1
Q
During standard-rate turns, which instrument is considered ‘primary’ for bank?
A
turn coordinator
2
Q
What is the initial primary bank instrument when establishing a level standard-rate turn?
A
Attitude indicator.
3
Q
Absolute altitude can be described as
A
The actual height of the airplane above the earths surface
4
Q
To confirm that the airplane is in level flight you must check the
A
Altimeter
5
Q
For altitude corrections of 100 feet or less, use a
A
½ bar width pitch change on the attitude indicator
6
Q
In straight and level flight, which instrument is primary for bank
A
Heading indicator
7
Q
Constant airspeed climb
A
8
Q
In a constant rate climb the primary pitch instrument is the
A
Vertical speed indicator
9
Q
When flying in heavy turbulence, which instrument will give you the best information to maintain aircraft control
A
Attitude indicator
10
Q
In turbulent air, your most important task is
A
Keeping the airplane’s wings level.
11
Q
The standard rate turn for a propeller driven airplane changes the heading by
A
3 degrees per second
12
Q
After establishing the approximate bank using the attitude indicator, to fine tune the bank, use the
A
Turn coordinator
13
Q
What action should you take if you experience a vacuum power failure in flight, to avoid confusing yourself with misinformation?
A
Cover the attitude and heading indicators.
14
Q
What action should you take when an instrument failure happens in instrument conditions?
A
Notify ATC and ask for vectors to VFR conditions
15
Q
When using the vertical speed indicator, to avoid over controlling, the rate of climb/descent should be limited to
A
500fpm
16
Q
Deceleration causes the horizon bar of the Attitude Indicator to move _______ indicating a nose-low attitude.
A
up
17
Q
Acceleration causes the horizon bar of the Attitude Indicator to move _______ indicating a nose-up attitude.
A
down
18
Q
Indicated Airspeed
A
Read from dial uncorrected
19
Q
Equivalent Airspeed
A
Corrected for compression of the air inside the pitot tube. Same as CAS in standard atmosphere at sea level. As airspeed and pressure altitude increase, CAS becomes higher than it should be - compression is subtracted from CAS
20
Q
True Airspeed
A
true airspeed is CAS corrected for nonstandard pressure and temperature
21
Q
Calibrated airspeed
A
IAS corrected for position and instrument error
22
Q
1 inch of Hg change in the altimeter results in an altitude indication change of
A
1000 feet
23
Q
Types of errors in altimeter
A
Mechanical and inherent
24
Q
Mechanical error altimeter
A
Altimeter should indicate the surveyed elevation of the airport within 75 feet - repair if not
Check location on airport via chart
25
Inherent error altimeter
When temps are warmer - pressure levels are farther
When temps are cooler - pressure levels are closer
26
When dynamic pressure cannot enter ASI
ASI no longer operates
27
If pitot drain hole is open then
Static pressure equalizes on either side of diaphragm and ASI reads zero
28
Pitot tube ram and drain obstructed
ASI behaves like altimeter
static pressure still enters
29
Alternate static source readings
Altimeter reads higher
ASI indicates higher
VSI initial climb then stabilizes
Cabin pressure is lower than regular static pressure
30
Rolling out of a skidding turn bank error
attitude indicator shows a bank 3-5 degrees in the opposite direction temporarily
31
EFIS stands for
Electronic flight information systems
32
GPWS stands for
Ground Proximity warning systems
33
TAWS stands for
Terrain awareness and warning system
34
TCAS stands for
Traffic alert and collision avoidance system
35
Encoding altimeter tolerance
within 125 feet of altitude indicated on the instrument used to maintain flight altitude
36
Reduced Vertical separation minimum (RVSM)
Between FL 290 and FL 410 - 1000 foot separation is RVSM - need to be specially equipped and trained
At least one automatic altitude control
Within +-65 feet about an acquired altitude when the aircraft is operated in straight and level flight
Within +- 130 feet under no turbulent conditions for type certification on or before April 9, 1997, that are equipped with an automatic altitude control system with flight management/performance system inputs
Must have an altitude alert system that signals an alert when the altitude is deviated by 200 feet
37
Compass/navigation errors (acronyms)
UNOS, ANDS, VDMONA
38
2 methods for learning attitude instrument flying
Control and performance
Primary and supporting
39
Control instruments
Display immediate attitude and power indications
Calibrated to permit those respective adjustments in precise increments
Power indicators: manifold pressure, tachometers, fuel flow, etc
40
Performance instruments
Indicate the aircrafts actual performance
Performance according to altimeter, airspeed, vertical speed indicator
41
Navigation instruments
Indicate the position of the aircraft in relation to a selected navigation facility or fix
Includes: course indicators, range indicators, glideslope indicators, bearing pointers
42
Correction using VSI
As a guide the pitch attitude should produce a rate of change on the VSI about twice the size of altitude deviation
43
Increase in ASI indicates
descent
44
Decrease in ASI indicates
climb
45
Selected radial cross check
80-90 percent attitude indicator
Quick glances at the other flight instruments (the five surrounding the attitude indicator)
Eyes travel through attitude indicator when checking the other instruments
46
Inverted-V Cross Check
Scan from attitude indicator to turn coordinator, to attitude, to VSI to attitude
47
Rectangular Cross Check
Pilot scans top three and then bottom three
Clockwise or counter clockwise
Gives equal weight to each instrument but takes more time to return to each one.
48
Attitude indicator position for error less than 100 feet
half a bar width correction
49
Attitude indicator position for error greater than 100 feet
Initial full bar width correction
50
Consideration for heading correction
Correct to desired heading using bank angle no greater than the number of degrees to be turned
51
To determine bank for standard rate
bank = 15% of TAS
52
When to level off of bank
lead by 50% of bank
53
Timed turns
Enter standard rate turn and note indicated heading changes at 10 second intervals
if more or less than 30* adjust as needed
54
Steep turn in instrument flying
In instrument flying - any bank greater than standard rate is steep
Monitor altimeter and VSI
If decreasing despite back pressure - plane is in spiral - shallow bank and hold or relax elevator pressure and reduce power if needed (ASI)
55
Types of IFR En route Charts (3)
IFR En route planning chart
IFR low altitude en route chart
IF high altitude en route chart
56
IFR En Route Planning Chart
Useful for long-range planning on the ground.
Provides a big-picture view but lacks detailed in-flight information.
57
IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart
Primary reference for details on low altitude Victor Airways (up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL).
Depicts RNAV terminal transition routes, called T-Routes, in blue.
58
IFR High Altitude En Route Chart
Useful for flights above 18,000 feet.
Depicts Jet Airways based on VORs and RNAV Q-Routes.
These routes extend from FL180 up to FL450.
59
How often are new en route charts issued
Every 56 days
60
How are Victor airways identified
Letter V followed by a number
even typically east west
Odd typically north south
61
What to when flight planning and you have the courses of straight line airways
Average the courses
62
Box next to airway indicates
Distance in nautical miles between checkpoints
63
How are segmented distances of an airway depicted
As a number above or below the airway
64
Types of reporting points and symbol
Triangles
Black - VHF/UHF (VOR)
Brown - NDB
Blue - RNAV
65
Solid triangle on IFR en route chart
compulsory reporting point
66
Open triangle on IFR en route chart
Non-compulsory (on-request) reporting points
67
MEA stands for
Minimum En Route Altitude
68
What is Minimum En Route Altitude MEA
Ensures obstacle clearance and satisfactory navigation signal reception.
1000 foot clearance in non mountain terrain
2000 foot clearance in mountainous terrain
69
What is MOCA
Minimum obstruction clearance altitude
70
Minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA)
Prefixed with an asterix and is lower than MEA
Provides obstacle clearance but guarantees navigation signal reception only within 22 NM of the NAV aid.
1000 foot clearance in non mountain terrain
2000 foot clearance in mountainous terrain
71
Where is MOCA usable when using VOR nav
within 22 NM of station
72
Where is MOCA usable when using GPS
Entire route (vs within 22 NM if using VOR)
73
What is OROCA
Off route obstruction clearance altitude
74
Off route obstruction clearance altitude
Used when flying direct routes off established airways.
Provides obstacle clearance but does not guarantee NAV signal reception, radar coverage, or ATC communication.
1000 foot clearance in non mountain terrain
2000 foot clearance in mountainous terrain
75
How is OROCA depicted
Bold Tan numbers
76
What is MRA
Minimum Reception Altitude
77
Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA)
Indicates the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined using a specific NAV aid.
Denoted by a flag with an "R".
78
What is an MEA Gap
Indicates areas where NAV signal coverage does not meet airway standards at the MEA.
Denoted by "MEA GAP" notes on the chart.
In such gaps, maintain heading until navigation signal is regained.
79
What is MAA
Maximum Authorized Altitude
80
Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA)
Indicates maximum altitude for airway usage due to NAV signal limitations.
Depicted as "MAA-###"
81
Crossing Altitudes and Changes IFR en route
Altitudes may change along an airway, indicated by short crossbars.
Aircraft may cross the fix at the lower altitude and then climb to the higher MEA.
82
Bearing Changes and Changeover Points
On straight airways, changeover of navigation is usually at the midpoint unless otherwise indicated.
83
On dogleg airways, the changeover point is
where the airway bends
84
IFR en route chart
Closed headed arrows indicate
Radials
85
IFR en route chart
Open headed arrows indicate
DME Distances
86
IFR en route
Blue and green airports
have published instrument approaches for civilian aircraft.
87
IFR en route
Brown airports
do not have published approaches but have runways at least 3,000 feet long; charted for emergencies.
88
Low altitude IFR RNAV routes are printed in
Blue
89
Types of Airways (IFR NAV - 4)
1. Victor Airway
2. Jet Routes
3. RNAV routes
4. Colored routes
90
Victor Airways
Connect VOR
Extend from 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Highest assigned altitude is typically 17,000 feet.
91
Jet Routes
Start at 18,000 feet MSL and extend up to and including FL450 (Flight Level 450).
Above FL450, aircraft navigate point-to-point or direct routes.
92
RNAV Routes
Published RNAV routes appear on both high and low altitude charts, printed in blue with magnetic reference bearings.
Q-Routes:
Found on high-altitude charts.
T-Routes:
Low altitude RNAV routes for transitions around busy terminal airspace.
Supplement existing ATS routes or replace them when NAVAIDs are decommissioned.
93
What are Q-routes
high altitude RNAV
94
What are T routes
Low altitude RNAV
95
Colored airways
Red, green, amber, or blue
followed by number
used in coastal NC and Alaska
are based on low/medium frequency NAVAIDS
96
Airway dimensions
8NM wide
4 NM on each side of centerline
97
Obstacle clearance within airways
1,000 feet in non-mountainous areas.
2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas.
98
Low VOR used for what airway
Victor
99
High VOR used for what airway
Victor and Jet
100
Terminal VOR used where
on or near airports
for instrument approaches
101
What is SSV
Standard Service Volume
102
Standard Service Volume (SSV)
Defines the usable range for VORs when not flying on a published airway.
Published routes may extend beyond the SSV after flight checks by the FAA.
103
Reception of VOR Signals:
If at least 1,000 ft above a VOR and terrain is unobstructed, you should receive signals at least 40 NM away.
Identifying stations is crucial to avoid confusion due to frequency reuse.
104
VOR Receiver Interference
Possible to receive two stations on the same frequency at high altitudes or distances.
Recognizable by aural squeal and oscillating indicators.
105
When are VOR receiver checks required
Every 30 days for IFR flight
106
Methods of checking VOR receivers
VOR TEST Facility (VOT)
Designated Surface checkpoint
Designated Airborne Checkpoint
Dual VOR receiver check
Radio repair station Signal
Homemade airbone checkpoint
107
How to record VOR check
Record the check in aircraft logs with:
Place.
Amount of bearing error.
Date.
Signature.
Use acronym PADS (Place, Amount, Date, Signature).
108
Approach Fix 5 Ts
1. Time
2. Turn
3. Twist
4. Throttle
5. Talk
109
VOR Approach: Intercepting the Outbound Course
Use a 30° or 45° intercept angle; 45° is preferred for a quicker intercept.
Wait until the CDI is halfway between full deflection and center before turning to intercept the outbound course.
Maintain heading and use bracketing to stay on course:
Avoid chasing the NAV needle; use estimated wind correction.
Change headings in increments (close to the station, no more than 10°).
Adjust heading based on CDI deflection and needle movement.
110
Types of radio waves
Ground Wave
Sky Wave
Space Wave
111
Ground wave used for
Navigation
Travel reliably and along the same route
Are not impacted too much by outside factors
112
Ground wave frequency (general)
Lower - travel farther
100-1000kHz
113
Sky wave function
Good for long distances as they are bent by ionosphere and sent back to earth and received far away
used by High frequency (HF) radios
114
Are sky waves used for navigation
No
pathway of the signal is highly variable
115
Space wave function
Most navigation systems operate with signals using space waves
116
Space wave errors
Can be reflected off hard objects
Site and terrain error
Propeller/rotor modulation error in VOR
Instrument Landing System (ILS) course distortion
Reason for ILS critical areas
117
What is LORAN
Long Range Navigation
118
Static is an indication of
interference
119
What is precipitation static
an electrical charge that accumulates on an aircraft's surface, caused by high-speed friction with rain, snow, ice particles, or dust
120
Problems caused by precipitation static
Loss of VHF comms
Erroneous magnetic compass readings
One wing low while on autopilot
High pitched radio squeal
Motorboat sound on audio
Loss of avionics
Inoperative very low frequency (VLF) navigation
Erratic instrument readouts
Weak transmissions and poor radio reception
St elmos fire
121
How is precipitation static mitigated
Static discharge wicks on trailing edges
122
Traditional Navigation systems (4)
NDB (ADF)
VOR
DME
RNAV
123
NDB stands for
NonDirection Radio beacon
124
How does NDB work in general
ADF with an NDB determines bearing of aircraft to transmitting station
ADF points to NDB (always points to station)
125
What does VOR stand for
Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range
126
VOR ground station is oriented to
Magnetic north
127
Other than navigation, VOR can provide
Voice transmissions for communication and relay of weather and other info
128
VOR range
typically at least 40 miles at normal minimum IFR altitudes
129
Types of VOR
VOR
VOR/DME
VORTAC
130
VOR airborne equipment
Antenna
Receiver
Indicator instrument (OBS, CDI)
To/From indicator
Flags/Signal strength
HSI
131
What does OBS stand for
Omnibearing selector (OBS)
132
What to do with OBS (VOR operation)
Desired course is selected by turning the omnibearing selector until the CDI is center or course is aligned with course index mark
133
What does CDI stand for
Course Deviation Indicator
134
CDI function
Composed of instrument face and hinged needle
Centers when aircraft is on selected radial or reciprocal
Full deflection indicates a deviation of 12* or greater
Outer edge of center is 2* off course
Each additional dot is an addition 2*
135
VOR function
Does not account for heading, only direction from the station
Same indication regardless of where nose is pointing
Tune VOR receiver, ID, Rotate OBS to center and read course under or over the index
CDI deviates from side to side as station is passed - cone of confusion
Reverse sensing - aircraft is using the reciprocal radial - needle deflection will be in opposite direction
136
What is reverse sensing
aircraft is using the reciprocal radial - needle deflection will be in opposite direction (VOR)
137
Describe the process for course interception (VOR)
Orient aircrafts position with respect to VOR station and course to be flown
Establish an intercept heading
Determine difference between radial to be intercepted and radial the aircraft is on
Double the distance to determine the interception angle (will not be less than 20 or more than 90*)
Rotate OBS to desired radial or inbound course
Turn to interception healing
Hold heading until CDI is center - lead to prevent overshoot
Turn to MH corresponding to selected course and track
138
VOR errors
No ID
Turning wrong direction
Reverse sensing
Overshooting/undershooting
Overcontrolling
Misinterpretation of station passage
Chasing CDI
139
VOR accuracy
Course alignment accuracy is generally plus or minus 1*
Certain propeller RPM settings can cause CDI to fluctuate plus or minus 6*
140
VOR Test facility
Where VOT is located
Tune to 108.0
CDI should be center at 0* and read FROM
Or 180* and TO
141
VOR Checkpoint
Airborne and ground checkpoints of certified radials
Published in A/FD
No IFR flight attempted if
Error of +- 4* for ground check
Error of +- 6* airborne check
Only correction card figures supplied by manufacturer may be used
Maximum permissible variation between dual VOR systems is 4*
142
What does DME measure
Measures elapsed time between signal sent by aircraft and reception of reply pulses from radio station. Time measurement is converted into distance in NM
143
Function of DME in IFR
Some Instrument Approach Procedures (IAPs) incorporate DME
144
DME errors
DME signals are line of sight
Slant range error - straight line from plane to station
145
RNAV stands for
Area Navigation
146
RNAV includes (4)
VOR/DME
LORAN
GPS
INS
147
What does RNAV provide pilot
position, track, GS
148
VOR/DME RNAV function
Use VORTAC or VOR/DME to create a WP
Locate a WP wherever convenient
As long as aircraft is in range
Series of waypoints may make up an RNAV route
Vertical navigation is provided in VNAV mode
This vertical guidance info is not part of the nonprevision approach
149
How does GPS Function
Receiver tracks multiple satellites and determines a measurement that is used to determine the user location
Aircraft receiver can accurately measure the time each signal takes to arrive at the receiver
150
Ground element of GPS
ground based GPS monitoring and control stations that ensure the accuracy of satellite positions and their clocks
5 stations, three ground antennas, and a master control station
151
GPS must meet what standards for use in IFR
TSO C-129;
meet airworthiness installation requirements;
be approved for that type of IFR operation;
and be operated in accordance with the POH
152
What is the mask angle
Lowest angle above the horizon at which the receiver can use a satellite
153
How many satellites must the GPS receiver use
4
154
What is RAIM
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
155
What does RAIM do
Receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of signals through receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted info
Assure accuracy of GPS location
156
RAIM needs a minimum of ___ satellites in view
5
or
4 and a barometric altimeter
157
How many satellites must be used to isolate a corrupt satellite signal
6
158
What are the 2 types of RAIM messages
Not enough satellites available to provide RAIM
RAIM has detected a potential error that exceeds the limit for the current phase of flight
159
When using GPS for IFR domestic en route, terminal operationss and certain IAPs what requirement is there?
Must be equipped with an approved and operation alternate means of navigation (VOR)
160
What to do with GPS for preflight IFR
Preflight, ensure GPS is properly installed and certified with current database for the type of operation
Be familiar with GPS equipment, receiver manual, POH/supplement
Check NOTAMS relating to IFR flight when using GPS as supplemental method of navigation
161
What is IAWP
Initial Approach Waypoint
162
When should approach mode be "armed" on the GPS so receiver changes to terminal sensitivity
30NM
163
Do not descend to MDA if approach mode does not become active by __ NM prior to FAWP
2 NM
164
Activating missed approach changes sensitivity to ____ (___ NM)
terminal
+-1NM
165
Approach mode sensitivity
+-0.3NM
166
Do not begin missed turn prior to
Missed approach waypoint (MAWP)
167
Common causes of GPS errors
Fewer than 24 operational satellites
Loss of signal in valleys
GPS antenna shadowing (Banking of airplane)
Interference from receivers, mobile radios, and portable receivers (may have to turn off)
168
Where to check satellite status
Coast Guard Navigation Info service
NOTAM system
169
What is WAAS
Wide Area Augmentation System
170
Purpose of WAAS
Improve accuracy, integrity, and availability of GPS signals
Provides vertical guidance - electronic glidepath (Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV) includes LNAV/VNAV)
Allows GPS to be used as aviation navigation system from takeoff through Category I precision approaches.
171
WAAS function
Reference stations are linked to the WAAS network
GPS satellites are monitored by the stations to determine satellite clock and ephemeris corrections
Each station relays to a master station where correction info is made and broadcast to WAAS receivers
Provides an additional satellite in view
172
What is LAAS
Local Area Augmentation System
173
Purpose of LAAS
Enables Category I level and above for equipped aircraft
174
How does LAAS work
Ground based augmentation
Uses GPS reference facility in or near airport
Measures GPS satellite pseudo range and timing and retransmits signal
175
What is INS
Inertial Navigation System
176
Purpose of INS
Navigates precisely without any input from outside of the aircraft
177
How does INS work
Initialized by pilot - enters exact location of aircraft on ground before flight
Programmed with WPs
Accelerometer - measures acceleration
Acceleration when integrated with time gives velocity
Gyros to measure direction
178
INS error
Degredation of position with time
INS computes position starting with accurate position input that then gets changes continuously
Accelerometers and gyros are subject to small errors that accumulate
179
What are IAPs
Instrument Approach Procedures
180
Common Instrument approach systems
Instrument Landing System (ILS)
Simplified Directional Facility (SDF)
Localizer-type directional aid (LDA)
Microwave landing system (MLS)
181
Components of ILS
Localizer, Glideslope, Marker beacons, Approach light system
182
What does ILS do
Provides course and altitude guidance to a specific runway
Used to execute precision instrument approach procedure or precision approach
183
LOC
Localizer
184
What does the localizer do
providing horizontal guidance along the extended centerline of runway
Radiates a field pattern which develops a course down centerline of runway toward the middle markers (MMs) and outer markers (OMs) and a similar course in the opposite direction (front and back courses)
185
Using localizer, with no more than ___ scale deflection, the aircraft with be aligned with the runway
one-quarter
186
Localizer components
Ground antenna array on the extended centerline at the departure end
187
Course guidance distance and altitude from localizer
18NM from antenna
To altitude of 4500 feet above elevation of antenna
188
What is the Glideslope
GS
vertical guidance toward the runway point
189
What is the FAF
Final approach fix
he specific, charted point where an aircraft begins the final descent to an airport during an instrument approach (IFR).
190
Glidepath
straight, sloped line the aircraft should fly where the GS intersects the altitude used for approaching the FAF to the runway touchdown zone
191
Glideslope equipment and location
Equipment is in a building approx 750-1250 feet from approach end and between 400-600 feet from centerline
192
Connection between glideslope and localizer
Course projected is similar to localizer but flipped on its side
193
GS projection angle insects the MM at about ___ feet and OM about ___ above runway elevation
200
1400
194
For obstruction clearance, the equipment may be housed ______ or GS angle is increased to up to ___* (up from the typical __*)
further from approach end
4* up from 3*
195
Glideslope transmits only on
the front course
196
Describe the glideslope shape and thickness
1.5 degrees thick
large area 10NM out
narrows to a few feet at touchdown
197
What do the marker beacons do in general
Provide range information along the approach path
198
What is the OM?
Outer Marker
199
Where is OM located
Located on localizer front course 4-7 miles from airport
200
what does OM indicate
Indicates the position at which an aircraft on the appropriate altitude on the localizer course, will intercept the glidpath
201
What is the MM
Middle Marker
202
Where is the MM located
Located approximately 3500 feet from landing threshold
203
Description of MM
where GS centerline is about 200 feet above the touchdown zone elevation
204
What is the IM
Inner marker
a third beacon used where Category II operations are certified
205
Where is IM located
On the front course between MM and landing threshold
206
What does IM indicate
Indicates the point where the aircraft is at the decision height on the glidepath during cat II ILS approach
207
What is ALS
Approach light system
208
ALS purpose
Approach lights assist in transition from instrument to visual flight
209
What are the REIL
Runway end identifier lights
210
How to identify the REIL
Are a pair of synchronized flashing lights placed on each side of the runway threshold facing the approach area.
211
Category I approach
provide for approach height above touchdown of not less than 200 feet
212
Category II approach
provide for approach to a height above touchdown of not less than 100 feet
Pilot certification required
213
Category III approach
provide lower minimums without a decision height minimums
Pilot certification required
214
ILS Airborne components
Receivers for localizer, GS, marker beacons, ADF, DME, and respective indicator instruments
215
Localizer indicator: Horiztonal and vertical bars give what
Horizontal - GS
Vertical - localizer course
216
How is OM identified (airborne equipment)
low pitched down, continuous dashes (2 per second)
purple/blue marker beacon light
217
How is MM identified (airborne equipmet)
intermediate tone, alternate dots and dashes (95 dot/dash combination per minute)
amber marker light
218
How is IM identified (airborne equipment)
high pitched tone with two dots at rate of 72-75 two dot combinations per minute.
White marker beacon light
219
ILS errors
Signals are subject to bouncing off hard objects
(Surface vehicles and other aircraft)
False courses may be produced at high vertical angles
Pilot would notice gyrations of the GS needle and warning flag
Not encountered if on the appropriate altitude
220
SDF stands for
Simplified Directional Facility
221
SDF provides:
final approach course (similar to ILS localizer)
May or may not be aligned with runway
222
Describe SDF course
Course may be wider than ILS localizer
Usable off-course indications are <35*
Course width: 6 or 12*
223
SDF signal location
extends from center of SDF antenna system to 18NM out
10* either side of centerline
7* above horizontal
224
SDF ID
No I (two dots) in the identifier like in the localizer. 3 letter ID instead
225
LDA stands for
Localizer Type Directional Aid
226
LDA function
Comparable utility and accuracy to localizer
Not a complete ILS
227
Describe LDA course
course is not aligned with the runway
Course width is between 3-6*
More precise than SDF
Straight in course may be published if angle between runway centerline and LDA is <30*
Circling minimums published if >30*
228
LDA ID
3 letters preceded by “I”
229
What does MLS stand for
Microwave Landing System
230
What does MLS provide
Provides precision navigation guidance for exact alignment and descent of aircraft on approach to a runway
Provides azimuth, elevation, and distance
231
MLS ID
4 letter ID beginning with M
232
Approach Azimuth dimensions (MLS)
Azimuth coverage extends at least 40* on either side of runway centerline
Coverage extends in elevation to an angle of 15* and at least to 20,000 feet and range to at least 20N
233
No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless
that person has filed an IFR flight plan
234
How to file IFR flight plan
May be submitted to nearest FSS or ATCT
In person, by telephone, or computer
In flight if necessary
235
How to file IFR flight plan in flight
May file in the air if a flight is entering IFR conditions in controlled airspace or a VFR flight is expecting IFR weather en route in controlled airspace
File with FSS or ARTCC
Submit same info as preflight except point of departure
Include present position and altitude
236
How and when to cancel IFR flight plan
May be cancelled when in VFR outside Class A
“Cancel my IFR flight plan": to controller or air to ground station
IFR flight plan to an airport with an operating control tower is cancelled automatically upon landing
If no tower - call after landing or contact FSS in air if possible
237
What is a "Cruise" Clearance
pilot is authorized to fly at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude said to cruise at
Climb or descent within the block at pilots discretion
If report of leaving an altitude, do not return without further clearance
238
Tolerance for speed when ATC requests speed adjustment
Comply with the speed +- 10kts
Advise if unable to comply
239
What are DPs
Departure Procedures
240
Instrument Departure Procedures
preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearance and provide the pilot with a way to depart the airport to the en route structure
241
What is required to be in posession to use a DP
at least the possession of the textual description of the DP
242
If no preprinted DP or pilot does not wish to use a DP
advise ATC (“No DP” in flight plan remarks or advise ATC)
243
Two types of DPs
Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP)
Standard Instrument Departures (SID)
244
ODP stands for
Obstacle Departure Procedures
245
SID stands for
Standard Instrument Departures
246
Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP)
Provide obstruction clearance via least difficult route from terminal area to en route structure
Recommended for obstruction clearance
247
How are graphic ODPs labelled
"OBSTACLE" printed in title
248
Is ATC clearance required for ODP
No
Unless an alternate DP has been assigned by ATC
249
Standard Instrument Departures (SID)
Provide obstruction clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure
Primarily designed for system enhancement and to reduce pilot/controller workload
250
Is ATC clearance required for SID
Yes
251
Where are SIDs found
section C of each booklet published by AeroNav
252
What are Radar Controlled Departures
Navigational guidance from departure control by radar vector in congested areas
Pilot is advised of vector before takeoff
Departure verifies radar contact, gives headings, altitude, and climb instructions to get plane out of terminal area
253
How to depart Airports without an operating Control Tower
Telephone flight plan to nearest ATC facility at least 30 minutes before EDT
If weather permits, depart VFR and request IFR clearance when radio contact is established
254
What to do when you encounter unforecast weather
Pilots required to report unforecast weather conditions to ATC
255
STARs stands for
Standard Terminal Arrival Routes
256
Function of STARs
Serves a purpose parallel to a DP for departing traffic
All STARs are contained in the Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP), along with IAP charts
257
Standard holding pattern
Right turns
Aircraft follows specified course inbound to the holding fix, turns 180* to right, flies parallel course outbound for 1 minute, turns 180* right, and flies inbound course to the fix
258
Entry into holding pattern: when to slow down?
Start reducing speed 3 minutes or less from holding fix
259
What is MHA
Maximum holding Airspeed
260
What airspeed to consider when crossing holding fix
Maximum holding airspeed (MHA)
Cross the fix at or below MHA
261
MHA up to 6000' MSL
200 KIAS
262
MHA 6001-14000' MSL
230 KIAS
263
MHA 14,001' MSL and above
265 KIAS
264
What is a radar approach
Pilot receives course and altitude guidance from controller
Only requires a functioning radio transmitter and receiver
Controller vectors aircraft to align it with runway centerline until pilot can complete the approach with visual reference
265
Two types of radar approaches
Precision (PAR)
Surveillance (ASR)
266
What does a precision (PAR) radar approach provide
navigational guidance in azimuth and elevation to a pilot until DH
267
What does a Surveillance radar approach provide
navigational guidance in azimuth only to MDA
268
IAP Minimums
Do not operate an aircraft at any airport below MDA or continue an approach below DA/DH until
Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing can be made at normal descent rate using normal maneuvers
Flight visibility is not less than prescribed for the approach procedure
At least one of the visual references for the intended runway is visible
269
When to immediately execute MAP
When requirements for operating below DA/DH or MDA are not met when aircraft is below MDA, or upon arrival at MAP and any time after that until touchdown
Whenever identifiable part of the airport is not visible during a circling maneuver at or above MDA
When directed by ATC
270
When is it not permiited to land while using an IAP
No pilot may land when flight visibility is less than visibility prescribed in IAP
271
What to do when encountering structural icing
Descend below cloud bases
Climb above cloud tops
Turn to different course
If not possible, move to altitude where temp is above freezing
Reports icing conditions to ATC and requests new routing/altitude
272
What to think about when fox is a considertation (preflight)
plan adequate fuel reserves and alternate landing sites
273
Conditions that lead to fog (two)
Air is cooled to saturation
Sufficient moisture is added to air until saturation occurs
274
Temperature/Dewpoint spread when fog can form
5* C or less
275
VFR on top vs VFR over the top
On top is an IFR clearance that allows the pilot to fly VFR altitudes
Over the top is a VFR operation where pilot must maintain VFR cloud clearance requirements while operating on top of an undercast layer
276
An inverse "T" on FAA approach charts indicates
The airport has a published ODP and/or non-standard takeoff minimums.
277
Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle considerations for part 91
Takeoff minimums do not apply to Part 91, non-commercial flights, but it's wise to follow them.
Obstacles are present regardless of operating rules; minimums provide safety margins.
278
Standard takeoff minimums for commercial operations:
1 statute mile visibility for airplanes with 1 or 2 engines.
1/2 statute mile visibility for airplanes with 3 or more engines
279
Obstacle clearance procedures standard criteria
Climb at least 200ft/NM
Climb to 400 feet above runway elevation before turning unless specified otherwise
280
Green dashes around a terminal area indicate
IFR area chart is available
281
How to find required rate of climb
Ground speed/60 = miles/minute
Feet/mile x miles per minute = feet/minute
minimum climb listed in chart
282
Reverse "A" indicates
alternate airport requirements
283
In ATIS, if ceiling or visibility is omitted it implies:
ceiling above 5,000 feet and visibility more than 5 mile
284
Who requests the VFR on top clearance
pilot must
285
Where can a pilot find the Rate of Climb Table chart to help convert the required ground speed and climb gradient into a safe rate of climb?
Terminal Procedures Publication or the Digital Terminal Procedures Supplement.
286
When it is time to descend at your destination, you should expect a normal descent gradient of:
250 – 350 feet per NM.
287
Which type of approach must be requested by the pilot
Contact approach
288
What is a contact approach
IFR procedure initiated by a pilot (never ATC) allowing an aircraft to proceed to a destination airport, deviating from authorized instrument procedures, by maintaining at least 1 statute mile flight visibility and remaining clear of clouds
requires an operational instrument approach
289
Low altitude Victor Airways start at 1,200 ft. AGL and go up to:
17999 ft MSL
290
A MOCA, Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude:
Guarantees VOR signal reception within 22 miles of the station.
and obstacle clearance
291
Where can you find textual Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP) for an airport?
Along with the Takeoff Minimums for the airport.
292
What are the minimum weather requirements to fly a contact approach?
1 SM and clear of clouds.
293
Three types of instrument approaches
1. Precision
2. Non precision
3. Approaches with vertical guidance
294
What are the six instrument approach chart sections
1. Margin Identifier
2. Briefing strip
3. Plan View
4. Profile
5. Airport Sketch
6. Landing minimums
295
What is the margin identifier (Instrument approach chart)
Located at the top margin of the chart.
Lists city and state, procedure name, runway number, and airport name.
Indicates if the procedure is a straight-in approach or requires circling, designated by letters:
Straight-in approaches to the same runway are labeled with letters starting from the end of the alphabet.
Circling approaches are labeled with letters starting from the beginning of the alphabet.
296
What is the briefing strip (Instrument approach chart)
Top section contains primary navigation information:
Final approach course.
Airport and runway elevations in MSL.
Middle section includes:
Procedure notes providing guidance on adjustments due to environmental factors or
inoperative ground components.
Approach lighting information, if available.
Textual description of the missed approach procedure.
297
After crossing the IAF with "NoPT,"
Proceed direct to FAF
298
4 Scenarios to not perform procedure turn
1. NoPT (on chart)
2. Procedure Turn NA (on chart)
3. ATC vector to final
4. Time approach from hold
299
2 requirements for flying GPS approaches
1. GPS receiver database must be current
2. Minimum options on approach charts (LNAV vs LP etc) (bottom of chart)
300
Types of GPS approaches (5)
1. LNAV
2. LPV
3. LP
4. .LNAV/VNAV
5. Advisory Vertical Guidance (+V)
301
LNAV approach
Provides lateral guidance only.
Uses step-down fixes to descend to Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA).
Missed approach point identified by a waypoint at end of final approach course.
302
LPV approach
Most precise GPS approach available.
Requires a WAAS-capable GPS receiver
Provides both lateral and vertical guidance down to a Decision Altitude (DA).
Lateral course is angular and narrows as you approach the runway, similar to a localizer.
If runway is not in sight at DA, initiate missed approach immediately.
303
LP Approach
Requires a WAAS-capable GPS receiver.
Provides precise lateral guidance with step-down fixes for descent.
Terminates at an MDA, like an LNAV approach.
Typically offers lower minimums compared to LNAV due to narrower final approach course.
304
LNAV/VNAV Approach
Designed initially for aircraft with sophisticated Flight Management Systems (FMS).
Provides lateral and vertical guidance.
WAAS-capable GPS receivers can fly these, but will often select LPV if available.
305
Advisory Vertical Guidance (+V)
Available when flying LNAV or LP approaches with a WAAS-capable GPS receiver.
Provides an electronic glidepath for stabilized descent.
Advisory only; does not change approach minima.
Indicated as "LNAV+V" or "LP+V" on the GPS display.
306
At Decision Altitude (DA) or Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA):
If runway environment is in sight and conditions allow, proceed to land.
If not, initiate missed approach procedures promptly.
307
VDP stands for
Visual Descent point
308
What is the Visual Descent Point (VDP)
non-mandatory point on a straight-in, non-precision approach (marked by a "V" on charts) from which a normal, stabilized visual descent from the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) to the runway touchdown can begin. It helps avoid steep, unstable descents.
309
A gray shaded line from MDA to runway indicates (in profile view)
A clear visual segment
If not grey line, the visual segment may have obstructions
310
Circling approaches are used when:
The approach does not meet runway alignment criteria.
A landing is required on a runway other than the one aligned with the final approach course.
311
The angle between the final approach course and the extended centerline of the runway cannot exceed:
30 degrees for most approaches.
15 degrees for GPS approaches.
312
A "circling only" approach is designated when:
The approach is not aligned within the acceptable angle.
The straight-in approach would require an excessive descent rate.
313
If an identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly visible while circling at or above MDA:
A missed approach must be executed.
Exception: momentary loss of sight due to normal bank during turning flight.
314
What does OCS stand for
Obstacle Clearance Surface
315
What is Obstacle Clearance Surface
An imaginary line drawn at the highest obstacle within a defined area.
No obstacles can penetrate the OCS.
316
What does ROC stand for
Required Obstacle Clearance
317
What is the Required Obstacle Clearance
The minimum vertical separation between the aircraft flying an approach and the OCS.
Can be constant, as in a level segment, or sloping, as when an aircraft descends on a glideslope.
318
Upon reaching minimums, if you see approach lights you may descend to:
100 feet above touchdown zone elevation
319
Fuel Requirements Considering Weather Reports and Forecasts: (IFR)
Must have enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing.
Fly from that airport to the alternate airport.
Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
320
Conditions When an Alternate is Not Required (IFR)
Destination ceiling of at least 2,000 feet and visibility of at least three miles.
Conditions must exist for at least one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival.
The airport must have an instrument approach procedure.
321
To be used as an alternate when filing an IFR flight plan, the airport must have a forecast of conditions:
equal to or better than the alternate minimums at the planned arrival time.
322
Basic Alternate Minimums when None are Specified (For airports with a precision approach):
Ceiling of 600 feet and visibility of two statute miles.
323
Basic Alternate Minimums when None are Specified non-precision approach:
Ceiling of 800 feet and visibility of two statute miles.
324
Basic Alternate Minimums when None are Specified (Airports with no instrument approach):
Can be used if conditions allow for VFR apporach from MEA
325
What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?
The SDF does not have a glideslope and the course may not be aligned with the runway.
326
A typical localizer has a width of __________ for a full scale CDI deflection.
5 degrees.
327
If an airplane is on the shaded side of the localizer centerline:
The CDI will always point to the left.
328
The part of the glideslope that intersects the localizer is called:
The Glidepath.
329
If, in the profile view of your approach plate, you see a mandatory altitude preceded by a dagger symbol:
Know that ATC can amend this mandatory altitude.
330
Timed approaches from a holding fix can be made:
Only if the airport has a control tower.
331
The end of the inbound leg of a holding pattern is:
A holding fix.
332
What are the two types of waypoints commonly found on GPS approach procedures?
Fly-by and Fly-over.
333
You don’t need to select an alternate airport when flying IFR if the destination airport has an instrument procedure and weather is forecast to be one hour before to one hour after the ETA:
2,000 foot or greater ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility.
334
What is meant by "bracketing" when flying the final leg of an instrument approach?
Splitting the difference between the heading that took you off course and a heading that brings you back on course.
335
How does flying a back course with an HSI differ from a traditional CDI?
With an HSI, you can set the front course and make the corrections towards the needle like a normal navigation source.
336
Why may an airport have charted visual approach procedures?
For environmental/noise abatement considerations.
337
What is a good descent rate that works for most general aviation airplanes when descending from the final approach fix to the MDA?
800 feet per minute.
338
How should pilots use the hold-in-lieu-of-procedure turn when it's required to be flown?
Pilots should fly the entry to the hold and proceed inbound on the final approach course
339
What is the distinguishing feature of the TAA approach compared to traditional RNAV approaches?
Depiction of operationally usable altitudes in multiple sectors
340
What should pilots do if they are unsure about making a straight-in approach on RNAV TAA approach?
Confirm with ATC
341
How often are IFR charts updated?
Every 28 days
342
What is the purpose of a hold-in-lieu-of procedure turn?
The entry procedure for the depicted holding pattern is used for a course reversal when beginning the approach
343
What does the gray shaded symbol in the profile view of a precision approach chart represent?
The glide slope of the ILS
344
On an ILS approach, if the glideslope becomes inoperative, the approach becomes a ____ approach
localizer
345
Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?
Squall line
346
When are Aviation Watch Notification Messages (SAW) issued?
Unscheduled and issued as required.
The SPC issues a SAW to provide an area threat alert for the aviation meteorology community to forecast organized severe thunderstorms that may produce tornadoes, large hail, and/or Convective damaging winds
347
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?
Power only.
To maintain the glide slope when the airspeed is too high, the pilot adjusts the power initially.
348
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
Conditions favorable for radiation fog are a clear sky, little or no wind, and a small temperature-dew point spread (high relative humidity).
349
You are flying IMC and descend into VMC while making an ILS approach. In order to log the approach toward instrument currency requirements, you must:
Use a view-limiting device.
350
During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved non-WAAS GPS system for navigation, ground-based navigational facilities
must be operational along the entire route.
Aircraft using non-WAAS GPS navigation equipment approved in accordance with TSO-C129 under IFR must be equipped with an approved and operational alternate means of navigation appropriate to the flight.
351
What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?
1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.
352
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is:
a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.
PRM is a radar system to monitor approaches to closely spaced parallel runways whose extended center lines are separated by less than 4,300'.
353
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification
354
To enter a constant airspeed descent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should
simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.
355
Only place to get cloud top info
Graphical Forecast For Aviation
(important for smooth and ice)
356
CIP and FIP stand for
Current Icing Product
Forecast Icing Product
357
What do CIP and FIP provide
Determine probability and severity of icing aloft
Forecast available out to 18 hours for various altitudes
358
Convective sigments are valid for _____
up to 2 hours
359
What are Convective forecast
longer range forecast for potential TS
360
Convective forecast is valid to
8 hours
extend version valid out to 78 hours
361
Graphical turbulence forecast shows
clear air turbulence and mountain wave turbulence
362
Graphical turbulence forecast location and valid length
surface - FL450
18 hours
363
The big picture for weather
compare synopsis with actual reports and forecasts
look for areas with a big moisture supply and unstable conditions
Occluded front typically include all the weather hazards
364
If the wind is stronger and more southerly,
The weatehr ahead will likely be worse than forecast
365
If the actual winds aloft are substantially different from forecast,
other forecasts are suspect
366
for each 11 C rise in temperature, the ability for the air to hold moisture is
doubled
367
If the temperature is warmer than forecast,
expect worse weather (warm air can hold more moisture)
368
A "supercooled" water droplet is one that,
Has been lifted from an above freezing temperature to a below freezing temperature and remains liquid until disturbed
369
Icing is most likely in (conditions)
visible moisture when the temperature is between 2 and -10C
370
Conditions condusive to clear icing
Temps close to freezing point with large amounts of water
high aircraft velocities
large droplets
371
Clear icing typically found in
supercooled water droplets in cumulus clouds
very unstable air
strong lifting over mountains
372
Rime ice formation conditions
low temperatures
less liquid water
low velocitis
373
Rime typically found in
small supercooled water droplets
stable air
stratus clouds
374
Are anti and de-icing systems approved for flight in freezing rain
no
375
What is freezing rain
Rain that falls from warm air above to cool air below
376
Where does freezing rain occur
north of warm front
Warm rain falls into cooler air
377
Trace Icing
ice is just perceptible
rate of accumulation is slightly greater than rate of sublimation
Deicing/antiicing only used if encountered for more than an hour
378
Ice as thick and rough as medium sandpaper can reduce lift by ___ and increase drag by ___
30%
40%
379
Embedded TS are usually found
in warm or stationary frontal zones
380
Updraft speed in cumulus stage of TS
May exceed 3000 FPM
381
Updraft speed in mature stage of TS
may exceed 6000fpm
382
2 Types of TS
Air mass and Frontal
383
Air mass TS is caused by
surface heating or air flowing over mountains.
384
Frontal TS
Associated with low-pressure systems and fronts.
Can form squall lines, clusters, or be embedded in other clouds.
385
Squall line
a narrow, organized line of active thunderstorms, often hundreds of miles long but only 10-20 miles wide, that forms along or ahead of a cold front.
They often form a "bow echo," a bowing segment on radar indicating intense, damaging straight-line winds.
386
Causes of windshear (3)
Frontal activity
Temperature Inversions
TS
387
When is wind shear expected in a temperature inversion
Wind shear expected when wind speed between 2,000 and 4,000 feet AGL is 25 knots or more.
388
Definition of a microburst
A localized column of sinking air within a thunderstorm.
Causes a downdraft followed by a strong horizontal outflow when it reaches the ground.
389
Characteristics of a microburst
Downdrafts can exceed 6,000 feet per minute.
Horizontal wind speeds can be 45 knots or more.
Microburst outflow diameter typically 2-3 miles near the ground.
Duration usually less than 15 minutes.
390
Microburst "sucker punch"
Initial increased headwind leads to performance increase (sucker punch).
Followed by strong downdraft and tailwind, causing significant performance decrease.
391
Warning signs of microbursts
Presence of convective activity, thunderstorms, heavy rain, or virga.
Surface temperature-dew point spread of 15 to 30 degrees Celsius.
Pilot reports of significant indicated airspeed changes (15 knots or more).
392
Things to consider when looking at radar (weather)
Shape
Intensity
Gradient
Height
393
Fog Indicators
Temperature and dew point proximity indicate potential fog formation.
Visual signs include halos around lights and fog collecting in low-lying areas.
394
In the northern hemisphere, with back to wind, low pressure is to
the left
395
Moderate Turbulence
Definite strains against seat belts.
396
The aircraft is skidding when the ball rolls toward the ___ of the turn
outside
397
The aircraft is slipping when the ball rolls toward the ___ of the turn
inside
398
On a dual VOR system, the tails of the needle point
to the radial you are on
399
On a dual VOR system the arrows of the needles point
to the station
400
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator display
First, the rate of banking
Once stabilized, the turn rate
401
For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than
200 NM.
The standard high altitude service volume between 14,500' and 18,000' is 100 NM. Therefore, between two "H" VORTACs the useful range is 200 NM.
402
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