essentials > IV Therapy > Flashcards

IV Therapy Flashcards

(145 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q
  1. What is the primary purpose of IV therapy?
    A) To provide oral medications
    B) To deliver fluids, medications, and nutrients directly into the vascular system
    C) To monitor vital signs
    D) To replace oral intake
A

B) To deliver fluids, medications, and nutrients directly into the vascular system
Rationale: IV therapy provides direct access to the bloodstream for immediate effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which of the following is a common goal of IV therapy?
    A) To induce sleep
    B) To prevent or correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
    C) To promote oral hydration
    D) To decrease blood pressure
A

B) To prevent or correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
Rationale: One of the main goals of IV therapy is to maintain or restore fluid and electrolyte balance in patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What is the most critical assessment prior to initiating IV therapy?
    A) Patient’s dietary preferences
    B) Patient’s weight
    C) Patency of the IV access site
    D) Patient’s level of activity
A

C) Patency of the IV access site
Rationale: Ensuring that the IV access site is patent is essential to prevent complications during IV therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which type of IV solution is typically used to provide electrolytes and hydration?
    A) Hypertonic saline
    B) Dextrose in water
    C) Normal saline
    D) Lipid emulsion
A

C) Normal saline
Rationale: Normal saline is commonly used to provide hydration and correct electrolyte imbalances in patients receiving IV therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What should the nurse monitor for when administering IV therapy?
    A) Patient’s emotional state
    B) IV site for signs of infiltration or phlebitis
    C) Only the patient’s blood pressure
    D) Dietary intake
A

B) IV site for signs of infiltration or phlebitis
Rationale: Regularly monitoring the IV site for complications such as infiltration or phlebitis is critical for patient safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which type of IV access is primarily used for short-term therapy?
    A) Central line
    B) Peripheral IV
    C) Venous port
    D) PICC line
A

B) Peripheral IV
Rationale: Peripheral IVs are typically used for short-term access, often in the veins of the arms or legs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What is a key characteristic of a central line?
    A) It is always inserted in the hand
    B) It is used for short-term therapy
    C) It can remain in place for weeks to months
    D) It is not used for medication administration
A

C) It can remain in place for weeks to months
Rationale: Central lines are designed for long-term use and can be maintained for extended periods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following is a common indication for using a PICC line?
    A) Short-term antibiotic therapy
    B) Frequent blood draws
    C) Long-term medication administration
    D) Routine hydration
A

C) Long-term medication administration
Rationale: PICC lines are ideal for patients needing long-term intravenous therapy, such as chemotherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. What advantage does a venous port provide?
    A) It is less costly
    B) It allows for easy access without repeated venipuncture
    C) It can be inserted by nurses
    D) It is only used in emergencies
A

B) It allows for easy access without repeated venipuncture
Rationale: Venous ports provide access to the bloodstream without the need for multiple needle sticks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which location is most commonly used for peripheral IV insertion?
    A) Neck
    B) Subclavian vein
    C) Antecubital fossa
    D) Femoral vein
A

C) Antecubital fossa
Rationale: The antecubital fossa is a common site for peripheral IV insertion due to the larger veins present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What is a potential complication of peripheral IV therapy?
    A) Infection
    B) Central line thrombosis
    C) Catheter misplacement
    D) Air embolism
A

A) Infection
Rationale: Infection is a risk with any IV access but is particularly common with peripheral IVs due to their frequent use and shorter duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which type of IV access is least likely to cause a phlebitis reaction?
    A) Peripheral IV
    B) Central line
    C) PICC line
    D) Venous port
A

D) Venous port
Rationale: Venous ports are less likely to cause phlebitis since they are accessed less frequently than peripheral IVs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What is an important nursing action before inserting a peripheral IV?
    A) Check the patient’s vital signs
    B) Assess the patient’s fluid intake
    C) Choose an appropriate site and clean it thoroughly
    D) Administer a sedative
A

C) Choose an appropriate site and clean it thoroughly
Rationale: Proper site selection and cleaning are crucial to prevent infection and ensure successful IV placement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. What is a primary benefit of using a central line over a peripheral IV?
    A) It is less invasive
    B) It is more comfortable for the patient
    C) It allows for administration of larger volumes and irritating substances
    D) It is cheaper
A

C) It allows for administration of larger volumes and irritating substances
Rationale: Central lines can safely deliver larger volumes and medications that may irritate peripheral veins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. When caring for a patient with a PICC line, what should the nurse regularly monitor?
    A) Peripheral pulses
    B) Insertion site for signs of infection
    C) Patient’s weight
    D) Blood pressure only
A

B) Insertion site for signs of infection
Rationale: Monitoring the PICC line insertion site for infection is essential for preventing complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which type of IV access is ideal for patients requiring frequent blood draws and IV medications?
    A) Peripheral IV
    B) Venous port
    C) Central line
    D) Both A and C
A

D) Both A and C
Rationale: Both peripheral IVs and central lines can be used for frequent blood draws and medication administration, depending on the patient’s needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. What is the main concern with long-term use of a central line?
    A) Cost
    B) Infection and thrombosis
    C) Patient discomfort
    D) Skin irritation
A

B) Infection and thrombosis
Rationale: Long-term use of central lines carries risks of infection and thrombosis due to the presence of a foreign body in the vascular system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. In which situation would a nurse most likely use a venous port?
    A) For hydration in an emergency
    B) For a patient requiring long-term chemotherapy
    C) For short-term IV antibiotics
    D) For blood transfusions
A

B) For a patient requiring long-term chemotherapy
Rationale: Venous ports are commonly used for patients needing long-term access for chemotherapy and other treatments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. What should the nurse do if a patient experiences swelling at the IV site?
    A) Continue the infusion
    B) Assess for infiltration or phlebitis
    C) Apply heat to the area
    D) Remove the IV immediately
A

B) Assess for infiltration or phlebitis
Rationale: Swelling at the IV site may indicate infiltration or phlebitis, and assessment is necessary to determine the appropriate action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What is an essential teaching point for a patient with a central line?
    A) Avoid all physical activity
    B) Keep the area clean and dry
    C) Change the dressing weekly
    D) Use the line only for IV medications
A

B) Keep the area clean and dry
Rationale: Maintaining cleanliness around the central line insertion site is critical to prevent infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. What complication can occur if a venous port is not accessed correctly?
    A) Allergic reaction
    B) Catheter rupture
    C) Infection
    D) Hematoma
A

C) Infection
Rationale: Improper access of a venous port can introduce bacteria, leading to potential infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Which of the following is a common indication for peripheral IV access?
    A) Long-term fluid replacement
    B) Administering IV medications for a few days
    C) Continuous parenteral nutrition
    D) Central venous pressure monitoring
A

B) Administering IV medications for a few days
Rationale: Peripheral IVs are commonly used for short-term medication administration, typically lasting a few days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. What is a critical step when flushing a central line?
    A) Use saline only
    B) Apply pressure to the line
    C) Flush with sterile water
    D) Follow a specific protocol for flushing
A

D) Follow a specific protocol for flushing
Rationale: Following established flushing protocols is essential to prevent complications and ensure patency of the line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. What assessment should the nurse perform after inserting a peripheral IV?
    A) Assess for redness and swelling at the site
    B) Ask the patient about their dietary preferences
    C) Check for a pulse in the opposite limb
    D) Measure the patient’s temperature
A

A) Assess for redness and swelling at the site
Rationale: Assessing the IV site for redness, swelling, or other signs of complications is crucial immediately after insertion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
20. When is it appropriate to use a central line instead of a peripheral IV? A) For hydration in a healthy adult B) When long-term therapy is anticipated C) For a single dose of medication D) For routine vaccinations
B) When long-term therapy is anticipated Rationale: Central lines are indicated for long-term therapy, such as chemotherapy or long-term antibiotic administration.
26
1. What is the primary goal of large-volume infusions? A) To deliver medications quickly B) To provide hydration and electrolytes safely over time C) To increase blood pressure D) To perform a blood transfusion
B) To provide hydration and electrolytes safely over time Rationale: Large-volume infusions are primarily used to administer fluids and maintain hydration and electrolyte balance.
27
2. What defines a bolus in IV therapy? A) Continuous infusion B) Rapid injection of a concentrated dose C) Small volume of fluid D) Use of a peripheral IV only
B) Rapid injection of a concentrated dose Rationale: A bolus refers to a quick injection of a concentrated medication or fluid, often for immediate therapeutic effects.
28
3. In which scenario would an IV piggyback be used? A) To provide large volumes of saline B) To infuse a medication mixed in a small volume of IV fluid through an existing line C) For hydration therapy D) To monitor blood pressure
B) To infuse a medication mixed in a small volume of IV fluid through an existing line Rationale: An IV piggyback allows for the administration of medications without disrupting the primary IV line.
29
4. What is a key consideration when administering large-volume infusions? A) Administer at a rapid rate B) Monitor for signs of fluid overload C) Use only dextrose solutions D) Avoid using a pump
B) Monitor for signs of fluid overload Rationale: When administering large-volume infusions, it's essential to monitor for signs of fluid overload, such as edema or difficulty breathing.
30
5. What is the typical volume range for a large-volume infusion? A) 50-100 mL B) 250-500 mL C) 500-1000 mL D) 1000-2000 mL
C) 500-1000 mL Rationale: Large-volume infusions typically range from 500 to 1000 mL, depending on the clinical situation and patient needs.
31
6. Which of the following is a potential complication of bolus administration? A) Fluid overload B) Slow infusion rates C) Drug interactions D) Prolonged therapy
A) Fluid overload Rationale: Rapid administration of a bolus can lead to fluid overload, particularly in patients with compromised cardiac or renal function.
32
7. What is the main advantage of using an IV piggyback system? A) It reduces medication administration time B) It allows for multiple medications to be infused simultaneously C) It minimizes the risk of infection D) It facilitates continuous infusion
B) It allows for multiple medications to be infused simultaneously Rationale: The IV piggyback system enables the infusion of additional medications without disrupting the primary line.
33
8. How should the nurse prepare to administer a bolus? A) Dilute the medication before administration B) Verify the correct dosage and administration rate C) Administer through a peripheral IV only D) Delay administration until the patient is asleep
B) Verify the correct dosage and administration rate Rationale: Verifying the dosage and rate is critical to ensure safe and effective bolus administration.
34
9. When is it appropriate to change the IV administration from a large-volume infusion to an IV piggyback? A) When hydration is no longer needed B) When a medication needs to be administered intermittently C) Only at the end of the shift D) When the IV site is painful
B) When a medication needs to be administered intermittently Rationale: IV piggyback setups are appropriate for intermittent medication administration while maintaining the primary IV.
35
10. What should the nurse do if a patient experiences discomfort during a large-volume infusion? A) Continue the infusion B) Assess the IV site and stop the infusion if needed C) Administer pain medication D) Increase the infusion rate
B) Assess the IV site and stop the infusion if needed Rationale: The nurse should assess the IV site for complications such as infiltration or phlebitis and stop the infusion if necessary.
36
11. Which solution is often used for large-volume infusions? A) Dextrose 5% in water B) Normal saline C) 0.45% saline D) All of the above
D) All of the above Rationale: Various solutions, including dextrose in water and saline, can be used for large-volume infusions depending on patient needs.
37
12. What is a critical nursing action before starting an IV piggyback infusion? A) Ensure the primary line is disconnected B) Verify the medication with another nurse C) Administer a bolus first D) Change the IV site
B) Verify the medication with another nurse Rationale: Medication verification is essential to ensure patient safety and correct administration of the IV piggyback medication.
38
13. When administering a bolus dose, how should the nurse monitor the patient? A) Check vital signs every hour B) Observe for immediate adverse reactions C) Administer additional fluids immediately D) Provide a snack
B) Observe for immediate adverse reactions Rationale: Monitoring for immediate adverse reactions is crucial when administering a bolus due to the rapid delivery of medication.
39
14. What should be included in patient education regarding large-volume infusions? A) Explain the purpose of the infusion and what to expect B) Advise against drinking fluids C) Instruct to notify staff only for pain D) No education is necessary
A) Explain the purpose of the infusion and what to expect Rationale: Educating patients about the infusion process helps reduce anxiety and encourages them to report any concerns.
40
15. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using bolus administration? A) Requires a longer infusion time B) Increased risk of complications C) It is not suitable for all medications D) It is more cost-effective
B) Increased risk of complications Rationale: Rapid administration of a bolus can increase the risk of complications such as fluid overload or adverse drug reactions.
41
16. How can the nurse prevent complications during a large-volume infusion? A) Administer quickly B) Use a smaller IV catheter C) Monitor the patient closely for signs of overload D) Limit patient movement
C) Monitor the patient closely for signs of overload Rationale: Close monitoring helps identify complications such as fluid overload early, ensuring timely intervention.
42
17. What is the primary purpose of using a secondary IV line for a piggyback infusion? A) To administer fluids more rapidly B) To reduce the volume of fluid administered C) To infuse medications that require dilution D) To allow for medication administration without interrupting the primary infusion
D) To allow for medication administration without interrupting the primary infusion Rationale: A secondary IV line enables medication administration while maintaining the primary IV flow.
43
18. What is an essential step when transitioning from a large-volume infusion to a bolus? A) Increase the infusion rate B) Ensure the line is free of air C) Stop the IV immediately D) Change the IV site
B) Ensure the line is free of air Rationale: Ensuring that the line is free of air prevents air embolism during the transition from a large-volume infusion to a bolus.
44
19. What is a common medication that may be administered via an IV piggyback? A) Normal saline B) Antibiotics C) Electrolyte solutions D) Vitamin B12
B) Antibiotics Rationale: Antibiotics are often administered via IV piggyback to ensure they are delivered effectively while minimizing disruption to the primary IV fluid.
45
20. In which circumstance is a bolus administration particularly useful? A) For routine hydration B) During a medical emergency requiring rapid drug effect C) When a patient is stable D) For scheduled medication doses
B) During a medical emergency requiring rapid drug effect Rationale: Bolus administration is ideal in emergencies when rapid therapeutic effects are needed.
46
1. Which of the following IV solutions is considered isotonic? A) 0.45% Normal Saline B) 0.9% Normal Saline C) Dextrose 5% in water D) 3% Normal Saline
B) 0.9% Normal Saline Rationale: Isotonic solutions, like 0.9% Normal Saline, have the same osmolality as body fluids, making them suitable for fluid replacement.
47
2. What is the primary effect of administering a hypotonic IV solution? A) Increases blood volume B) Pulls water out of cells C) Moves water into cells D) Stabilizes blood pressure
C) Moves water into cells Rationale: Hypotonic solutions have lower osmolality, causing water to move into the cells, which can help rehydrate them.
48
3. Which IV solution would be best for treating a patient with hypernatremia? A) 0.9% Normal Saline B) Dextrose 10% in water C) 0.45% Normal Saline D) Lactated Ringer's
C) 0.45% Normal Saline Rationale: A hypotonic solution like 0.45% Normal Saline is appropriate for treating hypernatremia by diluting serum sodium levels.
49
4. What is the primary purpose of hypertonic IV solutions? A) To hydrate cells B) To pull water out of cells C) To maintain osmotic balance D) To deliver medications
B) To pull water out of cells Rationale: Hypertonic solutions have a higher osmolality, drawing water out of cells and into the vascular space, which can increase blood volume.
50
5. Which of the following is an example of a hypertonic solution? A) Dextrose 5% in water B) 0.9% Normal Saline C) 3% Normal Saline D) Lactated Ringer's
C) 3% Normal Saline Rationale: 3% Normal Saline is a hypertonic solution that can be used in specific clinical scenarios to treat hyponatremia or cerebral edema.
51
6. What effect does an isotonic solution have on blood cells? A) Causes them to swell B) Causes them to shrink C) No effect on cell size D) Causes them to burst
C) No effect on cell size Rationale: Isotonic solutions do not alter the size of blood cells because their osmolality is equal to that of the body’s fluids.
52
7. In what situation would you typically use a hypertonic solution? A) To hydrate a patient B) To treat severe dehydration C) To reduce cerebral edema D) For routine maintenance
C) To reduce cerebral edema Rationale: Hypertonic solutions can help manage conditions like cerebral edema by drawing fluid out of swollen cells.
53
8. Which of the following IV solutions is commonly used for fluid resuscitation? A) 0.45% Normal Saline B) Lactated Ringer's C) Dextrose 5% in water D) 3% Normal Saline
B) Lactated Ringer's Rationale: Lactated Ringer's is isotonic and commonly used for fluid resuscitation due to its balanced electrolyte content.
54
9. When would a nurse use Dextrose 5% in water? A) To treat hyperkalemia B) To provide calories and hydration C) For fluid resuscitation D) To correct hypernatremia
B) To provide calories and hydration Rationale: Dextrose 5% in water is used to provide hydration and calories, especially in patients who may not be able to eat.
55
10. What should the nurse monitor for when administering a hypotonic solution? A) Signs of fluid overload B) Electrolyte imbalances C) Blood pressure D) All of the above
D) All of the above Rationale: The nurse should monitor for potential complications such as fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances when administering hypotonic solutions.
56
11. Why might hypertonic solutions be contraindicated in some patients? A) They can cause fluid overload B) They can cause cellular dehydration C) They are too costly D) They can cause allergic reactions
B) They can cause cellular dehydration Rationale: Hypertonic solutions can lead to cellular dehydration, making them contraindicated in certain patient populations.
57
12. Which IV solution is often used for maintenance fluids? A) 0.9% Normal Saline B) Dextrose 5% in 0.45% Normal Saline C) 3% Normal Saline D) Lactated Ringer's
B) Dextrose 5% in 0.45% Normal Saline Rationale: This solution provides hydration and electrolytes, making it suitable for maintenance therapy.
58
13. In what situation would a nurse choose an isotonic solution? A) To correct dehydration B) To provide IV medications C) To treat hypernatremia D) For surgical patients
D) For surgical patients Rationale: Isotonic solutions are often used for fluid replacement during surgery to maintain hemodynamic stability.
59
14. What is the primary danger of administering hypotonic solutions too rapidly? A) Hypervolemia B) Cellular lysis C) Electrolyte imbalance D) Phlebitis
B) Cellular lysis Rationale: Rapid administration of hypotonic solutions can lead to cellular swelling and potentially lysis, especially in sensitive cells like red blood cells.
60
15. What should the nurse consider when selecting an IV solution for a patient? A) Only the patient’s age B) The patient's electrolyte status and clinical condition C) The cost of the solution D) The color of the solution
B) The patient's electrolyte status and clinical condition Rationale: Understanding the patient's clinical condition and electrolyte status is essential for selecting the appropriate IV solution.
61
16. Which of the following is true regarding hypertonic solutions? A) They can cause swelling of cells B) They are isotonic C) They should be given cautiously to patients with cardiac issues D) They dilute body fluids
C) They should be given cautiously to patients with cardiac issues Rationale: Hypertonic solutions can increase blood volume and pressure, which can be risky for patients with cardiac problems.
62
17. When administering a hypertonic solution, what is an important nursing action? A) Administer quickly without monitoring B) Monitor for signs of fluid overload C) Limit patient intake of fluids D) Use a large bore needle only
B) Monitor for signs of fluid overload Rationale: Monitoring for fluid overload is critical when administering hypertonic solutions, especially in susceptible patients.
63
18. How do isotonic solutions affect blood pressure? A) Increase blood pressure B) Decrease blood pressure C) Have no significant effect on blood pressure D) Cause hypotension
C) Have no significant effect on blood pressure Rationale: Isotonic solutions do not significantly alter blood pressure when administered appropriately.
64
19. Which IV solution is most appropriate for a patient with low blood pressure due to dehydration? A) 0.9% Normal Saline B) Dextrose 5% in water C) 3% Normal Saline D) 0.45% Normal Saline
A) 0.9% Normal Saline Rationale: 0.9% Normal Saline is isotonic and helps restore blood volume and pressure in dehydrated patients.
65
20. What is the effect of administering Dextrose 5% in Normal Saline? A) It creates a hypertonic solution B) It dilutes the normal saline C) It provides calories and hydration D) It causes fluid retention
C) It provides calories and hydration Rationale: Dextrose 5% in Normal Saline offers both hydration and calories, making it suitable for various clinical situations.
66
1. What are Vascular Access Devices (VADs) primarily used for? A) Monitoring vital signs B) Delivering fluids and medications C) Drawing blood D) Performing surgeries
B) Delivering fluids and medications Rationale: VADs, such as catheters and infusion ports, are specifically designed for the administration of fluids and medications.
67
2. Which of the following is a primary function of an infusion pump? A) To hydrate the patient B) To monitor blood pressure C) To regulate flow rates D) To administer blood
C) To regulate flow rates Rationale: Infusion pumps are used to control the rate at which fluids or medications are delivered to the patient.
68
3. What is the purpose of using IV fluids and tubing? A) To provide nutrition B) To facilitate fluid delivery based on patient needs C) To enhance medication absorption D) To prevent infection
B) To facilitate fluid delivery based on patient needs Rationale: IV fluids and tubing are selected according to the type of solution and the specific requirements of the patient.
69
4. What type of VAD would be appropriate for long-term medication administration? A) Peripheral IV catheter B) Central line C) IV piggyback D) Infusion pump
B) Central line Rationale: Central lines are designed for long-term use, allowing for sustained medication administration and nutrition without repeated venipuncture.
70
5. Which IV fluid administration device allows for precise volume control? A) Gravity drip B) Infusion pump C) Syringe D) Peripheral catheter
B) Infusion pump Rationale: Infusion pumps provide precise control over the volume and rate of fluid administration, making them essential in critical care.
71
6. Which type of infusion tubing is typically used for blood products? A) Microdrip tubing B) Macrodrip tubing C) Blood administration tubing D) Standard IV tubing
C) Blood administration tubing Rationale: Blood administration tubing is specifically designed to safely and effectively transfuse blood products.
72
7. What is a potential complication of using a VAD? A) Dehydration B) Infection C) Electrolyte imbalance D) Hypotension
B) Infection Rationale: VADs can introduce pathogens into the bloodstream, increasing the risk of infection if not maintained properly.
73
8. What is the primary reason for using an infusion pump over a gravity drip system? A) Cost-effectiveness B) Simplicity of use C) Ability to deliver medications at a precise rate D) Increased flow rate
C) Ability to deliver medications at a precise rate Rationale: Infusion pumps allow for accurate control of medication and fluid delivery rates, which is crucial in many clinical situations.
74
9. When would a nurse choose a peripheral IV catheter? A) For short-term fluid administration B) For long-term IV therapy C) For blood transfusions D) For central venous pressure monitoring
A) For short-term fluid administration Rationale: Peripheral IV catheters are ideal for short-term use, typically lasting a few days for hydration or medication administration.
75
10. Which piece of equipment is essential for monitoring fluid infusion rates? A) VAD B) Infusion pump C) IV fluid bag D) IV tubing
B) Infusion pump Rationale: Infusion pumps are specifically designed to monitor and regulate fluid infusion rates accurately.
76
11. What type of VAD is used for accessing the bloodstream in infants? A) Central line B) Peripheral IV catheter C) Intraosseous device D) Infusion port
C) Intraosseous device Rationale: Intraosseous devices are often used in infants and young children when IV access is challenging, allowing for fluid and medication administration directly into the bone marrow.
77
12. What is a key benefit of using a port for vascular access? A) It requires frequent changes B) It can be used for both IV medications and blood draws C) It is inexpensive D) It is only for short-term use
B) It can be used for both IV medications and blood draws Rationale: Ports provide long-term vascular access and can be used for various purposes, including medication administration and blood sampling.
78
13. When is a macrodrip tubing most appropriate to use? A) For precise fluid management B) When rapid fluid administration is required C) For patients with small veins D) For blood transfusions only
B) When rapid fluid administration is required Rationale: Macrodrip tubing has a larger drop factor, allowing for quicker fluid delivery, which is useful in emergencies.
79
14. How often should IV tubing typically be changed? A) Every 24 hours B) Every 48 hours C) Every 72 hours D) Every week
A) Every 24 hours Rationale: IV tubing should generally be changed every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection and ensure effective fluid delivery.
80
15. What should a nurse do if an infusion pump alarms? A) Ignore it if the infusion is still running B) Check for kinks or occlusions in the line C) Increase the flow rate D) Change the IV site
B) Check for kinks or occlusions in the line Rationale: An alarm indicates a potential issue, and the nurse should check for obstructions or other problems before proceeding.
81
16. Which device is commonly used for administering medications intermittently via IV? A) Continuous infusion pump B) IV piggyback setup C) Macrodrip tubing D) Peripheral IV catheter
B) IV piggyback setup Rationale: An IV piggyback setup allows for the administration of medications at scheduled intervals without interrupting the primary infusion.
82
17. What is an important consideration when using infusion pumps? A) They are always accurate B) Regularly check for air bubbles C) Only used in critical care settings D) They cannot be used with blood products
B) Regularly check for air bubbles Rationale: Regularly checking for air bubbles is essential to prevent air embolism during IV infusions.
83
18. When should a nurse assess the IV site? A) Only when the patient complains B) At the beginning of every shift C) Every hour D) Whenever administering medications
D) Whenever administering medications Rationale: The IV site should be assessed prior to medication administration to ensure there are no complications like infiltration or phlebitis.
84
19. Which of the following is NOT a function of an infusion pump? A) Delivering medication at a set rate B) Monitoring blood pressure C) Alerting for occlusions D) Storing fluid volumes
B) Monitoring blood pressure Rationale: Infusion pumps do not monitor blood pressure; they focus on fluid and medication delivery and ensuring proper flow rates.
85
20. What is a potential risk associated with using a VAD? A) Overhydration B) Infiltration C) Allergic reaction to medications D) Increased mobility
B) Infiltration Rationale: Infiltration can occur when the IV catheter dislodges from the vein, leading to fluid leaking into surrounding tissues, which can cause swelling and discomfort.
86
1. Why is sterile technique crucial when preparing an IV site? A) To save time B) To prevent infection C) To ensure comfort D) To improve flow rate
B) To prevent infection Rationale: Maintaining a sterile technique during IV site preparation is essential to reduce the risk of infection at the insertion site.
87
2. What should the nurse do to ensure the patency of an IV line? A) Change the IV site every 24 hours B) Use a tourniquet C) Flush the IV line with saline D) Remove the IV catheter
C) Flush the IV line with saline Rationale: Flushing the IV line with saline helps ensure patency and prevents occlusions from forming in the catheter.
88
3. How often should the nurse assess the IV site for signs of complications? A) Every hour B) Only when changing the dressing C) At the beginning of each shift D) Whenever administering medications
D) Whenever administering medications Rationale: The IV site should be assessed whenever medications are administered to identify any issues like infiltration or infection.
89
4. What is the primary purpose of regulating the flow rate of an IV infusion? A) To reduce nursing time B) To ensure the correct dosage over time C) To prevent fluid overload D) To speed up the infusion
B) To ensure the correct dosage over time Rationale: Regulating the flow rate is crucial for delivering the correct dosage of medication or fluids to the patient.
90
5. Which of the following indicates that an IV site may not be patent? A) Warmth around the site B) Pain or discomfort at the site C) Edema around the IV site D) All of the above
D) All of the above Rationale: Warmth, pain, and edema are all signs that the IV site may not be patent and could indicate complications such as infiltration or phlebitis.
91
6. What is the appropriate action if an IV line is determined to be occluded? A) Increase the flow rate B) Attempt to flush the line C) Change the IV site D) Notify the physician
C) Change the IV site Rationale: If an IV line is occluded, the appropriate action is to change the IV site to ensure safe and effective medication administration.
92
7. What should be done prior to administering medication via an IV line? A) Assess vital signs B) Change the IV tubing C) Check the IV site for patency D) Ask the patient about allergies
C) Check the IV site for patency Rationale: Checking the IV site for patency is essential to ensure that the medication can be administered without complications.
93
8. Which action demonstrates proper site preparation for an IV insertion? A) Wiping the site with alcohol in a circular motion B) Using a clean glove without washing hands C) Shaving hair at the site D) Scrubbing the site with an antiseptic swab for 30 seconds
D) Scrubbing the site with an antiseptic swab for 30 seconds Rationale: Properly scrubbing the site with an antiseptic for an adequate duration ensures effective disinfection.
94
9. What should a nurse do if an IV solution bag appears to be empty? A) Replace it immediately B) Wait to see if the patient complains C) Call the physician D) Assess the IV site for infiltration
A) Replace it immediately Rationale: The IV solution bag should be replaced promptly to ensure continuous fluid or medication delivery to the patient.
95
10. What is the best practice for securing an IV catheter to prevent movement? A) Using tape only B) Using a transparent dressing C) Tying the catheter with string D) Using gauze and tape
B) Using a transparent dressing Rationale: A transparent dressing provides secure stabilization while allowing for visualization of the IV site and surrounding area.
96
11. What does assessing the IV site for infiltration involve? A) Checking for redness and swelling B) Monitoring the patient's blood pressure C) Flushing the IV line D) Observing the patient’s mood
A) Checking for redness and swelling Rationale: Assessing for infiltration involves checking for signs such as redness, swelling, and coolness around the IV site.
97
12. What is the most important reason for regular patency checks? A) To prevent phlebitis B) To ensure proper medication absorption C) To maintain fluid balance D) To avoid complications
D) To avoid complications Rationale: Regular patency checks help identify issues early and prevent complications such as infiltration or thrombosis.
98
13. When changing the IV site, what is the recommended frequency? A) Every 48 hours B) Every 72 hours C) Every 24 to 96 hours, depending on facility policy D) Once a week
C) Every 24 to 96 hours, depending on facility policy Rationale: The frequency of changing IV sites varies based on hospital protocols and the type of device used.
99
14. How can a nurse ensure that an infusion rate is correctly set? A) By estimating the rate visually B) By consulting the physician C) By using a flow rate calculator D) By adjusting the rate manually every hour
C) By using a flow rate calculator Rationale: Using a flow rate calculator or referring to the IV pump settings ensures that the infusion rate is accurately set according to the physician's orders.
100
15. If a patient experiences discomfort at the IV site, what should the nurse do first? A) Change the IV solution B) Assess the IV site for complications C) Increase the infusion rate D) Notify the physician immediately
B) Assess the IV site for complications Rationale: The first step should be to assess the IV site to determine the cause of the discomfort before taking further action.
101
16. What is an appropriate action if the IV site becomes red and swollen? A) Apply a warm compress B) Remove the IV catheter C) Change the IV solution D) Document the findings only
B) Remove the IV catheter Rationale: If the IV site shows signs of redness and swelling, the catheter should be removed to prevent further complications and assess for infiltration.
102
17. What should the nurse do if there is a change in the infusion rate? A) Ignore it B) Document it C) Check for kinks in the tubing D) Change the IV site
C) Check for kinks in the tubing Rationale: The nurse should first check for any kinks or blockages in the tubing that may be affecting the infusion rate before taking other actions.
103
18. What is the purpose of using a clear dressing over an IV site? A) To make the IV site look neat B) To allow for visualization of the site C) To prevent movement of the catheter D) To absorb any fluid leakage
B) To allow for visualization of the site Rationale: A clear dressing allows the nurse to see the IV site for signs of infection or infiltration while still protecting it.
104
19. When should a nurse consider changing the IV site? A) Only when the patient requests B) At the beginning of every shift C) If there are signs of phlebitis or infiltration D) Every 12 hours
C) If there are signs of phlebitis or infiltration Rationale: The IV site should be changed if there are any signs of complications, such as phlebitis or infiltration.
105
20. What is the role of the nurse in IV maintenance? A) To ensure the IV is visible at all times B) To educate the patient about the IV therapy C) To provide emotional support only D) To change the IV fluid every 12 hours
B) To educate the patient about the IV therapy Rationale: Patient education is an important role for nurses, helping patients understand the purpose and process of IV therapy.
106
1. What is a key sign of fluid overload in a patient receiving IV therapy? A) Increased appetite B) Shortness of breath C) Increased energy levels D) Reduced urine output
B) Shortness of breath Rationale: Shortness of breath is a classic sign of fluid overload, indicating that excess fluid is affecting the patient's respiratory function.
107
2. If a patient shows signs of fluid overload, what should the nurse do first? A) Increase the flow rate B) Elevate the head of the bed C) Call the physician D) Administer diuretics
B) Elevate the head of the bed Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed helps the patient breathe easier while the nurse addresses the fluid overload.
108
3. What is the primary sign of infiltration during IV therapy? A) Increased heart rate B) Pain and swelling at the site C) Fever D) Flushing of the skin
B) Pain and swelling at the site Rationale: Infiltration occurs when IV fluid enters the surrounding tissue, leading to pain, swelling, and coolness around the site.
109
4. What is the first action a nurse should take if infiltration is suspected? A) Apply a cold compress B) Continue the infusion C) Stop the infusion D) Change the IV site
C) Stop the infusion Rationale: Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further fluid leakage into the tissue and potential complications.
110
5. How should a nurse manage extravasation of a caustic medication? A) Apply a cold compress B) Administer more medication C) Aspirate the drug if possible D) Change the IV site immediately
C) Aspirate the drug if possible Rationale: Aspirating the drug can help reduce tissue damage from the caustic fluid, along with stopping the infusion and applying warmth.
111
6. Which complication is characterized by inflammation of the vein? A) Infiltration B) Phlebitis C) Infection D) Fluid overload
B) Phlebitis Rationale: Phlebitis is specifically the inflammation of a vein, which can cause pain, redness, and warmth at the site.
112
7. What signs indicate phlebitis at an IV site? A) Coolness and swelling B) Pain, redness, and warmth C) Excessive bleeding D) Numbness
B) Pain, redness, and warmth Rationale: These signs are classic indicators of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein.
113
8. When managing a patient with signs of infection at the IV site, what is the first step? A) Apply a cold compress B) Remove the IV catheter C) Increase the flow rate D) Document the findings only
B) Remove the IV catheter Rationale: If signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, and discharge, are present, the catheter should be removed to prevent further complications.
114
9. What is an appropriate management strategy for treating phlebitis? A) Cold compresses B) Warm compresses C) Increase fluid infusion D) Elevate the IV site
B) Warm compresses Rationale: Applying warm compresses can help reduce discomfort and promote blood flow to the inflamed area.
115
10. What should the nurse do if a patient develops crackles in their lungs during IV therapy? A) Administer diuretics B) Decrease the IV flow rate C) Elevate the patient's legs D) Continue the current infusion
B) Decrease the IV flow rate Rationale: Decreasing the flow rate is essential to prevent further fluid overload, which can cause respiratory distress.
116
11. Which of the following is a sign of fluid overload? A) Localized swelling B) Fever C) Crackles in lungs D) Skin rash
C) Crackles in lungs Rationale: Crackles in the lungs indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common sign of fluid overload.
117
12. What is a key management step for treating infiltration? A) Apply a cold compress B) Continue the infusion C) Document the incident D) Apply warm compress
D) Apply warm compress Rationale: After stopping the infusion, applying a warm compress can help promote absorption of the infiltrated fluid.
118
13. In the event of phlebitis, how should the nurse document the findings? A) Only note the time B) Document signs, symptoms, and actions taken C) Write a report to the physician only D) Use vague terms for clarity
B) Document signs, symptoms, and actions taken Rationale: Comprehensive documentation is crucial for continuity of care and legal protection.
119
14. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for managing an infected IV site? A) Change the IV solution B) Administer antibiotics as ordered C) Apply ice to the site D) Cover the site with a bandage
B) Administer antibiotics as ordered Rationale: Administering antibiotics helps treat the infection, and the IV site should also be removed and documented.
120
15. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing signs of extravasation? A) Notify the physician B) Remove the IV immediately C) Administer analgesics D) Elevate the affected area
B) Remove the IV immediately Rationale: Removing the IV is critical to prevent further damage from the caustic fluid and to assess the extent of injury.
121
16. What nursing action is indicated if a patient presents with signs of infiltration? A) Flush the IV line with heparin B) Change the dressing C) Stop the infusion and assess the site D) Notify the physician immediately
C) Stop the infusion and assess the site Rationale: Stopping the infusion and assessing the site allows the nurse to evaluate the extent of the infiltration and take appropriate action.
122
17. If a patient is experiencing pain at the IV site, what should the nurse assess for? A) Fluid overload B) Phlebitis or infiltration C) Fever D) Hypotension
B) Phlebitis or infiltration Rationale: Pain at the IV site is often indicative of phlebitis or infiltration, requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
123
18. Which nursing intervention is NOT appropriate for a patient with phlebitis? A) Applying warm compresses B) Continuing the infusion C) Stopping the infusion D) Documenting the findings
B) Continuing the infusion Rationale: Continuing the infusion in the presence of phlebitis can worsen the condition; the infusion should be stopped immediately.
124
19. What are common signs of infection at an IV site? A) Coolness and swelling B) Redness, swelling, and discharge C) Bruising only D) Pain without redness
B) Redness, swelling, and discharge Rationale: These signs indicate infection at the IV site, necessitating prompt assessment and intervention.
125
20. Which intervention is appropriate if a patient exhibits shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs during IV therapy? A) Increase the infusion rate B) Administer oxygen and reduce the flow rate C) Change the IV site D) Notify the physician and continue the infusion
B) Administer oxygen and reduce the flow rate Rationale: Administering oxygen and reducing the flow rate helps alleviate symptoms of fluid overload.
126
1. Why is it important to label IV medications correctly? A) To save time B) To prevent medication errors C) To avoid patient questions D) For aesthetic reasons
B) To prevent medication errors Rationale: Correct labeling helps ensure that patients receive the right medications, reducing the risk of errors.
127
2. What should a nurse include when documenting IV medication administration? A) Only the time B) Dosage and site of administration C) Patient’s mood D) Other nurses present
B) Dosage and site of administration Rationale: Accurate documentation should include the medication name, dosage, time, and site to ensure clear communication.
128
3. How often should the nurse document changes in IV therapy? A) Once a day B) Only if there are complications C) Every shift or when changes occur D) At discharge only
C) Every shift or when changes occur Rationale: Regular documentation ensures that all staff are informed of the current IV therapy and any changes made.
129
4. What is a critical component of documenting complications related to IV therapy? A) Describing the patient’s emotional response B) Noting the time of the incident C) Ignoring minor issues D) Using vague language
B) Noting the time of the incident Rationale: Documenting the time of complications is essential for tracking the progression and timing of the patient's condition.
130
5. If a patient develops a complication during IV therapy, what should the nurse do first? A) Document the complication B) Notify the physician C) Remove the IV D) Apply a dressing
C) Remove the IV Rationale: Immediate action to remove the IV is critical to prevent further complications, followed by documentation and notifying the physician.
131
6. What is the purpose of following facility policies for documentation? A) To please management B) To ensure consistency and legal protection C) To avoid extra work D) For personal preference
B) To ensure consistency and legal protection Rationale: Adhering to policies helps maintain standardized practices and provides legal documentation for patient care.
132
7. When documenting the administration of IV medications, what is essential to include? A) Only the medication name B) Route and time of administration C) Patient’s opinion of the medication D) All staff present
B) Route and time of administration Rationale: Documenting the route and time is critical for understanding how and when medications were given to the patient.
133
8. How should a nurse document a medication error related to IV therapy? A) Hide it from the chart B) Document only in the nurse's personal notes C) Report and document truthfully in the patient’s record D) Only notify the charge nurse
C) Report and document truthfully in the patient’s record Rationale: Accurate reporting and documentation of errors are necessary for patient safety and quality improvement.
134
9. If a nurse observes a change in the IV site, what should be documented? A) Patient's discomfort only B) The time and nature of the change C) Nothing, unless the patient complains D) Previous IV site history only
B) The time and nature of the change Rationale: Documenting changes in the IV site is essential for assessing the patient's response and planning further care.
135
10. What should a nurse do if they notice discrepancies in IV medication orders? A) Administer the medication as ordered B) Contact the physician for clarification C) Document the discrepancy D) Ignore it
B) Contact the physician for clarification Rationale: Ensuring clarity and accuracy in orders is crucial for patient safety; discrepancies should always be addressed.
136
11. When should a nurse document an IV medication's adverse reaction? A) Only if it’s severe B) At the end of the shift C) As soon as it occurs D) After the patient is discharged
C) As soon as it occurs Rationale: Timely documentation of adverse reactions ensures prompt response and continuity of care for the patient.
137
12. If a nurse changes an IV site, what should be documented? A) Only the new site B) The old site’s condition C) Reason for the change and new site details D) The patient's mood
C) Reason for the change and new site details Rationale: Comprehensive documentation provides context and continuity for ongoing patient care.
138
13. How should a nurse document the administration of a medication that requires specific timing? A) Ignore timing B) Note the exact time of administration C) Use general terms like "morning" D) Only write the date
B) Note the exact time of administration Rationale: Precise timing is essential for medications that require specific schedules for effectiveness and safety.
139
14. What should be included in the documentation for IV fluids administered? A) Only the total volume B) The type, volume, rate, and duration C) Just the patient’s response D) The brand of the IV fluid
B) The type, volume, rate, and duration Rationale: Comprehensive documentation of IV fluids ensures all relevant information is captured for safe care.
140
15. When documenting patient education regarding IV therapy, what is important to include? A) Only the date B) Patient's understanding and response C) Other patients' opinions D) Nurse's feelings about the patient
B) Patient's understanding and response Rationale: Documenting the patient’s understanding ensures that education was effective and provides a basis for future care.
141
16. How should a nurse document IV medication administration in a patient's record? A) Only the drug name B) Medication name, dose, time, route, and patient’s response C) The name of the nurse administering D) Use abbreviations only
B) Medication name, dose, time, route, and patient’s response Rationale: This information is crucial for continuity of care and ensuring patient safety.
142
17. What is a potential consequence of poor documentation in IV therapy? A) Improved patient outcomes B) Increased liability and risk for patient safety C) Easier communication D) Enhanced care coordination
B) Increased liability and risk for patient safety Rationale: Inadequate documentation can lead to misunderstandings, errors, and legal consequences.
143
18. If a nurse notes a change in a patient's IV site, what documentation should be included? A) Just the location B) The time and nature of the change, along with the nurse's assessment C) Nothing D) The patient's opinion
B) The time and nature of the change, along with the nurse's assessment Rationale: Documenting assessments provides context and supports ongoing care decisions.
144
19. What should a nurse do if they forget to document an IV medication administration? A) Leave it out B) Document it as soon as remembered, including the reason for the delay C) Only inform the physician D) Document it as if it was done on time
B) Document it as soon as remembered, including the reason for the delay Rationale: Accurate retrospective documentation helps maintain the integrity of the medical record.
145
20. In what scenario is it essential to document the reason for changing an IV site? A) Always B) Only if it looks bad C) Only for legal purposes D) When it’s inconvenient
A) Always Rationale: Documenting the reason for a change in the IV site ensures clear communication among healthcare providers and maintains quality of care.
essentials
flashcards
Decks in class (16)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions