Integumentary Flashcards

Question

What is **hereditary congenital follicular parakeratosis**?

Answer 1

A syndrome affecting female Rottweilers and Siberian Huskies ## Footnote It is associated with severe keratinization defects.

Answer 2

* Abnormal epithelial proliferation * Accumulation of scale and hyperkeratosis ## Footnote Cases have been described in cattle and dogs, with varying severity.

Answer 3

A hereditary condition in Labrador Retrievers characterized by thick keratinized material on the nasal planum ## Footnote It is associated with a gene mutation in suv39h2.

Answer 4

Affects young English Springer Spaniels with erythematous lesions ## Footnote It is presumed to be genetic and can become severe if untreated.

Answer 5

* foxI3 gene variation in hairless dog breeds * mlph gene variant in color dilution alopecia ## Footnote These genetic variations are linked to specific hereditary conditions in animals.

Answer 6

No effective treatment exists ## Footnote Pityriasis rosea is a familial disease with an unknown mode of inheritance.

Answer 7

Autosomal recessive ## Footnote This hereditary disorder must be differentiated from pityriasis rosea.

Answer 8

* Macules and papules * Scaly lesions * Brown-black crusts * Coronitis and hoof deformity ## Footnote Affected piglets may fail to thrive and develop pneumonia.

Answer 9

* Supportive care * Soaking * Keratolytic and emollient treatments * Treatment of bacterial pyoderma ## Footnote No reports are available for synthetic retinoids for this disorder.

Answer 10

* Hepatocutaneous syndrome * Keratinization disorders * Pemphigus ## Footnote Familial footpad hyperkeratosis is reported in Irish Terriers and Dogues de Bordeaux.

Answer 11

An idiopathic disease that destroys sebaceous glands ## Footnote It is hereditary in Standard Poodles and suspected in other breeds.

Answer 12

* Severe seborrheic dermatosis * Alopecic dermatosis * Hyperkeratosis ## Footnote Treatment response is inconsistent and incomplete.

Answer 13

Modified cyclosporine A (5 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours, lifelong) ## Footnote Up to 16 weeks of treatment may be required to see maximum benefit.

Answer 14

A rare condition associated with pink or pale irises and visual defects ## Footnote It has been noted in several cattle breeds and Icelandic sheep.

Answer 15

Lethal white foal syndrome ## Footnote This syndrome is fatal and affects foals.

Answer 16

A syndrome in cats and cattle associated with coat color dilution and neutrophil abnormalities ## Footnote It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.

Answer 17

Usually in young adulthood ## Footnote Affected animals develop symmetrical macular depigmentation of the skin.

Answer 18

* Pigmented macules * No other clinical signs ## Footnote Lesions are first noted on the lips and eyelids.

Answer 19

A group of syndromes characterized by defects in collagen production ## Footnote Clinical signs include loose, hyperextensible, fragile skin.

Answer 20

* Fragile skin * Wounds heal with thin scars * Joint laxity ## Footnote Diagnosis is based on clinical signs and histological studies.

Answer 21

* Simplex * Junctional * Dystrophic ## Footnote These syndromes result from defects in dermal-epidermal attachment structures.

Answer 22

A mechanobullous disorder caused by a defect in cell-to-cell adhesion in the epidermis ## Footnote It has been described in a family of English Setters.

Answer 23

Not known ## Footnote This syndrome is lethal to male fetuses.

Answer 24

Partially responsive to corticosteroids ## Footnote However, corticosteroids are contraindicated due to the young age of affected dogs.

Answer 25

Not known ## Footnote The syndrome includes congenital anemia, dyskeratosis, and progressive alopecia.

Answer 26

* Footpad swelling * Depigmentation * Ulceration * Crusting of ears and tail tips * Depigmentation of nasal planum ## Footnote Symptoms develop shortly after vaccinations and may resolve as dogs mature.

Answer 27

Autosomal dominant ## Footnote The disease affects skin and muscles, with lesions appearing by age 6 months.

Answer 28

* Scaling * Crusting * Erythema * Febrile response * Lymphadenopathy ## Footnote The disease is progressive and ultimately fatal.

Answer 29

* Retarded growth * Hyperkeratotic dermatitis * Pustular dermatitis * Secondary infections ## Footnote Affected breeds include white Bull Terriers and Alaskan Malamutes.

Answer 30

* Erosions and ulcerations of footpads * Bullous lesions * Depigmentation of skin * Loss of claws ## Footnote Serum tyrosine levels are significantly elevated.

Answer 31

* Bovine protoporphyria * Bovine erythropoietic porphyria ## Footnote Both conditions involve sensitivity to ultraviolet light and other clinical signs.

Answer 32

Autosomal recessive ## Footnote The disease is fatal before adulthood and includes skin lesions like dermatitis.

Answer 33

* Mastocytosis * Melanocytosis * Cutaneous lymphosarcoma * Vascular hamartomas ## Footnote These neoplasms are often found in calves.

Answer 34

* Multiple collagenous nevi * Renal cystadenocarcinoma * Uterine leiomyoma ## Footnote The gene variant identified is **flcn**.

Answer 35

Combined oral dexamethasone and cetirizine hydrochloride ## Footnote The condition is caused by mast cell hyperplasia and is commonly reported in Sphynx cats.

Answer 36

Ringworm ## Footnote Dermatophytosis is a superficial fungal skin infection of animals.

Answer 37

* Hair loss * Scaling * Crusting * Erythema * Papules * Hyperpigmentation * Variable pruritus ## Footnote These signs can vary in combination and severity.

Answer 38

* Microsporum canis * Trichophyton mentagrophytes * T verrucosum * T erinacei * Nannizzia gypsea ## Footnote Microsporum and Trichophyton have been reclassified into the genus Arthroderma.

Answer 39

TRUE ## Footnote However, treatment can shorten the disease course and minimize contagion.

Answer 40

* Direct examination of hair and scales * Fungal culture * PCR assay ## Footnote Multiple tests are typically used to confirm infection.

Answer 41

Wood's lamp ## Footnote Infected hairs glow apple green under the Wood's lamp.

Answer 42

* Whole-body rinse (lime sulfur 1:16 or enilconazole 1:100) * Shampoo containing 2% chlorhexidine/2% miconazole ## Footnote Topical therapy disinfects the hair coat and minimizes environmental contamination.

Answer 43

* Itraconazole * Ketoconazole * Terbinafine ## Footnote Itraconazole is well tolerated in cats and effective for treatment.

Answer 44

* Mechanical removal of organic material * Washing surfaces with detergent * Using disinfectants labeled effective against Trichophyton ## Footnote Spores do not multiply in the environment and can be easily removed.

Answer 45

* Resolution of all lesions * Lack of any new lesions ## Footnote A Wood's lamp examination can be used to check for residually infected hairs.

Answer 46

zoonotic ## Footnote It can cause skin lesions in humans that are easily treated.

Answer 47

* Young age * Free-roaming or hunting activities * Warm environments ## Footnote Physiological stress and overcrowded environments also increase risk.

Answer 48

6–12 weeks ## Footnote This duration can vary based on treatment and host factors.

Answer 49

To eliminate active infection in hair follicles ## Footnote Systemic treatment is necessary alongside topical therapy.

Answer 50

Disinfects the hair coat ## Footnote This minimizes environmental contamination and reduces contagion.

Answer 51

ringworm ## Footnote Dermatophytosis is a superficial fungal skin disease affecting various animals.

Answer 52

* Trichophyton equinum * T mentagrophytes * Nannizzia gypsea * M canis * T verrucosum ## Footnote These pathogens are responsible for the fungal skin disease in horses.

Answer 53

* Crusting * Scaling * Papular eruption * Alopecia * Erythema ## Footnote The amount of inflammation varies depending on the pathogen.

Answer 54

* Direct microscopic examination * Fungal culture * Skin biopsy (in some cases) ## Footnote Diagnosis can be confirmed rapidly through these methods.

Answer 55

topical therapy ## Footnote Treatments include lime sulfur or enilconazole rinses and antifungal shampoos.

Answer 56

Wiping lesions with alcohol ## Footnote This can lead to a negative culture result.

Answer 57

Trichophyton verrucosum ## Footnote Other pathogens include T mentagrophytes and Nannizzia gypsea.

Answer 58

* Crusting * Scaling * Focal areas of hair loss * Variable pruritus ## Footnote Diagnosis is often made via fungal culture or clinical signs.

Answer 59

* Topical therapy * Lime sulfur 1:16 * Enilconazole 1:100 leave-on rinses ## Footnote Treatment should continue until lesions resolve.

Answer 60

Microsporum nanum ## Footnote Lesions in pigs typically present as papular eruptions.

Answer 61

* Trichophyton spp * Nannizzia gypsea * M canis ## Footnote Dermatophytosis is a common issue in show lambs.

Answer 62

2–3 times a week ## Footnote Topical antifungal rinses should be applied regularly.

Answer 63

TRUE ## Footnote Treatment is often used to shorten the disease course.

Answer 64

Isolate infected animals ## Footnote Tack and grooming tools should also be thoroughly cleaned.

Answer 65

A genetically predisposed inflammatory and pruritic allergic skin disease ## Footnote Characterized by IgE antibodies to environmental allergens such as pollens, mites, molds, food allergens, and certain organisms.

Answer 66

* Chronic pruritus * Typical lesion distribution * Family history of the disease * Breed predisposition ## Footnote These signs can also be seen in animals with IgE-mediated skin disease or atopic-like dermatitis (ALD).

Answer 67

A pruritic skin disease in dogs with features of AD but negative tests for IgE antibodies ## Footnote It shares similar clinical signs with atopic dermatitis.

Answer 68

* Miliary dermatitis * Self-induced alopecia * Eosinophilic granuloma complex * Head and neck pruritus ## Footnote These patterns differ from those seen in canine atopic dermatitis.

Answer 69

* Genetic predisposition * Impairment of normal barrier function of the skin * Immunologic aberrations ## Footnote These factors lead to sensitization to environmental allergens.

Answer 70

They affix to tissue mast cells or basophils, leading to mast cell degranulation and inflammation ## Footnote This results in symptoms like erythema, edema, and pruritus.

Answer 71

The skin ## Footnote Rhinitis and asthma can also occur in approximately 15% of affected animals.

Answer 72

It is an important pruritogenic cytokine that stimulates neurons and contributes to pruritus ## Footnote This knowledge has led to the development of new therapies.

Answer 73

Generally < 5 years ## Footnote Signs may be seasonal or nonseasonal.

Answer 74

* Flea allergy * Various mite infestations (e.g., Cheyletiella, Demodex) * Mosquito bite hypersensitivity * Food allergy * Autoimmune disease (e.g., pemphigus foliaceus) * Dermatophytosis * Cutaneous neoplasia ## Footnote A thorough review of the cat’s history and complete dermatologic examination are essential for diagnosis.

Answer 75

Liquid formulation, dosage of 7 mg/kg, administered PO or in food ## Footnote After 30 days, dosage can be tapered based on response.

Answer 76

FALSE ## Footnote Initial response is excellent but may decrease over time.

Answer 77

dermatitis ## Footnote Dermatitis can be caused by various agents including irritants, allergens, and infections.

Answer 78

* pruritus * scaling * erythema * lichenification * hyperpigmentation * oily seborrhea * odor * alopecia ## Footnote These manifestations can vary based on the underlying cause of dermatitis.

Answer 79

* papules * pustules * vesicles ## Footnote Primary lesions are caused by an underlying trigger or disease syndrome.

Answer 80

TRUE ## Footnote In conditions that are not inherently pruritic, pruritus may arise due to secondary infections.

Answer 81

* pruritus * alopecia * scaling and crusting * nodules or tumors * odor * otitis * erosions and ulcerations * nonhealing wounds ## Footnote These problems can be caused by various skin diseases.

Answer 82

Partial or complete lack or loss of hairs in areas where they are normally present ## Footnote Alopecia can be congenital or acquired.

Answer 83

* congenital or hereditary * acquired ## Footnote Acquired alopecia can be further divided into inflammatory and noninflammatory.

Answer 84

* bacterial skin diseases * dermatophytosis * demodicosis * severe inflammatory diseases * trauma * chemotherapy * nutritional deficiencies * endocrine disorders ## Footnote Acquired alopecia develops in animals that had normal hair follicles at one time.

Answer 85

flea allergy dermatitis ## Footnote This condition is often misdiagnosed as an endocrine disorder.

Answer 86

* focal * multifocal * symmetrical * generalized ## Footnote Inflammatory changes such as hyperpigmentation and pruritus are common.

Answer 87

* clinical examination * presence of pruritus * in-house diagnostic testing * reference laboratory testing ## Footnote A thorough history and physical examination are crucial for accurate diagnosis.

Answer 88

* skin scraping for ectoparasites * combing for fleas and mites * impression smears for infections * fungal culture for dermatophytosis * examination of plucked hairs ## Footnote These tests help identify potential causes of alopecia.

Answer 89

An unpleasant sensation within the skin that provokes the desire to scratch ## Footnote Pruritus is the most common dermatological problem in animals.

Answer 90

* parasites * infections * allergic skin diseases * miscellaneous causes ## Footnote Many nonpruritic diseases can become pruritic due to secondary infections.

Answer 91

Involves specialized afferent fibers transmitting sensations to the spinal cord and brain ## Footnote The sensation can vary from sharp to diffuse burning.

Answer 92

* careful dermatological history * clinical examination for lesions * diagnostic testing for infections * diagnostic testing for parasites ## Footnote A methodical workup is essential for accurate diagnosis.

Answer 93

* History taking * Physical examination ## Footnote Parasitic causes should be excluded as they are the most common.

Answer 94

* Demodex mites * Fleas * Ticks * Contagious mites * Lice ## Footnote These should be excluded during the examination.

Answer 95

* Skin scraping * Hair trichography ## Footnote Some mite infestations might be missed with skin scraping.

Answer 96

Ivermectin ## Footnote It should be administered with a topical product such as lime sulfur.

Answer 97

* Infectious causes ## Footnote These include bacterial infections and Malassezia overgrowth.

Answer 98

* Hair loss * Scaling * Scales piercing hairs * Odor * Greasy seborrhea ## Footnote Marked pedal pruritus and facial rubbing are also common.

Answer 99

Topical antimicrobial shampoo (2% chlorhexidine/2% miconazole) ## Footnote It can be used every 24–48 hours.

Answer 100

* Ketoconazole (dogs) * Itraconazole (cats or small dogs) ## Footnote A treatment course of at least 2–3 weeks is recommended.

Answer 101

* Insect bite hypersensitivity * Atopic dermatitis * Food allergy ## Footnote Flea allergy dermatitis is excluded based on the response to insect control.

Answer 102

Response-to-diet trial and provocative challenge ## Footnote Merely changing diet is not adequate.

Answer 103

A clinical diagnosis ## Footnote In vitro allergy testing and intradermal skin testing show only antigen exposure patterns.

Answer 104

* Topical therapy * Systemic antimicrobial therapy * Parasiticidal therapy * Systemic antipruritic therapy * Allergen-specific therapy ## Footnote Successful treatment depends on identifying the underlying cause.

Answer 105

FALSE ## Footnote Evidence-based reviews do not support their use.

Answer 106

Most effective drugs for managing pruritus ## Footnote They cannot be used safely for long-term management due to adverse effects.

Answer 107

0.5 to 1 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours for 5–10 days ## Footnote Then every 48 hours for 1 week or longer as needed.

Answer 108

Control of allergic pruritus ## Footnote Maximal benefit can take up to 30 days to be achieved.

Answer 109

A Janus kinase inhibitor for pruritus in dogs ## Footnote It provides rapid relief from pruritus and inflammation.

Answer 110

* Detailed history * Physical examination * Appropriate diagnostic tests ## Footnote Many skin diseases look alike, and diagnosis involves evaluating responses to treatment.

Answer 111

* Prior illnesses * Vaccinations * Husbandry practices * Changes in attitude and food consumption * Elimination practices * Exposure to other animals * Travel history ## Footnote This information helps interpret physical examination findings and choose appropriate diagnostic tests.

Answer 112

* Primary clinical sign * Length of time the problem has been present * Age at which skin disease started * Breed * Presence and severity of pruritus * Disease progression * Characterization of lesions * Evidence of seasonality * Area(s) first noticed * Previous treatments and responses * Frequency of bathing * Presence of fleas, ticks, or mites * Contact with contagious animals * Environmental information * Clinical signs of systemic disorders * Routine treatment with parasiticides ## Footnote A thorough history is crucial for differentiating similar-looking skin diseases.

Answer 113

* Macules or patches * Papules or plaques * Pustules * Vesicles or bullae * Wheals * Nodules or tumors ## Footnote Primary lesions are the initial manifestations of skin disease.

Answer 114

* Epidermal collarettes * Scars * Excoriation * Erosions or ulcers * Fissures * Lichenification * Calluses ## Footnote Secondary lesions often develop as a result of primary lesions or self-trauma.

Answer 115

* Determine presence of mites * Collect information from epidermis ## Footnote There are two types: superficial (no bleeding) and deep (capillary bleeding indicates depth).

Answer 116

* Collect skin debris * Trap cutaneous parasites ## Footnote Particularly useful for finding fleas, ticks, lice, and some mites.

Answer 117

* Grasp hairs with forceps * Pluck hairs in the direction of growth * Mount in mineral oil ## Footnote This method is increasingly used instead of skin scraping.

Answer 118

* Bacterial infections * Fungal infections * Neoplastic diseases ## Footnote Impression smears should be made for accurate diagnosis.

Answer 119

* Fungal culture on dermatophyte test medium or Sabouraud agar ## Footnote Plates should be incubated at room temperature and finalized at day 14.

Answer 120

* Rupture intact pustules * Swab lesion with sterile culture swab * Rotate swab 360° ## Footnote Lesions should not be cleaned before sampling.

Answer 121

* Severe clinical signs * Unusual signs * Lack of response to treatment ## Footnote Multiple samples from various lesions should be submitted for examination.

Answer 122

* Not typically helpful for definitive diagnosis * Can identify underlying subclinical diseases if systemic signs are present ## Footnote Useful in cases of recurrent infections.

Answer 123

* Diagnose atopic dermatitis * Assess past exposure to allergens ## Footnote Recommended when severity or duration of allergic signs suggests immunotherapy may be needed.

Answer 124

FALSE ## Footnote In vitro tests often have a large number of false-positive reactions and must be interpreted in light of clinical signs.

Answer 125

Skin ## Footnote The skin can represent 12–24% of the animal’s body weight, depending on species and age.

Answer 126

* Epidermis * Basement Membrane Zone * Dermis * Appendageal System * Subcutaneous Muscles and Fat ## Footnote These structures play various roles in skin function and health.

Answer 127

* Keratinocytes * Melanocytes * Langerhans cells * Merkel cells ## Footnote Each type of cell has specific functions related to skin protection and sensory perception.

Answer 128

Produce a protective barrier ## Footnote They are produced from columnar basal cells and play a key role in the skin's immune system.

Answer 129

Programmed cell death process to form the stratum corneum ## Footnote This process creates a compact layer of dead cells that serves as a barrier.

Answer 130

Melanin ## Footnote They are involved in pigmentation of the skin and hair, influenced by hormones and UV light.

Answer 131

* Anchoring the epidermis to the dermis * Maintaining a functional epidermis * Participating in wound healing * Acting as a physical barrier ## Footnote Damage to this zone can lead to various skin diseases.

Answer 132

Support and nourish the epidermis ## Footnote The dermis contains blood vessels, nerves, and various cell types.

Answer 133

* Hair follicles * Sebaceous glands * Sweat glands * Specialized structures (e.g., claws, hooves) ## Footnote These structures are continuous with the epidermis.

Answer 134

* Anagen (growing stage) * Catagen (transitional stage) * Telogen (resting stage) ## Footnote Hair growth is influenced by nutrition, hormones, and photoperiod.

Answer 135

Secrete sebum ## Footnote Sebum keeps the skin soft, pliable, and hydrated, and has antimicrobial properties.

Answer 136

* Epitrichial (formerly 'apocrine') * Atrichial (formerly 'eccrine') ## Footnote These glands are part of the thermoregulatory system.

Answer 137

FALSE ## Footnote Pigs have limited sweat glands and rely on water or mud for cooling.

Answer 138

Twitch muscle (panniculus carnosus) ## Footnote This muscle plays a role in skin movement and response.

Answer 139

* Insulation * Storage for fluids, electrolytes, and energy * Shock absorption ## Footnote This fat layer is important for overall health and protection.

Answer 140

Key component for managing bacterial and yeast overgrowth, primary seborrhea, and allergic dermatitis ## Footnote Topical treatment is recognized as a first line of therapy in veterinary dermatology.

Answer 141

Animals should be prewashed with a cleansing shampoo to remove debris ## Footnote This step is essential for effective application of medicated shampoos.

Answer 142

FALSE ## Footnote Cleansing shampoos are designed to remove dirt and oils, while medicated shampoos contain active ingredients for treatment.

Answer 143

* Cleansing shampoos * Antiparasitic shampoos * Medicated shampoos ## Footnote Each class serves a different purpose in veterinary dermatology.

Answer 144

Chlorhexidine combined with miconazole, ketoconazole, or climbazole ## Footnote This combination is effective for treating infections.

Answer 145

* Tar * Sulfur * Salicylic acid ## Footnote These ingredients help normalize keratinization and break down the cornified layer.

Answer 146

Coagulase-positive **Staphylococcus pseudintermedius** ## Footnote This bacterium commonly produces beta-lactamase, complicating treatment.

Answer 147

Bacteriologic culture and antimicrobial susceptibility testing should be performed ## Footnote This helps identify the appropriate systemic antimicrobial.

Answer 148

It is a marker for resistance to all beta-lactam antimicrobials ## Footnote The incidence of resistant bacteria has increased markedly since the early 2010s.

Answer 149

* Cephalexin * Cefadroxil * Amoxicillin-clavulanate * Trimethoprim-sulfas * Lincosamides * Cefovecin ## Footnote These are used when cytologic evaluation confirms infection with coccoid bacteria.

Answer 150

* Cefovecin (except when owner compliance is an issue) * Cefpodoxime * Fluoroquinolones ## Footnote These should not be used for empirical treatment.

Answer 151

* Aminoglycosides * Azithromycin * Chloramphenicol * Clarithromycin * Imipenem * Rifampin * Ticarcillin ## Footnote These are used only when other options are ineffective.

Answer 152

Can be used as sole treatment for mild to moderate superficial infections ## Footnote They can also reduce treatment duration in more severe infections.

Answer 153

* Enterobacteriaceae (Proteus spp, E coli, Klebsiella spp) * Non-enterobacteriaceae (Pseudomonas spp) ## Footnote These bacteria are natural inhabitants of the intestinal tract and found in various environments.

Answer 154

* Streptococcus spp ## Footnote These infections may be treated with penicillin G, penicillin V, erythromycin, chloramphenicol, or cephalexin.

Answer 155

Removal of scale and crust, treatment with a topical antiseptic ## Footnote Most lesions are self-limiting if the horse can be kept dry.

Answer 156

Pustular and crusting dermatitis ## Footnote Moisture and skin damage are necessary for the infection to develop. Most lesions are self-limiting if the horse can be kept dry.

Answer 157

* Iodophors * 2–5% lime sulphur * 1–4% chlorhexidine ## Footnote Systemic antimicrobials may be used in severe, generalized, or chronic infections.

Answer 158

* Itraconazole * Ketoconazole * Fluconazole * Terbinafine * Griseofulvin * Amphotericin B * Flucytosine * Systemic Iodides ## Footnote These medications are used to treat various fungal infections affecting the skin.

Answer 159

Inhibits ergosterol synthesis ## Footnote This leads to cell wall rupture in fungal cells.

Answer 160

5 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours until mycological cure ## Footnote For systemic mycoses, the dosage is 5–10 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours for 60 days.

Answer 161

FALSE ## Footnote Ketoconazole has lower potency, increased toxicity, and a narrower spectrum of activity than Itraconazole.

Answer 162

* Inappetence * Vomiting * Pruritus * Alopecia * Reversible lightening of the coat ## Footnote Cats appear to be more sensitive to ketoconazole.

Answer 163

2.5–10 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours for 56–64 days ## Footnote Fluconazole does not require low pH for absorption.

Answer 164

Interferes with fungal sterol biosynthesis ## Footnote This causes deficiency of ergosterol and leads to fungal cell death.

Answer 165

Effective against dermatophytes ## Footnote It is concentrated in skin, hair, and nails.

Answer 166

Nephrotoxicity ## Footnote Most dogs incur some kidney damage, which is not correlated with total dose or duration of treatment.

Answer 167

25–50 mg/kg, PO, every 6–8 hours for 42 days ## Footnote It is effective against Cryptococcus neoformans and Candida.

Answer 168

Unknown ## Footnote It is used for sporotrichosis in small animals and other conditions in cattle and horses.

Answer 169

Potassium iodide (40 mg/kg, PO, every 12 hours for 60 days) ## Footnote This treatment is specifically for dogs diagnosed with sporotrichosis.

Answer 170

Potassium iodide (20 mg/kg, PO, every 12–24 hours for 60 days) ## Footnote Cats may develop inappetence as a side effect.

Answer 171

Sodium iodide (60 mg/kg, IV, every 7 days) ## Footnote This treatment is administered intravenously.

Answer 172

* Sodium iodide (40 mg/kg, IV, every 24 hours for 2–5 days) * Potassium iodide (2 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours for 60 days) ## Footnote The initial treatment is with sodium iodide, followed by potassium iodide.

Answer 173

* Vomiting * Diarrhea * Depression * Inappetence * Ocular and nasal discharge * Scaling * Dry coat ## Footnote Inappetence is particularly noted in cats.

Answer 174

* Seromucoid discharge * Lacrimation * Cough * Variable appetite * Joint pain * Seborrhea sicca with partial alopecia ## Footnote Systemic iodide may also cause abortion and should not be used in pregnant or lactating animals.

Answer 175

* Isoxazolines * Ivermectin * Milbemycin Oxime * Moxidectin * Selamectin * Lufenuron * Nitenpyram * Spinosad * Sodium Stibogluconate ## Footnote These drugs are used to treat various parasitic infections in animals.

Answer 176

* Chorioptic mange * Pediculosis * Habronemiasis * Onchocerciasis ## Footnote These conditions are caused by ectoparasites in large animals.

Answer 177

Noncompetitive GABA receptor antagonists that block chloride channels in nerve and muscle cells, causing hyperexcitation and death of the target. ## Footnote This selective toxicity is due to differential sensitivity of GABA receptors in insects, acarines, and mammals.

Answer 178

* Afoxolaner * Fluralaner * Sarolaner * Lotilaner ## Footnote These are used in dogs and cats for various ectoparasite infestations.

Answer 179

Streptomyces avermitilis ## Footnote It acts as a GABA agonist, causing paralysis in susceptible arthropods and nematodes.

Answer 180

0.3–0.6 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours until two negative skin scrapings 1 month apart. ## Footnote This treatment is used in an extralabel fashion in the US.

Answer 181

FALSE ## Footnote At least 10 times the normal dose is needed for toxic reactions.

Answer 182

* Collies * Shetland Sheepdogs * Old English Sheepdogs * Australian Collies ## Footnote These breeds are more susceptible to ivermectin toxicity.

Answer 183

1–2 mg/kg, PO, every 7 days for 3–5 treatments. ## Footnote It is used in an extralabel manner.

Answer 184

Heartworm control (Dirofilaria immitis) ## Footnote It is also used extralabel for treating Otodectes and demodicosis in dogs.

Answer 185

Applied topically but acts systemically against ectoparasites. ## Footnote It is effective against Ctenocephalides spp, Sarcoptes scabiei, and Otodectes cynotis.

Answer 186

Inhibits synthesis of chitin, preventing development of flea life stages. ## Footnote It is effective against Ctenocephalides spp in dogs and cats.

Answer 187

1 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours as needed. ## Footnote It kills fleas within 30 minutes of administration.

Answer 188

Stimulates nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, causing paralysis and death of the insect. ## Footnote It is used to treat Ctenocephalides spp in dogs and cats.

Answer 189

30–50 mg/kg, IV or SC, every 24 hours for 3–4 weeks. ## Footnote It may be combined with other treatments.

Answer 190

Pruritus, increased vascular permeability, release of inflammatory mediators, and attraction of inflammatory cells. ## Footnote H1-receptor blockers compete with histamine for receptor sites.

Answer 191

* Terfenadine * Cetirizine ## Footnote They are less likely to cross the blood-brain barrier.

Answer 192

* Linoleic acid * Linolenic acid ## Footnote These fatty acids must be supplied in the diet.

Answer 193

* Drowsiness * Gastrointestinal signs (vomiting and diarrhea) * CNS hyperexcitability ## Footnote Overdoses may be fatal.

Answer 194

* 20% of dogs * 50% of cats ## Footnote Improvement is noted in cases of allergic pruritus.

Answer 195

* Polyuria * Polydipsia * Polyphagia * Weight gain * Increased susceptibility to infection * Gastrointestinal ulceration * Pancreatitis * Osteoporosis * Hyperglycemia * Steroid myopathy * Calcinosis cutis ## Footnote The severity of adverse effects is related to dosage, duration, and type of glucocorticoid used.

Answer 196

0.5–1 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours ## Footnote Severe cases may require 2 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours.

Answer 197

TRUE ## Footnote This flexibility allows for tailored treatment based on the condition and patient needs.

Answer 198

Synthetic levothyroxine (T4) ## Footnote Most dogs respond clinically to a dosage of 0.02 mg/kg, PO, every 12 hours long-term.

Answer 199

* Megestrol acetate * Medroxyprogesterone acetate ## Footnote Both have glucocorticoid activity and are used in specific cases of alopecia.

Answer 200

2–10 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours ## Footnote Dosage may be adjusted based on ACTH stimulation test results.

Answer 201

25 mg/kg, PO, every 12 hours ## Footnote This is administered until signs of adverse effects or after 5 days.

Answer 202

* Polyuria * Polydipsia * Nervousness * Aggressiveness * Panting * Diarrhea * Tachycardia * Pyrexia * Pruritus ## Footnote These signs are rare and usually indicate concurrent issues.

Answer 203

1 mg/dog ## Footnote Treatment should be monitored closely due to potential adverse effects.

Answer 204

Diabetes mellitus ## Footnote This is a significant concern when using progestogens.

Answer 205

0.5–1 mg/kg, every 48 hours ## Footnote Up to a total maximal dose of 30 mg.

Answer 206

10 mg ## Footnote Cats are highly sensitive to estrogens.

Answer 207

* Methyltestosterone (0.5–1 mg/kg, max 30 mg, PO, every 48 hours) * Testosterone propionate (0.5–1 mg/kg, every 7 days or 2 mg/kg, IM, every 4–16 weeks) ## Footnote Complications include aggressive behavior, greasy coat, prostatic hypertrophy, and hepatotoxicity.

Answer 208

Liver function ## Footnote Liver function should be evaluated before treatment and monthly during treatment.

Answer 209

12 mg/cat, IM ## Footnote It may be combined with a low dose of diethylstilbestrol or estradiol.

Answer 210

Pineal gland; controls photoperiod-dependent molting ## Footnote Secretion is inversely related to daylight length and is highest during winter.

Answer 211

* Recurrent flank alopecia * Pattern baldness * Excessive trichilemmal keratinization ## Footnote Recurrent flank alopecia may be treated with 36-mg subcutaneous implants.

Answer 212

3–6 mg/dog, PO, every 6–8 hours ## Footnote This dosage has been used successfully for various canine hair growth disorders.

Answer 213

Enhance a deficient immunologic response ## Footnote Commonly used for chronic, recurrent staphylococcal pyoderma in dogs.

Answer 214

Improving response in dogs with superficial staphylococcal pyoderma ## Footnote Administered concurrently with antimicrobials.

Answer 215

FALSE ## Footnote They should be used concurrently with appropriate antimicrobials.

Answer 216

* Local swelling * Fever * Malaise ## Footnote Administered for prevention of staphylococcal mastitis in cattle and used in canine bacterial hypersensitivity.

Answer 217

Competes with purines in nucleic acid synthesis ## Footnote Prevents proliferation of rapidly dividing cells.

Answer 218

* 2.2 mg/kg daily for 2 weeks * Then every 48 hours ## Footnote Often combined with glucocorticoids initially.

Answer 219

* Gastrointestinal effects * Bone marrow suppression * Acute pancreatitis * Hepatotoxicity ## Footnote CBC should be monitored regularly.

Answer 220

Treating cancers and severe cases of immune-mediated diseases ## Footnote Administered in combination with other drugs.

Answer 221

* Hemorrhagic cystitis * Gastrointestinal toxicity * Bone marrow suppression * Alopecia * Infertility ## Footnote Limited use to 3–4 months due to potential complications.

Answer 222

Slower acting and less toxic ## Footnote Used when other agents are not tolerated.

Answer 223

* Canine pemphigus unresponsive to glucocorticoids * Feline plasma cell pododermatitis ## Footnote Administered parenterally or orally.

Answer 224

Impairing proliferation of activated T cells ## Footnote Inhibits transcription of interleukin-2.

Answer 225

* Gastrointestinal signs * Gingival hypertrophy * Hirsutism * Papillomatosis ## Footnote Toxicity can be potentiated by drugs that inhibit cytochrome P450.

Answer 226

0.4–0.6 mg/kg, PO, every 12 hours for 2 weeks ## Footnote Then reduced to once-daily administration for maintenance.

Answer 227

Reduction of pruritus in canine atopic and allergic dermatitis ## Footnote It binds to and inhibits IL-31.

Answer 228

1 mg/kg, PO, every 8 hours for 2–4 weeks ## Footnote Used for pemphigus foliaceus and erythematosus.

Answer 229

* Mild anemia * Severe leukopenia ## Footnote Results in dogs are more equivocal compared to humans.

Answer 230

1 mg/kg, PO, every 8 hours for 2–4 weeks ## Footnote Long-term treatment is not recommended; monitor for mild anemia, severe leukopenia, and other adverse effects.

Answer 231

* Mild anemia * Severe leukopenia * Blood dyscrasias * Hepatotoxicity * Skin reactions ## Footnote Animals should be monitored by CBC, urinalysis, BUN concentration, and ALT activity every 2 weeks during induction.

Answer 232

1 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours ## Footnote Cats are particularly sensitive to toxicity.

Answer 233

* Discoid lupus erythematosus * Pemphigus erythematosus ## Footnote These diseases are characterized by leukocyte chemotaxis secondary to complement activation by antigen-antibody complexes.

Answer 234

* Vomiting * Diarrhea * Anorexia ## Footnote Dogs weighing >10 kg should be administered 500 mg of each drug every 8 hours.

Answer 235

* Increases in RBC and WBC deformability * Decreases in RBC and platelet aggregation * Decreases in leukocyte endothelial adherence * Inhibition of T- and B-cell activation ## Footnote It has been used for conditions like vasculitis and atopic dermatitis.

Answer 236

10 mg/kg, PO, every 8 to 12 hours ## Footnote Once a response is evident, the dosage may be tapered to once or twice daily.

Answer 237

* Nausea * Vomiting ## Footnote Gastrointestinal-related adverse effects have been reported.

Answer 238

* Antidepressants * Antipsychotics * Opiate antagonists * Anxiolytics * Mood stabilizers ## Footnote These drugs are used for conditions like feline psychogenic alopecia.

Answer 239

Sedation ## Footnote It is also an appetite stimulant in cats.

Answer 240

* Cardiac arrhythmias * Lower seizure threshold * Dry mouth * Hypersalivation * Vomiting * Constipation * Urinary retention * Ataxia * Disorientation * Depression * Anorexia ## Footnote Dosages should be tapered slowly when discontinued.

Answer 241

* Isotretinoin * Acitretin ## Footnote Isotretinoin is indicated for conditions like Schnauzer comedone syndrome and feline acne.

Answer 242

1–3 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours ## Footnote Adverse effects include conjunctivitis and mucocutaneous drying.

Answer 243

* Maintenance of growth * Metabolism * Normal reproduction * Hormonal regulation * Keratinization * Immune function ## Footnote Zinc supplementation is administered in cases of insufficient intestinal absorption.

Answer 244

1 mg of elemental zinc/kg, PO, every 24 hours ## Footnote Supplementation is typically lifelong.

Answer 245

Usually rapid (a few days) ## Footnote Except for cases of achromotrichia, which requires several weeks for resolution.

Answer 246

* Eosinophilic ulcer * Eosinophilic plaque * Focal eosinophilic granuloma ## Footnote These diseases may occur simultaneously and are often referred to as a complex.

Answer 247

Indolent ulcer ## Footnote Eosinophilic ulcers are typically associated with allergic skin diseases.

Answer 248

Dorsal lips ## Footnote These lesions can be unilateral or bilateral and are erosive to ulcerative.

Answer 249

Hypersensitivity reaction to an allergen ## Footnote Common allergens include insects, environmental factors, and adverse food reactions.

Answer 250

* Trichogram * Impression smear * Wood's lamp examination * Dermatophyte culture * Biopsy ## Footnote These steps help assess for parasitic and environmental allergies.

Answer 251

* Intensely pruritic * Exudative lesion * Result of self-trauma ## Footnote Common triggers include flea bite hypersensitivity and allergic skin disease.

Answer 252

* Systemic antimicrobials * Flea control ## Footnote Treatment is based on culture and susceptibility, with recurrent lesions indicating underlying allergic skin diseases.

Answer 253

Firm nodules in the skin ## Footnote These lesions can occur anywhere on the body and are true granulomas.

Answer 254

Insect bite hypersensitivity ## Footnote Lesions on the ears are common in cats with mosquito bite hypersensitivity.

Answer 255

* Flea preventatives * Antimicrobial therapy * Anti-inflammatory medications if needed ## Footnote Treatment should be maintained for 2–4 months.

Answer 256

FALSE ## Footnote They are clinical signs that indicate underlying allergic reactions.

Answer 257

* Siberian Huskies * Cavalier King Charles Spaniels ## Footnote These lesions are associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Answer 258

* Acute, proliferative * Exudative * Nasal/muzzle swelling and pain ## Footnote It is most often observed in the summer and may be associated with insect bites.

Answer 259

* Steroid therapy * Topical antimicrobial therapy if needed ## Footnote Prednisone or prednisolone is often used until lesion remission.

Answer 260

* Multifocal * Round * Elevated * Firm * Well-circumscribed ## Footnote Lesions can occur anywhere on the body but are common in the saddle and tack area.

Answer 261

* Insect-bite hypersensitivity * Atopic dermatitis * Food allergy ## Footnote Trauma may also play a role in lesion development.

Answer 262

* Surgical excision for solitary lesions * Glucocorticoids for multiple lesions ## Footnote Risks of glucocorticoids and laminitis should be considered.

Answer 263

Ctenocephalides felis ## Footnote This species is the most prevalent flea found on dogs and cats.

Answer 264

* Ctenocephalides felis (cat flea) * Ctenocephalides canis (dog flea) * Pulex simulans (flea of small mammals) * Echidnophaga gallinacea (poultry sticktight flea) ## Footnote Ctenocephalides felis is the most prevalent among these species.

Answer 265

* Pearly white * Oval with rounded ends * 0.5 mm long ## Footnote Eggs readily fall from the host's haircoat onto bedding, carpet, or soil.

Answer 266

organic debris and adult flea feces ## Footnote This feeding is essential for successful development.

Answer 267

< 50% ## Footnote Prolonged exposure to low humidity is lethal for flea larvae.

Answer 268

* Shaded and moist ground * Areas where flea-infested animals spend time ## Footnote Typical sites include under decks, porches, and bushes.

Answer 269

5–11 days ## Footnote This duration may be prolonged for 2–3 weeks depending on conditions.

Answer 270

3–8 weeks ## Footnote Life cycle completion can vary based on temperature and humidity.

Answer 271

13.6 μL ## Footnote This amount is 15 times their body weight.

Answer 272

Injection of antigens from flea saliva ## Footnote FAD is an immunologic disease characterized by pruritus and skin lesions.

Answer 273

* Lower back * Tailhead * Caudal and inner thighs ## Footnote These areas are commonly affected by flea allergy dermatitis.

Answer 274

* Papular dermatitis * Miliary dermatitis * Severe pruritus ## Footnote Miliary lesions are often found on the back, neck, and face.

Answer 275

TRUE ## Footnote Cats also develop FAD, which is a major cause of feline miliary dermatitis.

Answer 276

* History * Clinical signs * Presence of fleas or flea excrement * Results of intradermal testing ## Footnote Exclusion of other dermatologic diseases is also important.

Answer 277

* Reddish black * Cylindrical * Pellet- or comma-shaped ## Footnote When crushed in water, it produces a reddish brown color.

Answer 278

iron-deficiency anemia ## Footnote This condition can affect various species including dogs, cats, and poultry.

Answer 279

* Murine typhus * Rickettsia typhi * Rickettsia felis ## Footnote These diseases can cause febrile illness characterized by headaches and skin rashes.

Answer 280

Intermediate host ## Footnote Flea larvae ingest tapeworm eggs, which develop into cysticercoids in the flea.

Answer 281

* Cylindrical * Pellet-shaped * Comma-shaped ## Footnote Flea excrement dissolves in water or damp paper towel, producing a reddish brown color.

Answer 282

FALSE ## Footnote These animals may be virtually free of fleas due to excessive self-grooming, making it difficult to find evidence of fleas.

Answer 283

Fine-toothed flea comb (32 teeth/in.) ## Footnote Examination of the pet’s bedding for eggs, larvae, and excrement is also useful.

Answer 284

* Wheal 3–5 mm larger than negative control * Response equal to halfway point between positive and negative control ## Footnote Observations for immediate reaction (15–20 minutes) and a 24-hour delayed reaction are recommended.

Answer 285

* Atopic dermatitis * Food allergy dermatitis * Sarcoptic or demodectic mange * Other ectoparasites * Bacterial folliculitis ## Footnote In cats, conditions include external parasites, dermatophytosis, drug hypersensitivity, and idiopathic miliary dermatitis.

Answer 286

* Elimination of fleas on pets * Elimination of existing environmental infestation * Prevention of subsequent reinfestation ## Footnote Control is based on killing resident fleas and preventing future infestations.

Answer 287

Differentiating between speed of elimination of established infestations and newly acquired fleas ## Footnote It could take several hours (12–36 hours) for topically applied formulations to eliminate all existing fleas.

Answer 288

* Afoxolaner (dogs only) * Dinotefuran * Fipronil * Fluralaner (dogs only) * Imidacloprid * Indoxacarb * Lotilaner * Nitenpyram * Sarolaner * Selamectin * Spinosad ## Footnote These insecticides are effective for both dogs and cats.

Answer 289

* Topical application of residual insecticides * Administration of topical, injectable, or oral IGRs * Repeated application of insecticides or IGRs * Combinations of the above ## Footnote Administration of topical or systemic residual insecticides has become the preferred method.

Answer 290

Prevent reproduction of fleas ## Footnote IGRs provide prolonged residual ovicidal activity, interrupting future flea development.

Answer 291

That flea products kill all newly acquired fleas within seconds to minutes ## Footnote Residual products do not kill most fleas immediately; they may live for 6–24 hours before being killed.

Answer 292

* Conduct a mechanical control program * Wash pet blankets and rugs * Vacuum thoroughly * Use intermittent-light flea traps ## Footnote The goal is to reduce the preexisting biomass of immature and adult life stages.

Answer 293

* Systemic antimicrobials * Selection based on bacterial cultures and sensitivity tests ## Footnote These treatments help control pyoderma and reduce inflammation and pruritus.

Answer 294

0.5–1 mg/kg per day ## Footnote Tapering the dosage and using alternate-day therapy until the lowest effective dose is achieved.

Answer 295

1–3 months ## Footnote Effective long-term flea control necessitates preventing fleas from reproducing.

Answer 296

FALSE ## Footnote Lifelong flea control is highly recommended to prevent reinfestation.

Answer 297

Manifestations of an exaggerated immune response to the patient's diet ## Footnote Clinical signs include pruritus, alopecia, relapsing bacterial or yeast dermatitis, and relapsing otitis externa.

Answer 298

Dietary elimination trial followed by a controlled dietary challenge ## Footnote Management involves identifying and avoiding causative foods.

Answer 299

* Beef * Dairy products * Chicken * Wheat * Lamb ## Footnote In cats, the most common allergens are beef, fish, and chicken.

Answer 300

* Metabolic syndromes * Pharmacological reactions * Toxic reactions ## Footnote These conditions are broadly characterized as 'adverse food reactions.'

Answer 301

* 1–2% of dogs * < 1% of cats ## Footnote This percentage increases in pets with dermatitis or pruritus.

Answer 302

Pruritus ## Footnote It can be focal, multifocal, or generalized.

Answer 303

* Pruritus * Eosinophilic granuloma complex * Miliary dermatitis * Nonpruritic cutaneous nodules * Plasma cell pododermatitis ## Footnote Pruritus can manifest as scratching, rubbing, or self-removal of fur.

Answer 304

Dietary elimination trials ## Footnote Other diagnostic tests include serological analysis and patch testing.

Answer 305

* Novel protein diets * Hydrolyzed diets * Elemental diets ## Footnote Novel protein diets must avoid previously fed ingredients.

Answer 306

10 weeks ## Footnote Duration can be shortened to as few as 4 weeks with concurrent steroid treatment.

Answer 307

TRUE ## Footnote This includes rawhide chews, flavored supplements, and table food.

Answer 308

* GI disease * Anaphylaxis * Asthma or respiratory distress * Conjunctivitis * Hypersalivation ## Footnote GI signs can include vomiting and diarrhea.

Answer 309

To confirm the diagnosis of food allergy ## Footnote It helps to assess the patient's response to previously eliminated foods.

Answer 310

* Record date and extent of pruritus * Note unusual events (visitors, trips, etc.) * Identify potential breaks in diet ## Footnote Diaries provide objective evidence of improvement in animals showing partial response to dietary changes.

Answer 311

* Identify problematic food items * Confirm improvement is diet-related, not coincidental ## Footnote Essential to distinguish true hypersensitivity from placebo responses.

Answer 312

FALSE ## Footnote Such patients are not classified as food allergic.

Answer 313

* Relapse of clinical signs upon rechallenge * Lack of complete remission suggests other problems may be present ## Footnote Food allergy is confirmed only if both conditions are met.

Answer 314

* Signs may appear within days * Positive responses can take 10–14 days ## Footnote Individual food items should not be introduced more frequently than every 2 weeks.

Answer 315

* Place back on elimination diet * Resume challenge after patient is comfortable ## Footnote Specific ingredients or food-based items can be used to pinpoint the allergy source.

Answer 316

* Allergen avoidance * Antipruritic therapy * Food-specific allergen immunotherapy (under development) ## Footnote Dietary control is ideal for maintaining remission.

Answer 317

* Worsening of pruritus ## Footnote Long-term antipruritic therapy may be required for optimal response.

Answer 318

* Association with grain-free diets * High proportions of legumes (peas, chickpeas, lentils) * Other suspect ingredients: potatoes, sweet potatoes ## Footnote Not all diets with these ingredients are linked to NH-DCM.

Answer 319

* Prior or concurrent myocarditis * Hyperthyroidism * Nutritional imbalances (low taurine, high insoluble fiber) ## Footnote Genetic influence is suggested, especially in large-breed dogs.

Answer 320

* Significant improvement in echocardiographic parameters * Better clinical outcomes ## Footnote This suggests a potential link between diet and NH-DCM.

Answer 321

* Beef * Dairy products * Chicken * Wheat * Lamb ## Footnote In cats, common allergens include beef, fish, and chicken.

Answer 322

* Strict dietary elimination trial * Subsequent provocative rechallenge ## Footnote This method is essential for accurate diagnosis.

Answer 323

**An acquired non-epithelial-lined, fibrous sac filled with serous fluid** that develops over a bony prominence or pressure point ## Footnote Hygromas are common in dogs and can occur in any species, often affecting large- and giant-breed dogs.

Answer 324

* Irish Wolfhound * German Shepherd Dog * Great Dane * Mastiff * Newfoundland * Saint Bernard ## Footnote Hygromas frequently affect large- and giant-breed dogs.

Answer 325

Adolescence (6–18 months of age) ## Footnote Hygromas are also common in older dogs with elbow osteoarthritis.

Answer 326

Involves **repetitive trauma** leading to an inflammatory response ## Footnote Trauma can result from impaired ambulation or excessive time spent on hard surfaces.

Answer 327

* Soft, fluctuant, fluid-filled swelling * Painless * Located over a pressure point (especially olecranon or tarsus) ## Footnote These findings are typical for uncomplicated hygromas.

Answer 328

FALSE ## Footnote Infection has been reported as a complication when using corticosteroids.

Answer 329

* Severe inflammation * Ulcers * Infections * Abscesses * Granulomas * Fistulas ## Footnote These complications can develop if the hygroma is not treated effectively.

Answer 330

* True cyst * Callus * Infectious dermatitis * Benign neoplasia * Malignant neoplasia ## Footnote Diagnosis is typically straightforward based on physical examination.

Answer 331

Complete excision of all affected tissue ## Footnote The rate of complications, including dehiscence of the repair, is high.

Answer 332

* Drainage * Wound flushing * Placement of Penrose drains * Active drainage with closed-suction drains ## Footnote These methods can be helpful for managing chronic hygromas.

Answer 333

* Laser therapy * Extracorporeal shock wave therapy ## Footnote Laser therapy has been reported to decrease inflammation and stimulate healing.

Answer 334

Bacterial culture and susceptibility testing ## Footnote This ensures appropriate treatment for any infections present.

Answer 335

A skin biopsy ## Footnote This helps in diagnosing any underlying issues with the lesions.

Answer 336

Deep pyoderma lesions that form between the toes ## Footnote They can be single or multifocal and are painful areas of pyogranulomatous inflammation.

Answer 337

Deep bacterial infection ## Footnote These infections can be recurrent, indicating an underlying trigger.

Answer 338

* Hair trichogram * Cytological evaluation * Culture and susceptibility of lesions * Skin biopsy * Radiographs (less common) ## Footnote These diagnostics help in identifying the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

Answer 339

TRUE ## Footnote Histologically, these lesions represent areas of nodular pyogranulomatous inflammation and are almost never cystic.

Answer 340

* Chinese Shar Pei * Labrador Retriever * English Bulldog ## Footnote These breeds may have conformational problems that increase friction and moisture in the interdigital web.

Answer 341

* Focal or generalized erythema * Papules * Nodules (1–2 cm, reddish purple, fluctuant) ## Footnote Lesions may rupture and exude bloody material, and dogs may be lame and lick at the lesions.

Answer 342

Clinical signs alone ## Footnote Major differential diagnoses include traumatic lesions, foreign bodies, follicular comedone cysts, and neoplasia.

Answer 343

Topical treatment (bathing and lesion hygiene) ## Footnote Daily bathing with antimicrobial soaks and shampoos is recommended.

Answer 344

Systemic antimicrobial treatment for at least 4–6 weeks ## Footnote A cephalosporin or other antimicrobial of known susceptibility is preferred.

Answer 345

* Inappropriate antimicrobial treatment * Concurrent systemic corticosteroid administration * Demodicosis * Anatomic predisposition * Foreign body reaction to keratin ## Footnote These factors can lead to persistent lesions despite treatment.

Answer 346

Electric clipper blades ## Footnote This may cause microtrauma and lead to hair shafts becoming traumatically inoculated into tissue.

Answer 347

Short-term use can help with severe inflammation ## Footnote Long-term use is not advised as they may worsen comedones and secondary bacterial pyoderma.

Answer 348

2% chlorhexidine-2% miconazole shampoo ## Footnote This combination helps maintain hygiene and control infection.

Answer 349

Localized disease and small superficial lesions ## Footnote They are helpful when systemic glucocorticoids are contraindicated.

Answer 350

Grass awn ## Footnote Lesions caused by foreign bodies are usually solitary and often found on a front foot.

Answer 351

* Follicular trauma * Epidermal and follicular infundibular hyperkeratosis * Acanthosis * Plugging or narrowing of the follicular opening ## Footnote These factors lead to retention of follicular contents and subsequent infection.

Answer 352

They may be triggered by trauma, conformation, or underlying skin disease ## Footnote Chronic lesions are often caused by foreign body reactions to embedded keratin.

Answer 353

* Crusty or scaly skin * Pruritus * Alopecia ## Footnote Mange is a general term for cutaneous acariasis, an infectious disease caused by parasitic mites.

Answer 354

* Chorioptes * Demodex * Psorobia * Psoroptes * Sarcoptes ## Footnote The term *scabies* specifically refers to infestation with *Sarcoptes* sp mites.

Answer 355

FALSE ## Footnote Several genera of mites can cause mange, including *Chorioptes*, *Demodex*, and others.

Answer 356

17–21 days ## Footnote The entire life cycle of sarcoptic mites is completed on the host.

Answer 357

* Treatment of affected animals * Treatment of contact animals * Environmental control ## Footnote Isolation of affected animals for 2 weeks is often recommended to limit transmission.

Answer 358

Intense pruritus ## Footnote This is likely due to hypersensitivity to mite products.

Answer 359

* Papulocrustous eruptions * Thick yellow crusts * Excoriation * Erythema * Alopecia ## Footnote Lesions typically start on the ventral abdomen, chest, ears, elbows, and hocks.

Answer 360

* Selamectin (6–12 mg/kg, spot-on) * Imidacloprid-moxidectin formulation (2.5 mg/kg, 4 weeks apart) * Milbemycin oxime (2 mg/kg, PO, weekly) * Ivermectin (200 mcg/kg, PO or SC) ## Footnote Macrocyclic lactones are commonly used for treatment.

Answer 361

Notoedres cati ## Footnote This highly contagious disease can also infest other animals, including humans.

Answer 362

* Head shaking * Ear scratching * Ear droop * Dark brown cerumen accumulation ## Footnote Otodectic mange is a common cause of otitis externa, especially in cats.

Answer 363

Walking Dandruff ## Footnote It is caused by *Cheyletiella* sp mites and is highly contagious.

Answer 364

* Localized demodectic mange * Juvenile-onset generalized demodicosis * Adult-onset generalized demodicosis ## Footnote Demodex canis mites are part of the normal flora of canine skin.

Answer 365

From dam to puppies during nursing ## Footnote This occurs within the first 72 hours after birth.

Answer 366

6–8 weeks ## Footnote Treatment must continue for a few weeks beyond clinical cure until parasitologic cure is achieved.

Answer 367

An inherited immunologic defect with functional abnormality associated with the cell-mediated immune system ## Footnote It leads to excessive proliferation of mites, causing destruction of hair follicles.

Answer 368

* Erythema * Papules * Alopecia * Oily seborrhea * Edema * Hyperpigmentation * Crusts ## Footnote These signs are often aggravated by secondary bacterial infections (pyodemodicosis).

Answer 369

Pododermatitis ## Footnote Dogs may also experience systemic illness with generalized lymphadenopathy, lethargy, and fever.

Answer 370

Deep skin scrapings or hair plucking revealing mites, eggs, and larval forms in high numbers ## Footnote Diagnosis is typically not difficult.

Answer 371

>3 years old (may occur as young as 1.5 years) ## Footnote It is often associated with immunosuppressive conditions.

Answer 372

* Malignant lymphosarcoma * Malignant melanoma * Hyperadrenocorticism * Hypothyroidism * Diabetes mellitus ## Footnote An underlying immunosuppressive condition may not always be found.

Answer 373

Usually good, with spontaneous recovery being frequent ## Footnote Treatment is generally not required.

Answer 374

Whole-body amitraz dips (0.025%) applied every 2 weeks ## Footnote Amitraz dips are no longer available.

Answer 375

* Macrocyclic lactones * Milbemycin oxime * Moxidectin * Ivermectin ## Footnote These have demonstrated varying degrees of effectiveness.

Answer 376

Local and systemic corticosteroids ## Footnote Secondary bacterial infections must be treated aggressively.

Answer 377

Systemic (topical or oral) isoxazolines ## Footnote Doses and administration frequency are the same as labeled dosages for flea or tick control.

Answer 378

At least two species of demodectic mites ## Footnote *Demodex cati* is thought to be a normal inhabitant of feline skin.

Answer 379

One or several areas of focal alopecia, most commonly on the head and neck ## Footnote Generalized disease may show alopecia, crusting, and potential secondary pyoderma.

Answer 380

Superficial (D gatoi) and deep (D cati) skin scrapings ## Footnote Mite numbers are often small, especially with *D gatoi*.

Answer 381

The parasitic larval stage of free-living mites of the family Trombiculidae (chiggers) ## Footnote It can affect various mammals, birds, reptiles, and humans.

Answer 382

* Erythema * Papules * Excoriations * Hair loss * Crusts ## Footnote Intense pruritus can persist for hours to several days.

Answer 383

Keeping pets away from areas known to harbor large numbers of mites ## Footnote Application of pyrethroids may yield variable results.

Answer 384

The temporary encystment in the epidermis of the parasitic larval stage of *Straelensia cynotis* ## Footnote This mite is closely related to the family Trombiculidae.

Answer 385

* Painful lesions * Variably pruritic * Generalized or multifocal lesions ## Footnote Characteristic erythematous papules and nodules resemble small craters.

Answer 386

Favorable; self-cure generally occurs after several months if reinfestation is prevented ## Footnote Management of clinical signs is difficult.

Answer 387

The fur mite *Lynxacarus radovskyi* ## Footnote It is geographically restricted to certain areas.

Answer 388

* Salt-and-pepper appearance of the hair coat * Variable pruritus * Alopecia ## Footnote Diagnosis is based on visualization of mites or isolation of any parasitic stage.

Answer 389

Sarcoptes scabieibovis ## Footnote It is a highly infectious disease transmitted by direct contact or contaminated fomites.

Answer 390

* Intense pruritus * Papules developing into crusts * Skin thickening and large folds ## Footnote Diagnosis is made by deep skin scrapings, skin biopsy, or response to treatment.

Answer 391

* Doramectin * Eprinomectin * Ivermectin * Hot lime sulfur dips or sprays * Phosmet ## Footnote Treatments should follow label instructions for dilution and frequency.

Answer 392

TRUE ## Footnote It can result in a transient, self-limiting dermatitis in humans.

Answer 393

Psoroptes ovis ## Footnote It is a nonburrowing mite that lives on the skin surface.

Answer 394

* Thick, scabby crusts * Alopecia * Intense pruritus * Papules and lichenification ## Footnote Secondary bacterial infections are common in severe cases.

Answer 395

Direct contact of infested and susceptible hosts ## Footnote Transmission can also occur via contaminated environments and fomites.

Answer 396

Chorioptes bovis ## Footnote It is the most common type of mange in cattle in the US.

Answer 397

* Allergic, exudative dermatitis * Nodules, papules, crusts, and ulcers ## Footnote Lesions typically begin at the pastern and spread up the legs.

Answer 398

* Pour-on doramectin * Eprinomectin * Pour-on moxidectin * Hot lime sulfur dips or sprays ## Footnote Treatments should follow label instructions for dilution and frequency.

Answer 399

Demodex spp. ## Footnote D bovis is the most common species infesting hair follicles.

Answer 400

* Follicular papules and nodules * Chronic inflammation * Formation of ulcers and abscesses ## Footnote Pruritus is absent in demodectic mange.

Answer 401

Psorobia bos ## Footnote It is usually nonpathogenic and rarely causes clinical signs.

Answer 402

Macrocyclic lactones ## Footnote These are likely effective against this infestation.

Answer 403

Sarcoptes scabiei ## Footnote S scabieiovis infests sheep and S scabieicaprae infests goats.

Answer 404

* Formation of crusts * Intense pruritus * Decreased reproduction and milk yield ## Footnote Affected goats may show marked hyperkeratosis.

Answer 405

Chorioptes bovis ## Footnote Infestation is more common in rams than in ewes or lambs.

Answer 406

Hot lime sulfur spray or dip ## Footnote Treatment should be repeated every 12 days if needed.

Answer 407

Chorioptes bovis ## Footnote Infestation is more common in rams than in ewes or lambs, and lesions are similar to those in cattle.

Answer 408

Exudative dermatitis ## Footnote This condition can affect semen quality due to increased temperature of infested scrota.

Answer 409

Psoroptes ovis ## Footnote This mite has been eradicated in some countries but persists in many others.

Answer 410

* Intense pruritus * Large, scaly, crusted lesions * Wool loss * Secondary bacterial infection ## Footnote If untreated, affected sheep may become emaciated and anemic.

Answer 411

Psorobia ovis ## Footnote Most infested sheep are not affected, but it can cause significant economic losses.

Answer 412

Sarcoptic mange ## Footnote Caused by Sarcoptes scabiei equi, it leads to intense pruritus and severe skin lesions.

Answer 413

* Small papules * Vesicles * Crusts * Alopecia ## Footnote Lesions typically start on the head, neck, and shoulders.

Answer 414

Chorioptic mange ## Footnote It is the most common form of mange in horses and often affects draft horses.

Answer 415

Demodex ovis ## Footnote Demodectic mange is not common in sheep but is more prevalent in goats.

Answer 416

* Nonpruritic papules * Nodules * Scaling * Inflammation ## Footnote Lesions commonly develop over the face, neck, shoulders, and sides.

Answer 417

Trombiculid mites ## Footnote These mites can cause severely pruritic papules and wheals, especially in late summer and fall.

Answer 418

Sarcoptes scabiei var suis ## Footnote All pig herds must be considered potentially infested unless from specific pathogen-free colonies.

Answer 419

* Direct contact * Fomites * Sow to piglets ## Footnote Transmission can occur rapidly, with pruritus appearing in piglets as young as four days old.

Answer 420

* Culling severely infested breeding stock * Treating all animals simultaneously * Environmental treatments ## Footnote Leaving one pig untreated can lead to reinfestation of the whole herd.

Answer 421

10 to 14 days ## Footnote A second dose may be necessary for complete resolution.

Answer 422

* Doramectin * Ivermectin ## Footnote These treatments are considered highly effective, with a second dose sometimes necessary for complete resolution.

Answer 423

Every 3–7 days ## Footnote This is different from other species, where lime sulfur dips are repeated every 12 days.

Answer 424

Label instructions ## Footnote There are three possible lime sulfur dilutions for use on swine.

Answer 425

FALSE ## Footnote Certain spray formulations are labeled for use, but permethrin is not the preferred option.

Answer 426

Re-treated in 14 days ## Footnote Animals should be wet thoroughly with the product.

Answer 427

Sarcoptic mange ## Footnote It should be applied at the species-specific dilution instructions on the label.

Answer 428

A single treatment ## Footnote A second treatment can be applied 14 days later if necessary.

Answer 429

* Reddening of the skin * Pustules * Alopecia ## Footnote Although rare in domestic pigs, it can be common in wild boars without overt clinical signs.

Answer 430

* Sebaceous glands in eyelids * Cheeks * Around the eyes * Mouth * Snout * Ventral neck * Ventrum * Thighs ## Footnote The highest prevalence and greatest numbers were found in sebaceous glands.

Answer 431

No ## Footnote There is currently no reliable treatment available.

Answer 432

* Nutritional Dermatoses * Skin Manifestations of Internal Organ Disorders * Cutaneous Manifestations of Internal Malignancy * Cutaneous Manifestations of Renal Disease * Toxic Dermatosis * Dermatologic Manifestations of Endocrinopathies * Dermatosis Associated With Neuropathies ## Footnote These systemic diseases often lead to noninflammatory lesions and alopecia.

Answer 433

* Nutritional deficiency of proteins * Fats * Minerals * Vitamins * Trace elements ## Footnote These are uncommon in dogs and cats fed modern, balanced diets.

Answer 434

* Siberian Huskies * Alaskan Malamutes ## Footnote These breeds may require additional zinc in their diet.

Answer 435

* Erythema * Crusting * Ulcerations * Alopecia * Hyperkeratosis ## Footnote These lesions may precede clinical signs of the internal disease.

Answer 436

* Superficial perivascular to lichenoid dermatitis * Marked diffuse parakeratotic hyperkeratosis * Striking inter- and intracellular edema limited to the upper half of the epidermis ## Footnote This condition is often seen in dogs with hepatic dysfunction.

Answer 437

* Bilaterally symmetric truncal alopecia * Alopecia of the tail * Increased scale * Secondary pyoderma * Hypothyroidism ## Footnote These signs are typical of endocrine dysfunction.

Answer 438

TRUE ## Footnote Additional signs include seborrhea, calcinosis cutis, and secondary pyoderma.

Answer 439

* Bilateral alopecia * Occasional pruritus * Papular eruption ## Footnote These changes are often seen with Sertoli cell tumors.

Answer 440

* Renal cystadenomas * Cystadenocarcinomas * Renal epithelial cysts ## Footnote This syndrome has been reported in German Shepherd Dogs and occasionally other breeds.

Answer 441

* Thallium sulfate * Ergot * Mercury * Iodides ## Footnote These substances can produce various skin changes.

Answer 442

* Pruritus * Secondary infection ## Footnote This is especially common in cats with generalized Malassezia infection.

Answer 443

* Sensory neuropathies * Cauda equina syndrome * Pseudorabies * Neoplasia of peripheral nerves * Syringomyelia or Chiari-like malformation ## Footnote These conditions can lead to pruritus and scratching.

Answer 444

* IV or oral supplementation of amino acids * Surgical removal of glucagonoma (if possible) ## Footnote Supportive treatment is essential for managing this condition.

Answer 445

* Presentation of skin lesions and breed predispositions aid diagnosis of the primary disease ## Footnote Clinical signs will likely resolve with treatment of the primary disease.

Answer 446

* Autoimmune conditions * Infectious diseases * Environmental factors * Neoplastic conditions * Genetic issues * Systemic conditions * Neurological conditions ## Footnote These causes can lead to various symptoms and require different diagnostic approaches.

Answer 447

* History * Physical examination * Surface cytological examination * Skin biopsy ## Footnote These methods help decide if treatment trial or benign neglect is appropriate.

Answer 448

The haired portions of the muzzle ## Footnote Pyoderma is one of the conditions that can cause nasal dermatoses.

Answer 449

* Crusting of the muzzle * Occasional exudation of serum * Ulceration ## Footnote These symptoms can affect the entire muzzle.

Answer 450

FALSE ## Footnote It is often misdiagnosed for lupus variants and primarily affects nonpigmented areas.

Answer 451

* Topical corticosteroid lotion (betamethasone valerate) * Severe reduction of sunlight exposure * Topical sunscreens (applied twice daily) ## Footnote Treatment aims to relieve inflammation and protect the affected areas.

Answer 452

* Pemphigus complex * Discoid lupus erythematosus * Uveodermatologic syndrome * Mucocutaneous lupus * Vitiligo * Arteritis of the nasal philtrum ## Footnote These conditions often cause crusting, erosion, and bleeding.

Answer 453

Uveodermatologic syndrome ## Footnote This condition can lead to blindness and requires immediate treatment.

Answer 454

* Staphylococcus spp * Fungal organisms (Cryptococcus, Sporothrix, Blastomyces, Aspergillus) * Leishmania ## Footnote These infections can lead to significant symptoms and require specific antimicrobial therapy.

Answer 455

* Crusts * Depigmentation of the nasal planum ## Footnote This condition primarily affects northern breeds and young adults.

Answer 456

* Fronding extensions of the dorsal aspect of the nasal planum * Absence of inflammatory lesions ## Footnote This condition occurs in older adult dogs and generally requires no treatment.

Answer 457

Hepatocutaneous syndrome ## Footnote This condition leads to multifocal lesions and requires histological examination for diagnosis.

Answer 458

Parasympathetic neuropathy ## Footnote Damage to the facial nerve can lead to excessive dryness of the nasal mucosa.

Answer 459

Bacterial dermatitis ## Footnote Pyoderma is an umbrella term for any purulent skin disease, meaning 'pus in the skin.'

Answer 460

* Multifocal areas of alopecia * Follicular papules or pustules * Epidermal collarettes * Crusts and scales ## Footnote The trunk and ventrum are the most commonly affected regions.

Answer 461

* Ectoparasites * Allergies (atopic dermatitis, food allergy, flea bite allergy) * Endocrinopathies (hypothyroidism, hyperadrenocorticism) * Keratinization disorders * Immune-mediated conditions * Follicular dysplasias * Poor grooming ## Footnote These triggers can lead to overcolonization of the skin by bacteria.

Answer 462

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius ## Footnote This bacterium is commonly found in healthy dogs' skin and can cause infections.

Answer 463

TRUE ## Footnote Deep pyoderma expands into the dermis and has a higher risk of bacteremia.

Answer 464

* Surface pyoderma * Superficial pyoderma * Deep pyoderma ## Footnote Each type varies in severity and treatment approach.

Answer 465

A superficial bacterial infection around the lips and perioral skin ## Footnote It can also be present in periocular skin and other areas.

Answer 466

* Clinical evaluation * Cytological evaluation * Bacterial culture * Ruling out other causes ## Footnote Diagnosis involves confirming the presence of bacteria and characteristic lesions.

Answer 467

* Shampoos * Creams * Gels * Ointments * Sprays * Mousses ## Footnote Topical therapy should be the sole treatment in most cases, especially for methicillin-resistant infections.

Answer 468

* Chlorhexidine (2–4%) * Benzoyl peroxide (2.5–3%) * Chlorhexidine (2%) with miconazole (2%) * Sodium hypochlorite (< 0.05%) ## Footnote These ingredients have various antibacterial and antifungal properties.

Answer 469

Failure to identify an underlying trigger ## Footnote Other factors include antimicrobial undertreatment and inappropriate use of immunosuppressive therapy.

Answer 470

* Pain * Crusting * Odor * Exudation of blood and pus * Erythema * Swelling * Ulcerations ## Footnote Deep pyoderma can occur in various areas, including the muzzle and interdigital spaces.

Answer 471

A disorder of ruptured hair follicles in the dermis ## Footnote It can be secondary to various primary causes and is commonly secondarily infected.

Answer 472

* Crusted papules (miliary dermatitis) * Eosinophilic plaques ## Footnote Superficial pyoderma in cats is often overlooked and underdiagnosed.

Answer 473

To guide the selection of systemic antimicrobial therapy ## Footnote Bacterial culture and susceptibility testing are essential due to antimicrobial resistance.

Answer 474

Allergic skin diseases, parasitic diseases, and feline chin acne ## Footnote Chin acne is a disorder of keratinization that can lead to secondary infections.

Answer 475

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius ## Footnote This pathogen produces beta-lactamase, complicating treatment options.

Answer 476

TRUE ## Footnote These antibiotics are ineffective due to the beta-lactamase production by Staphylococcus pseudintermedius.

Answer 477

Results of bacterial culture and susceptibility testing ## Footnote This ensures appropriate selection of systemic antimicrobials.

Answer 478

* Clindamycin (11 mg/kg, PO, every 24 hours for up to 21 days) * First-generation cephalosporins (e.g., cephalexin 25–30 mg/kg, PO, every 12 hours for 21 to 42 days) * Amoxicillin-clavulanate (12.5–25 mg/kg, PO, every 12 hours for up to 30 days) ## Footnote These drugs are effective against staphylococci and have a broad spectrum of activity.

Answer 479

Until complete resolution of clinical lesions ## Footnote Therapy should continue until no evidence of cytological infection is found.

Answer 480

Reconsider the diagnosis ## Footnote Lack of response may indicate an incorrect initial diagnosis.

Answer 481

* Fluoroquinolones ## Footnote These should be chosen based on bacterial culture and antimicrobial susceptibility testing results.

Answer 482

These strains can be erythromycin resistant but clindamycin susceptible ## Footnote A D test is necessary to check for inducible resistance before selecting clindamycin.

Answer 483

To increase immunity to particular pathogens ## Footnote They are used sporadically in dogs for recurrent pyoderma.

Answer 484

0.5 mL, SC, twice weekly for 10–12 weeks ## Footnote If effective, frequency can be reduced, but lifelong therapy is often needed.

Answer 485

Superficial bacterial pyoderma ## Footnote This condition is prevalent in dogs.

Answer 486

Topical therapy alone ## Footnote This approach is effective for these types of infections.

Answer 487

* Scaling skin * Greasy hair * Not pruritic ## Footnote Primary seborrhea is a rare keratinization disorder diagnosed by ruling out other causes.

Answer 488

Secondary seborrhea ## Footnote Secondary seborrhea is often due to an underlying disease that predisposes to excessive scaling.

Answer 489

* Endocrinopathies * Allergies ## Footnote These conditions can lead to excessive scaling, crusting, or oiliness.

Answer 490

* American Cocker Spaniels * English Springer Spaniels * Basset Hounds * West Highland White Terriers * Dachshunds * Labrador and Golden Retrievers * German Shepherd Dogs ## Footnote A familial history of seborrhea is typical in these breeds.

Answer 491

* Increased scale formation * Excessive greasiness * Secondary inflammation and infection * Not pruritic ## Footnote Secondary seborrhea may present similar signs but can be pruritic.

Answer 492

* Skin scrapings * Superficial skin cytologic evaluation * Blood testing * Skin biopsy ## Footnote A diagnosis should be reserved for cases where all underlying causes have been excluded.

Answer 493

FALSE ## Footnote Primary seborrhea is characterized by a lack of pruritus.

Answer 494

* Frequent bathing * Administration of vitamin A or a retinoid ## Footnote Bathing 2–3 times per week is recommended until the desired effect is achieved.

Answer 495

* Treatment of the underlying cause * Antimicrobial treatment ## Footnote Secondary seborrhea treatment is more complex due to the need to address the primary condition.

Answer 496

* Remove stratum corneum cells * Decrease scale * Soften skin ## Footnote Examples include sulfur, salicylic acid, and benzoyl peroxide.

Answer 497

* Decrease transepidermal water loss * Hydrate the skin ## Footnote They are effective after the skin has been rehydrated.

Answer 498

* Topical antifungal shampoo * Systemic antifungal (e.g., fluconazole or itraconazole) ## Footnote These treatments are used if topical treatment is insufficient.

Answer 499

Hyperadrenocorticism or previous steroid treatment ## Footnote It is one of the diagnostic clues in seborrhea cases.

Answer 500

1–2 times per week ## Footnote This frequency is generally sufficient after achieving the desired effect.

Answer 501

* Lower cutaneous pH * Normalize keratinization * Decrease sebaceous secretions ## Footnote These actions result in potent antibacterial activity.

Answer 502

Select a systemic antimicrobial based on aerobic skin culture ## Footnote This is part of the treatment plan for secondary seborrhea.

Answer 503

* Usually secondary to pemphigus foliaceus * Secondary to equine sarcoidosis ## Footnote These conditions are examples of underlying causes in equine seborrhea.

Answer 504

benzoyl peroxide ## Footnote Benzoyl peroxide shampoos are effective for follicular flushing activities.

Answer 505

TRUE ## Footnote These shampoos are strong degreasing agents.

Answer 506

2%–4% ## Footnote Chlorhexidine is often used in association with tris-EDTA or ethyl lactate.

Answer 507

comedones ## Footnote This action is also beneficial for conditions like demodicosis.

Answer 508

* Antibacterial actions * Degreasing actions * Follicular flushing actions ## Footnote They are particularly useful for localized conditions like demodicosis and canine acne.

Answer 509

rare ## Footnote In contrast, secondary seborrhea is common.

Answer 510

FALSE ## Footnote However, secondary infection or inflammation can occur, leading to pruritus.

Answer 511

controlled ## Footnote Management is essential for maintaining the condition.

Answer 512

Tumors of the skin and soft tissues ## Footnote These tumors are easily identified and are influenced by environmental exposure.

Answer 513

* Chemical carcinogens * Ionizing radiation * Viruses ## Footnote Hormonal and genetic factors may also play a role.

Answer 514

* Epithelial * Mesenchymal * Neural and neuroectodermal ## Footnote Each type has the potential to develop distinctive tumors.

Answer 515

A localized developmental defect associated with enlargement of one or more elements of the skin ## Footnote A sebaceous hamartoma is an example where sebaceous glands are prominent.

Answer 516

Localized, noninfiltrative, easily excisable ## Footnote It is surrounded by a capsule.

Answer 517

Infiltrative with metastatic potential ## Footnote It poses a greater risk compared to benign neoplasms.

Answer 518

FALSE ## Footnote They can also appear as alopecic plaques, erythematous patches, wheals, or nonhealing ulcers.

Answer 519

No therapy ## Footnote This is especially true for older companion animals.

Answer 520

To determine tumor type and appropriate treatment planning ## Footnote It can save animals from unnecessary surgery for benign masses.

Answer 521

Plan for wide, deep surgical margins ## Footnote This ensures adequate removal at the first surgery.

Answer 522

Histologic examination and immunohistochemical staining ## Footnote These methods detect specific cellular markers that determine phenotype.

Answer 523

Wide (3 cm) surgical margins ## Footnote This is crucial for ensuring complete excision.

Answer 524

Benign, superficial lesions ## Footnote It is less effective for malignant cutaneous neoplasms.

Answer 525

* Round cell tumors * Solid tumors that cannot be excised completely ## Footnote It is generally palliative but can lead to long remissions.

Answer 526

* Chemotherapy * Radiation therapy ## Footnote These can be used as primary methods or adjuncts to surgery.

Answer 527

Tumor margins and the tumor bed ## Footnote It may extend the tumor-free interval.

Answer 528

Continue follow-up for ≥2 years ## Footnote This is important to monitor for local recurrence.

Answer 529

* Epidermal hamartomas (nevi) * Congenital papillomas of foals * Canine warty dyskeratomas ## Footnote These lesions are benign and not associated with papilloma virus infection.

Answer 530

* Pigmented * Hyperkeratotic * Vaguely papillated papules and plaques ## Footnote They may be arranged in a linear pattern and can be associated with pustules and acantholytic cells.

Answer 531

FALSE ## Footnote They are considered a developmental defect and are benign.

Answer 532

* Norwegian Elkhounds * Belgian Sheepdogs * Lhasa Apsos * Bearded Collies ## Footnote These benign neoplasms can develop anywhere on the body, with common sites being the back, tail, and extremities.

Answer 533

* Cutaneous squamous cell carcinomas * Subungual squamous cell carcinomas ## Footnote Cutaneous squamous cell carcinomas are the most frequently diagnosed carcinomas arising in the skin.

Answer 534

* Head * Distal aspects of extremities * Ventral abdomen * Perineum ## Footnote These tumors are often associated with prolonged solar injury.

Answer 535

Surgical excision ## Footnote These carcinomas are locally invasive and may be multicentric.

Answer 536

* Papule or nodule * Central cornified pore * May appear as cornified cysts ## Footnote They are benign and treatment is optional unless there is self-trauma or secondary infection.

Answer 537

* Appaloosa * Belgian * American Paint * Pinto ## Footnote These tumors commonly arise in nonpigmented, poorly haired areas near mucous membranes.

Answer 538

Prolonged exposure to sunlight ## Footnote This is especially significant in white cats and minimally pigmented areas of dogs.

Answer 539

Cutaneous squamous cell carcinomas ## Footnote They develop in adult or senior horses with white or part-white coats.

Answer 540

Complete excision ## Footnote Although benign, these tumors can be expansive and may cause ulceration.

Answer 541

* Firm * Solitary * Encapsulated * Often hairless or ulcerated nodules ## Footnote They can vary in size from < 1 cm to >10 cm in diameter.

Answer 542

Actinic injury ## Footnote These tumors are common in breeds with white hair and poorly pigmented skin.

Answer 543

* Perineal region * Vulvar regions * Skin of teats and udders ## Footnote Both males and females can develop sun-induced tumors on the ears.

Answer 544

* Squamous cell carcinomas * Papillomas ## Footnote Angoras are most at risk, but Saanen goats can also develop these tumors.

Answer 545

FALSE ## Footnote Squamous cell carcinomas are extremely uncommon in swine.

Answer 546

* Endophytic lesions * Exoendophytic lesions ## Footnote Endophytic lesions are raised, irregular dermal masses with an ulcerated surface, while exoendophytic lesions are covered by a papillated epidermis.

Answer 547

* Lameness * Nail malformation * Infection mimicking chronic osteomyelitis * Loss of the claw ## Footnote These signs indicate the presence of subungual squamous cell carcinomas.

Answer 548

* Surgical excision * Amputation of the involved digit or pinnae ## Footnote Margins of at least 2 cm are recommended for surgical excision.

Answer 549

95% ## Footnote This rate applies to cases where the lesion originated in the digit.

Answer 550

* Radiation * Chemotherapy ## Footnote These therapies may enhance treatment outcomes.

Answer 551

< 10% ## Footnote This low survival rate highlights the aggressive nature of these tumors.

Answer 552

* Creates local inflammatory reaction * Modifies immune responses ## Footnote Imiquimod stimulates Toll-like receptor 7 and dendritic cells to target carcinoma cells.

Answer 553

* UV window screens * Sunscreen * Keeping animals indoors during peak sunlight hours ## Footnote These measures help reduce exposure to harmful UV radiation.

Answer 554

* Radiotherapy * Wide surgical excision * Cryosurgery ## Footnote Surface or interstitial brachytherapy is commonly used for treatment.

Answer 555

* Immunosuppression * Cats >10 years of age ## Footnote This disease is characterized by multiple discrete, erythematous plaques and may progress to invasive carcinoma.

Answer 556

Malformations of the hair follicle ## Footnote They are common in dogs and occasionally found in other species.

Answer 557

* Epidermoid cysts * Epidermal inclusion cysts ## Footnote These cysts are the most common type of keratinized cutaneous cysts.

Answer 558

* Congenital malformations * Fully formed hair shafts ## Footnote They are commonly found on the dorsal midline of the head or along the vertebral column.

Answer 559

* Surgical excision * Curettage of affected bone ## Footnote Keratomas can induce lameness and deformity of the hoof wall.

Answer 560

* Rare, benign hair-follicle neoplasms * Most commonly found on the head of dogs ## Footnote Poodles may be predisposed to developing these tumors.

Answer 561

* Local invasiveness * Continuity with the epidermis * Association with inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis ## Footnote They are difficult to excise and often metastasize.

Answer 562

* Dogs * Cats ## Footnote These tumors are associated with the apocrine glands found in hair follicles.

Answer 563

* Cystic apocrine gland dilations * Apocrine gland adenomas * Apocrine gland adenocarcinomas ## Footnote These tumors are characterized by their specific histological features and common sites of occurrence.

Answer 564

hamartomas ## Footnote They can exist in cystic and diffuse forms, commonly found in middle-aged or older dogs and cats.

Answer 565

* Cystic form * Diffuse form ## Footnote The cystic form has poor association with hair follicles, while the diffuse form is associated with multiple hair follicles.

Answer 566

* Dogs * Cats * Rarely horses ## Footnote These tumors resemble the secretory region of apocrine glands and are most common in older animals.

Answer 567

* Great Pyrenees * Chow Chows * Alaskan Malamutes ## Footnote These tumors frequently develop on the head, neck, and extremities.

Answer 568

FALSE ## Footnote They are rare but most frequently identified in older dogs and cats.

Answer 569

* Axillary region * Inguinal region ## Footnote These tumors can be confused with mammary gland ductular adenocarcinomas.

Answer 570

* Dogs * Anecdotally in cats ## Footnote Older English Cocker Spaniels, Springer Spaniels, and Dachshunds are most at risk.

Answer 571

* Deep, firm, nodular masses * Compression of the rectum * Constipation ## Footnote These tumors may also cause humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy.

Answer 572

* Footpads of carnivores * Frog of ungulates * Carpus of pigs * Nasolabial region of ruminants ## Footnote Tumors derived from these glands are extremely rare and mostly malignant.

Answer 573

* Sebaceous gland hamartomas * Sebaceous gland hyperplasias * Sebaceous gland adenomas * Sebaceous gland epitheliomas ## Footnote These categories are based on morphologic features rather than behavioral characteristics.

Answer 574

* Manchester Terriers * Wheaten Terriers * Welsh Terriers ## Footnote These lesions represent a senile change and are often papillated masses.

Answer 575

Excision ## Footnote Complete removal can be difficult due to the infiltrative nature of these tumors.

Answer 576

* Perianal region * Ventral midline * Dorsal and ventral tail * Lumbar and sacral regions ## Footnote These tumors arise from modified sebaceous glands and are influenced by androgens.

Answer 577

* Hepatoid gland hyperplasias * Hepatoid gland adenomas ## Footnote These tumors are most common in senior dogs and often found in the perianal region.

Answer 578

Guarded ## Footnote These tumors have metastatic potential and often require wide surgical excision.

Answer 579

Papilloma viruses ## Footnote These viruses are small, double-stranded DNA viruses and can cause multiple lesions in younger animals.

Answer 580

Optional excision ## Footnote Treatment is usually only necessary if the tumors are inflamed or infected.

Answer 581

Viruses ## Footnote Papillomatosis is most common in cattle, horses, and dogs.

Answer 582

Identification of the virus or its cytopathic effects ## Footnote This includes changes known as koilocytic atypia or koilocytosis.

Answer 583

* Head * Neck * Shoulders * Back * Abdomen ## Footnote The extent and duration of lesions depend on the virus type and area affected.

Answer 584

Approximately 2 months ## Footnote Warts may last for at least 1 year.

Answer 585

3–4 weeks ## Footnote Papillomatosis may occasionally recur due to loss of immunity.

Answer 586

* Dermal fibroblasts * Keratinocytes ## Footnote They appear as papulonodules with a warty surface.

Answer 587

* Pain * Disfigurement * Infection of the penis in young bulls * Dystocia in heifers ## Footnote These lesions can lead to significant health issues.

Answer 588

Canine mucous membrane papillomatosis ## Footnote It is characterized by multiple warts on oral mucous membranes.

Answer 589

Cutaneous papillomas ## Footnote These are often solitary and develop on older dogs.

Answer 590

Cutaneous inverted papillomas ## Footnote They resemble intracutaneous cornifying epitheliomas.

Answer 591

Multicentric squamous cell carcinoma ## Footnote Typical warty lesions associated with papilloma virus infection are not present.

Answer 592

Surgical removal ## Footnote Surgery should be done when warts are near their maximum size or regressing.

Answer 593

Preventive but of little value in treating existing lesions ## Footnote Wart viruses are mostly species-specific.

Answer 594

To benefit individual animals with multiple or persistent warts ## Footnote It stimulates T cells and endogenous IL-2 levels.

Answer 595

Vaccination with ground wart tissue suspension ## Footnote Autogenous vaccines may be more effective than commercially available ones.

Answer 596

4–6 weeks of age ## Footnote The vaccination is repeated in 4–6 weeks and at 1 year of age.

Answer 597

3–6 months ## Footnote Vaccination should continue for at least 1 year after the last wart disappears.

Answer 598

Fumigating with formaldehyde ## Footnote This helps in controlling the spread of the virus.

Integumentary Flashcards

(622 cards)