JI Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

To whom does the OPCON over all AC, aircrews, maintainers, etc. in the combatant command belong to?

A

JFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does the JFACC plan, task, and control Air and Space ops?

A

JAOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The role ____, which plans, tasks, and controls operations from the JAOC and is appointed by the JFC.

A

JFACC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is the Combined AOC (CAOC) manned?

A

Multi-service and multinational forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who has TACON over CAS missions?

A

Air Support Ops Center CC (ASOC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who is your first level of assistance if your AC is experiencing mechanical issues while on a mission?

A

Sq Ops Center (SOC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Command authority over assigned forces that are limited to the detailed direction and control of movements within the operational area necessary to accomplish assigned tasks

A

TACON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Theater Air to Ground System (TAGS)

A

Arrangement of orgs, PAX, policies, procedures, and facilities required to perform airspace control functions

AF brings its Theater Air Control System (TACS) to the TAGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the AF TACS provide the COMAFFOR?

A

The means to provide centralized control and decentralized execution

(COMAFFOR=JFACC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What center continuously scans the airspace for friend or foe?

A

CRC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What 4 of the 12 functional areas of the AFDD-1 can RPAs be tasked with?

A

PR
Global Precision Attack
Global Integrated ISR
SecOps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Strike Coord. and Reconnaissance (SCAR)

A

Use AC to detect targets for AI missions in a specified geographic zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CAS

A

Air action against targets that are in close proximity to friendlies and require detailed integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

AI

A

Divert, Delay, Disrupt, Destroy an enemy’s potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PCPAD

A

Planning & direction
Collection
Processing & exploitation
Analysis and production
Dissemination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

METT-TC

A

Mission
Enemy
Terrain&weather
Troops&support
Time available
Civilians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

7 basic weapons effects

A

Armor penetration
Hard target penetration
Fragmentation
Blast
Incendiary
Cratering
Thermobaric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What TGPs can the F16 carry?

A

LANTRIN
LITENING
AT FLIR
SNIPER XR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which AC utilizes the 30mm and 114?

A

AH 64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which bomb can the F15 carry?

A

GBU38

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

AV8B TGPs

A

LITENING
LANTRIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which weapon does the Mirage carry?

A

GBU12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The ___ was designed primarily for on-call/surge capability for improved tactical ISR for specops.

A

U28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Battle Management AC with ANAPY7 radar

A

E8 JSTARS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
If the Collateral Damage Estimate (CDE is LOW, ____ analysis and use a mitigated attack profile to engage.
STOP
26
A radius representing the largest collateral hazard distance for a given warhead, weapon, or weapon class considering predetermined, acceptable collateral damage criteria established for each CDE level
Collateral Effects Radius (CER)
27
A physical or virtual object defined by the law of war, functionally characterized as noncombatant in nature, and protected from the effects of military operations under international law and/or the rules of engagement.
No-Strike Entity (NSE)
28
What is a degraded mode of CDE typically conducted by JRACs, FOs, or aircrew during dynamic targeting when there is a time-constrained opportunity to engage a target.
Field Collateral Damage Estimate (CDE)
29
A form of collateral effect that causes unintentional or incidental injury/death or damage to persons or objects that wouldn’t be lawful military targets in the circumstances ruling at the time.
Collateral Damage (CD)
30
Counterland Ops
AirPower ops against enemy land force capabilities to create effects that achieve JFC objectives
31
5 elements of a SCAR mission:
-Aircrew -Interdiction assets -C2 -RSTA (Reconnaissance, Surveillance, & TA) -And support
32
3 SCAR Tasking Types:
INVESTIGATE TARGET SMACK
33
Joint Integrated Prioritized Target List (JIPTL)
Prioritized list of targets Approved & maintained by JFC
34
What mission type is tasked for on-call targets that may be retasked during execution for targets of opportunity? (also referred to as armed reconnaissance)
Airborne Alert AI (XAI)
35
Who has the authority to direct strikers in support of a SCAR mission to proceed against appropriate targets using INVESTIGATE, TARGET, and SMACK taskings?
The SCAR Aircrew
36
5 PR Execution tasks:
Report Locate Support Recover Reintegrate
37
CSARTF
Protects the survivor on the ground before and during recovery, and the recovery force package from small arms, surface to air, air to air, and air to ground threats
38
Airspace Coordination Area (ACA)
Primary Fire Support Control Measure (FSCM) Allows indirect fires to occur in a a target area, while keeping AC reasonably safe from those surface fires
39
3 types of Airspace Control Measures (ACMs)
High Density Airspace Control Zone (HIDACZ) ROZ Minimum Risk Route (MRR)
40
CAS 9 Line Breakdown:
1) Initial point/battle position 2) heading and offset 3) distance 4) target elevation 5) target description 6) target location 7) type mark/terminal guidance 8) location of friendlies 9) egress Remarks/Restrictions
41
12 Steps Of CAS
Routing/safety of flight CAS checkin SITREP Game Plan CAS 9Line R/R Read backs Correlation Attack Assess effects BDA Routing/safety of flight
42
Nonlinear Ops/ Counterinsurgency (COIN) CAS
Destroying enemy forces, even if it means losing physical contact with friendlies. ISR heavy
43
Which step of the 12-step CAS process should modification or a common sense check be discussed?
Correlation
44
What’s the primary question aircrew should ask themselves regarding the law of war principle of proportionality?
Does the military advantage outweigh the anticipated collateral cost if this target is struck?
45
In general, the authority or responsibility for the expenditure of any weapon in the military normally rest with whom?
Supported commander
46
What is Combat identification defined as?
The process of attaining an accurate characterization of detected objects in the operational environment sufficient to support an engagement decision (CDE)
47
An identification derived from observation and analysis of target characteristics, including visual recognition, electronic warfare support systems, non-cooperative target recognition techniques, identification, friend or foe systems, or other physics-based identification processes?
PID
48
A process normally performed by trained and certified personnel at various echelons and is intended to characterize the level and extent of collateral damage risk for commanders.
CDE
49
This particular policy outlines DOD procedures identifying medical, educational diplomatic cultural historical and religious sites and other property as a no strike entity.
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) Policy
50
Which of the following is defined as a JFC validated target or set of targets requiring immediate response because it is a highly lucrative fleeting target of opportunity or poses a potential danger to friendly forces?
Time Sensitive Target (TST)
51
When you’re conducting AI mission planning which of the following are target area environmental considerations?
Restrictive terrain and weather
52
Which AI execution task is accomplished during the egress phase?
Passing the in-flight report
53
From whom does the SCAR aircrew derive their authority to conduct interdiction through the ATO or the C2 element?
JFC
54
Which type of Kill box is primarily used for the attack of surface targets with air to surface munitions without further coordination with the AO commander?
Blue
55
Following striker check in with the SCAR who will pass the AO situation update to the striker asset?
SCAR Aircrew
56
For bombers, what is the minimum recommend holding airspace when operating in a GARS enabled Kill Box?
30x15 nm
57
Whose responsibility is it to execute a battlefield handover when transferring the role to another SCAR Aircrew?
The SCAR Aircrew
58
In Naval doctrine, which warfare commander is responsible for projecting power ashore the aircraft and tomahawk land attack missiles?
The Strike Warfare Commander (SIWC)
59
What does a search and rescue point (SARDOT) refer to during a PR mission?
A pre-designated specific location relative to which isolated personnel provide their position to recovery forces in a covert manner.
60
Which theater publication will dictate the methods used to pass information during a PR mission?
SPINS
61
When you’re mission planning for immediate PR situations, which two EEI’s should provide initial situation awareness of the battle space?
Daily enemy order of battle (EOB) Threat assessments
62
What should the initial on scene commander do prior to committing recovery forces in a threat environment?
Authenticate and Locate the IP
63
Who is authorized to conduct terminal attack controls
JTAC
64
Which C2 agency do you confirm CAS tasking at initial check in route to the working area?
ASOC
65
What’s the minimum information that should be included in the gameplan when talking about CAS?
Type of control Method of attack
66
What’s the format that the JTAC uses to pass specific information on the target to be attacked?
9-line
67
Which type of CAS control allows for multiple attacks within a single engagement?
Type 3
68
When is a post launch abort require to be pre briefed during a situation update or 9 line?
When approved by the ground commander
69
During a keyhole CAS operation, what does the point B reference?
Direction EAST of the target
70
What method is used to brief a coordinated attack?
TIES
71
How can the MQ9 assist the convoy commander during a convoy escort armed overwatch?
Provide real-time SA
72
When conducting the CDE process, if the output of CDE-3 analysis is CDE 3 LOW, then:
Stop analysis and use the specific attack profile, fused PGM and DPI
73
Which AOMSW mission provides reconnaissance and surveillance to support the maritime commander’s objective?
Surface, Surveillance, Coordination (SSCR)