv6, CNAME is an alias, and MX is a mail server. See Volume 1 Chapter 8 for more information.

Question 33

33. Which of the following is a company that provides direct access to the Internet for home and business computer users? A. ASP B. ISP C. DNS D. DNP

Answer 33

33. B. An Internet service provider (ISP) provides direct access to the Internet. ASP is a program- ming language. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DNP is not a computer networking acronym. See Volume 1 Chapter 9 for more information.

Question 34

34. What is the maximum range for a Bluetooth Class 2 device? A. 100 meters B. 10 meters C. 1 meter D. 0.5 meters

Answer 34

34. B. A Bluetooth class 2 device (which includes headsets, keyboards, and mice) is 10 meters. Class 1 devices can transmit up to 100 meters, class 3 one meter, and class 4 half a meter. See Volume 1 Chapter 9 for more information.

Question 35

35. Which of the following 802.11 technologies can communicate in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies? (Choose two.) A. 802.11ax B. 802.11ac C. 802.11n D. 802.11g

Answer 35

35. A, C. 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) and 802.11n were designed to communicate at 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. 802.11ac runs at 5 GHz, and 802.11g runs at 2.4 GHz. See Volume 1 Chapter 9 for more information.

Question 36

36. Which wireless networking technology has the longest range? A. Bluetooth B. 802.11 C. NFC D. RFID

Answer 36

36. B. 802.11 has the longest range. Bluetooth is next longest, and then the two shortest are the radio frequency standards NFC and RFID. See Volume 1 Chapter 9 for more information.

Question 37

37. Which of the following is used to remotely manage corporate mobile devices on a network? A. Location services B. Synchronization C. BYOD D. MDM

Answer 37

37. D. Mobile device management (MDM) controls which devices are on the network and can wipe entire devices. Location services do not manage software. Synchronization can back up apps and data but does not help with updates or deleting apps. BYOD is when a user owns the device that they use on a corporate network. For more information, see Volume 1 Chapter 10.

Question 38

38. What term refers to copying data between a mobile device and a computer system to mirror such things as contacts, programs, pictures, and music? A. Calibration B. Remote wipe C. Pairing D. Synchronization

Answer 38

38. D. Synchronizing a mobile device with a computer system allows you to mirror personal data between the devices, regardless of which one contains the most current data. Calibration refers to matching the device's and user's perceptions of where the user is touching the screen. Remote wipes allow you to remove personal data from a lost or stolen device. Pairing is what must be done in Bluetooth for two Bluetooth devices to connect and communicate. For more information, see Volume 1 Chapter 10.

Question 39

39. You want to send emails from your smartphone using a secure connection. Which port will enable that? A. 25 B 110 C. 143 D. 587

Answer 39

39. D. Port 587 is used by SMTP (an email sending protocol) secured with TLS. Ports 25 (SMTP), 110 (POP), and 143 (IMAP) are not secure. See Volume 1 Chapter 10 for more information.

Question 40

40. A network administrator wants ten users in three different countries to be able to access all of the same data for a project. Which solution is best? A. MDM B. Data cap C. Synchronization D. Cloud storage

Answer 40

40. D. Cloud storage is the best solution to allow geographically dispersed users to access the same data. MDM is mobile device management, which configures the devices allowed to join a network. Synchronization is the act of mirroring all unique changes and additions from one device to the other. See Volume 1 Chapter 10 for more information.

Question 41

41. When using cloud services, which of the following may incur an additional charge as part of metered utilization? A. Elasticity B. Availability C. Egress D. Ingress

Answer 41

41. C. Metered utilization means client usage is tracked and they are billed for their usage. Many service providers charge extra for downloading data, which is data egress (uploading, or ingress, is generally free). Elasticity and availability are separate cloud characteristics from metered utilization. See Volume 1 Chapter 11 for more information.

Question 42

42. Google Docs is an example of what type of cloud service? A. SaaS B IaaS C. PaaS D. GaaS

Answer 42

42. A. Google Docs is software, so it is an example of software as a service (SaaS). IaaS is infrastructure as a service. PaaS is a platform as a service. GaaS is not a test objective and is not cur- rently a cloud service type. See Volume 1 Chapter 11 for more information.

Question 43

43. Which type of software is required to run client-side virtualization on your home network? A Terminal emulation B. Process replication C. Hyperthreading D. Hypervisor

Answer 43

43. D. The hypervisor is the key piece of software needed for virtualization. Terminal emulation, process replication, and Hyper-Threading are not related to client-side virtualization. See Volume 1 Chapter 11 for more information.

Question 44

44. What type of cloud has elements from a public cloud run by a CSP and others owned by the client company on its internal network? A. Private B. Public C. Hybrid D. Community

Answer 44

44. C. A hybrid cloud is a combination of a public cloud (owned and operated by a CSP) and a private cloud (owned and operated by an individual company). A community cloud is one created by multiple organizations with similar interests. See Volume 1 Chapter 11 for more information.

Question 45

45. A desktop computer has recently started exhibiting slow performance, particularly when opening and saving files to the hard drive. What should you try first? A. Replace the hard drive. B. Remove old files and applications to free up disk space. C. Delete and reinstall the OS. D. Defragment the hard drive.

Answer 45

45. B. Hard drive performance can slow down if the drive gets short on space, particularly under 10 percent free space. Try removing old files and applications to free up disk space first. If that doesn't resolve it, then defragment. If neither of those work, it could indicate a failing hard drive. See Volume 1 Chapter 12 for more information.

Question 46

46. A network cable has not been working properly. Another technician suggests testing the cable. Which tool should be used to do this? (Choose-two) A. Loopback plug B. Network tap C Cable tester D. Toner probe

Answer 46

46. C. Cable testers are for verifying that a cable works properly. Network taps create copies of network traffic for analysis. A loopback plug is for testing the ability of a network adapter to send and receive. A toner probe is used to trace a cable from one location to another. See Volume 1 Chapter 12 for more information.

Question 47

47. You are troubleshooting a network issue. What feature do switches most likely have to help troubleshoot connectivity issues? A. Port toggles B. Beep codes C. Indicator lights D. Log entries

Answer 47

47. C. Switches and other connectivity devices have indicator lights to help indicate when things are working normally and when something isn't working right. There are no port toggles and switches don't use beep codes. A switch might make a log entry into an event logger, but this is less likely than it having indicator lights. See Volume 1 Chapter 12 for more information.

Question 48

48. When you turn a computer on, you immediately hear a loud screeching sound coming from it. What components could be making this noise? (Choose two.) A. SSD B. HDD C. CPU D. PSU

Answer 48

48. When you turn a computer on, you immediately hear a loud screeching sound coming from it. What components could be making this noise? (Choose two.) A. SSD B. HDD C. CPU D. PSU

Question 49

49. Your laser printer has recently started printing vertical white lines on documents it prints. What is the most likely cause of the problem? A. The print driver is faulty. B. The fuser is not heating properly. C. There is toner on the transfer corona wire. D. There is a scratch on the EP drum.

Answer 49

49. C. White streaks on printouts are most likely caused by toner on the transfer corona wire. Vertical black lines are caused by a scratch or a groove in the EP drum. If the fuser was not heating properly, the toner would not bond to the paper and you would have smearing. Faulty print drivers will cause garbage to print or there will be no printing at all. See Volume 1 Chapter 13 for more information.

Question 50

50. A laptop's display has several spots where it does not light up. If the screen is set to a solid white background, there are at least a dozen dots that will still be black. What's the solution to this problem? A. Change the screen resolution to a lower one. B. Replace the laptop display. C. Degauss the laptop display. D. Replace the laptop display inverter.

Answer 50

50. B. The symptom being described is called dead pixels. If they will not light up, the only solution is to replace the display. Changing the resolution won't help. Degaussing was done on old CRT monitors. The inverter provides power to the laptop display backlight, but if it were failing, the screen would be dim or flickering. See Volume 1 Chapter 13 for more information.

Question 51

51. Which of the following should a user do to avoid malware on an Android phone? A. Use a screen protector. B. Block the digitizer from receiving external input. C. Install apps from only the Google Play store. D. None of the above. Android phones are not susceptible to malware.

Answer 51

51. C. Android OS can be subjected to malware. To avoid malware, install apps only from the Google Play store and avoid tapping on suspicious links. See Volume 1 Chapter 13 for more information.