CIT
Prior to commencing a valuation how are you competent to to take on an instruction what are the steps?
C - Competence (skill/understanding/Knowledge SUK)
I - Independance (conflicts)
T - ToE (in writing confirmation of instruction)
Prior to commencement of the valuation - what property related info would you ask for?
Tenancy Schedule, area schedule, asset management, cap ex, service charge, title
What is a typical timeline of a valuation instruction?
What are examples of Statutory Due Diligence for Valuations and why do valuers undertake Statuatory DD?
What are the three valuation approaches in the RBG and where they found?
IVS 105 Valuation Approaches and Methods
When choosing a valuation approach/method what must the valuer have consideration of?
Nature of asset
Purpose of valuation
statuatory or mandatory requirements in thier jurisdication
What are the 5 methods of valuation?
WHat are the 4 steps of the comparables method?
What is the RICS document regarding Comparable Evidence?
Professional Standard: Comparable Evidence in Real Estate Valuation 2019
According to RICS advice what should a valuer do if there is a lack of comparable evidence?
Carry out valuation as lack of evidence shouldn’t prevent valuation being undertaken.
Valuer should look further afield
What is the Hierachy of Evidence and the different categories of Evidence?
Understanding that some evidence available to the valuer will be more relevant than others.
Category A: Direct Comparables
- Completed transactions of identical properties
- Completed transactions of similar assets
- Completed transactions where not all data available (enough to use)
- Offers made - similiar assets
- Asking prices - similiar assets
Category B: General Market Data:
- Commercial Databases
- Indices
- Historic Evidence
Category C - Other Sources:
- Transactional data from other asset classes/locations
- Background data (economic factors)
How should valuers go about finding comparables?
Inspection of an area (agent boards)
Local agents
Databases
Market sentiment (useful when lack of evidence)
How does the investment method of valuation work? and when is it used?
Rental Income capitalised by capitalisation rate to get CV
Used if there is an income stream
e.g. Term & Reversion / Hardcore & Layer
What method of valuation would you use for a standing investment which is vacant for red book purposes?
Income appraoch
Investment method - have an initial void period and then would capitalise MR
Comparables to cross-compare
What yield do you use if vacant?
EY
What is the conventional investment method?
Growth Implicit - builds future rental growth into single capitalisation rate
What is the calculation formula for the conventional method of valuation?
Rent Recieved or Market Rent x YP = MV
When is the Term and Reversion Method used?
Reversionary Investments
How do you undertake a term and reversion valuation?
Term (passing rent) capitalised until next lease event at initial yield. (YP for x years at x% yield). Lower yield as less risky.
Reversion to Market rent valued into perpetuity after being deferred at the reversionary yield. (YP Perp at y% yield. PV pf £1 for x years). Higher yield as more risky.
When can the hardcore (bottom slice) and layer (top slice) method be used?
For reversionary and over-rented assets
How to undertake a Hardcore and Layer Valuation for reversionary assets?
Hardcore (passing) capitalised into perpetuity. (YP perp at x% yield).
Layer (reversion) capitalised into perpetuity but is defferred (Yp Perp at X% yield). PV of £1 y years
Equivalent yield used or a difference in yield profiles like term and reversion.
How to undertake a Hardcore (bottom slice) and Layer (top slice) Valuation for over-rented assets?
Hardcore (market rent) capitalised into perpetuity at initial yield (lower as less risky) - (YP perp at x% yield)
Top Slice/Layer (passing rent - Market rent) capitalised for remaining term at initial yield adjusted for higher risk
YP for x years at y% yield)
Yield differential - top slice inflated to reflect higher risk of over-renting. No PV of £1 as both layers of income are recieved now.
In the hardcore layer (core & top slice) method for over-rented property, the capitalisation rate applied on the topslice/layer - why is it a discount?
Top slice unlikely to be achieved again in the open market and therefore apply discount to capitalisation rate c.50-100bps depending on location (London be 50bps, regions might be 100bps)
If the property is rack rented what yield would you use?
Initial yield