Key Point Deck Flashcards

(131 cards)

1
Q

Titanium compared to steel is:

A) Heavier and less fire resistant
B) Approximately 50% lighter and fire resistant
C) Softer and less corrosion resistant

A

Answer: B) Approximately 50% lighter and fire resistant

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2
Q

Aluminium alloys containing zinc as the main alloying element belong to the:

A) 2XXX series
B) 6XXX series
C) 7XXX series

A

Answer: C) 7XXX series

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3
Q

The selvedge edge of composite fabric refers to the:

A) Direction of fibre weave
B) Warp direction edge
C) Resin-rich outer surface

A

Answer: B) Warp direction edge

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4
Q

Porosity in composite materials is caused by:

A) Excess fibre tension
B) Trapped air or voids in the laminate
C) Overheating during curing only

A

Answer: B) Trapped air or voids in the laminate

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5
Q

A two-part resin system consists of:

A) Resin and catalyst/accelerator
B) Resin and filler only
C) Resin and solvent

A

Answer: A) Resin and catalyst/accelerator

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6
Q

A temporary repair to stop crack propagation in sheet metal is:

A) Reaming
B) Stop drilling
C) Cold working

A

Answer: B) Stop drilling

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7
Q

Corrosion is the result of:

A) Mechanical wear only
B) Chemical or electrochemical reaction
C) Thermal expansion

A

Answer: B) Chemical or electrochemical reaction

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8
Q

Gold and platinum are:

A) Highly reactive metals
B) Found only as alloys
C) Found in their natural state

A

Answer: C) Found in their natural state

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9
Q

A close tolerance bolt typically has a tolerance of approximately:

A) 0.005 inch
B) 0.0005 inch
C) 0.05 inch

A

Answer: B) 0.0005 inch

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10
Q

An AN470 bolt has a:

A) Countersunk head
B) Universal head
C) Hex socket head

A

Answer: B) Universal head

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11
Q

AN426 rivets are:

A) Universal head
B) Countersunk head
C) Round head

A

Answer: B) Countersunk head

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12
Q

2017-T aluminium alloy is primarily:

A) Magnesium alloy
B) Copper alloy
C) Zinc alloy

A

Answer: B) Copper alloy

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13
Q

1100 aluminium alloy is classified as:

A) Heat treatable alloy
B) High strength alloy
C) Commercially pure aluminium

A

Answer: C) Commercially pure aluminium

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14
Q

Hydraulic hose pressure classification above 1500 psi is:

A) Low pressure
B) Medium pressure
C) High pressure

A

Answer: C) High pressure

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15
Q

Fuel system flexible hoses are colour coded:

A) Blue
B) Red
C) Yellow

A

Answer: B) Red

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16
Q

Spur gears are:

A) Helical cut for angled shafts
B) Straight cut for parallel shafts only
C) Used for non-intersecting shafts only

A

Answer: B) Straight cut for parallel shafts only

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17
Q

Helical gears:

A) Have straight teeth
B) Produce axial thrust
C) Cannot transmit high loads

A

Answer: B) Produce axial thrust

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18
Q

Double helical gears are designed to:

A) Increase noise
B) Cancel axial thrust
C) Reduce strength

A

Answer: B) Cancel axial thrust

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19
Q

Hypoid gears are used where:

A) Shafts intersect at 90°
B) Shafts do not intersect
C) Shafts are parallel

A

Answer: B) Shafts do not intersect

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20
Q

A worm gear drive:

A) Can easily be back-driven
B) Cannot be back-driven in most cases
C) Is used only for high speed ratios

A

Answer: B) Cannot be back-driven in most cases

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21
Q

V-belts are generally used for:

A) Low speed only
B) High speed applications
C) Vertical lift only

A

Answer: B) High speed applications

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22
Q

A synchronous (positive drive) belt:

A) Relies on friction only
B) Slips under load
C) Prevents slip between driver and driven

A

Answer: C) Prevents slip between driver and driven

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23
Q

Roller chains consist of:

A) Plates and pins only
B) Plates, pins and rollers
C) Rollers only

A

Answer: B) Plates, pins and rollers

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24
Q

Leaf chains are primarily used for:

A) Power transmission at high speed
B) Pushing loads
C) Pulling loads

A

Answer: C) Pulling loads

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25
Plain bearings: A) Have rolling elements B) Have no moving rolling parts C) Are used only axially
Answer: B) Have no moving rolling parts
26
Cylindrical roller bearings primarily support: A) Axial loads only B) Radial loads C) Thrust loads only
Answer: B) Radial loads
27
Needle roller bearings are characterised by: A) Large diameter rollers B) Low profile design C) High axial capacity only
Answer: B) Low profile design
28
Swivel fittings in pipe systems are used to: A) Increase pressure B) Prevent twisting of hoses C) Seal permanently
Answer: B) Prevent twisting of hoses
29
Quick-release couplings are commonly: A) Single start and non-sealing B) Multi-start and self-sealing C) Permanently fixed
Answer: B) Multi-start and self-sealing
30
A bonding lead in electrical systems should have a resistance: A) Greater than the conductor B) Equal to or less than the conductor C) Double the conductor resistance
Answer: B) Equal to or less than the conductor
31
The five basic types of composite repair include: A. Welding, brazing and riveting B. Pre-cured patches, potted, resin injection, laminate (one side), laminate (through part) C. Spot repair, heat shrink and bonding
Answer: B – Pre-cured patches, potted, resin injection, laminate (one side), laminate (through part)
32
Bolted or bonded surface patches are normally considered: A. Permanent structural repairs B. Temporary repairs C. Full strength repairs
Answer: B – Temporary repairs
33
The preferred repair method for structural composite damage is: A. Blind fastener repair B. Resin injection only C. Removal of damaged plies and replacement with new repair plies
Answer: C – Removal of damaged plies and replacement with new repair plies
34
Resin injection repair is mainly used for: A. Major structural failure B. Minor delamination or small holes C. Repairing metal skins
Answer: B – Minor delamination or small holes
35
Resin injection repairs: A. Restore full original strength B. Increase flexibility C. Do not restore original structural strength
Answer: C – Do not restore original structural strength
36
Surface preparation primarily affects: A. Short-term strength only B. Long-term durability C. Paint colour
Answer: B – Long-term durability
37
Essential steps in surface preparation include: A. Degreasing and polishing B. Solvent degreasing and water break test C. Heating and cooling
Answer: B – Solvent degreasing and water break test
38
A water break test is used to: A. Check surface cleanliness B. Measure humidity C. Detect cracks
Answer: A – Check surface cleanliness
39
Before carrying out a composite repair, reference must be made to: A. IPC B. SRM C. MEL
Answer: B – SRM
40
Mechanical blind fasteners in honeycomb structures may cause: A. Increased flexibility B. Core damage and delamination C. Improved bonding
Answer: B – Core damage and delamination
41
Potted repairs are generally limited to damage up to: A. 5 cm B. 2.5 cm (1 inch) C. 10 cm
Answer: B – 2.5 cm (1 inch)
42
A potted repair filler consists of: A. Pure resin only B. Resin and filler mixture C. Water-based compound
Answer: B – Resin and filler mixture
43
During resin injection repair, normally: A. One hole is drilled B. Two holes are drilled C. Four holes are drilled
Answer: B – Two holes are drilled
44
The purpose of the second hole in resin injection repair is to: A. Increase pressure B. Allow air to vent C. Drain excess resin
Answer: B – Allow air to vent
45
A step-cut repair is used to: A. Remove damage in stepped layers B. Drill holes in laminate C. Polish the surface
Answer: A – Remove damage in stepped layers
46
Typical laminate repair overlap is: A. 5 mm B. ½ inch with 1 inch top patch C. 3 inches minimum
Answer: B – ½ inch with 1 inch top patch
47
Thick laminate damage is often repaired using: A. Single flat patch B. Two-sided modified step-cut C. Blind fasteners only
Answer: B – Two-sided modified step-cut
48
Small punctures in honeycomb sandwich panels are repaired by: A. Riveting a patch B. Injecting resin/filler mixture C. Welding
Answer: B – Injecting resin/filler mixture
49
A honeycomb core plug must be installed when damage: A. Exceeds one inch or is in a critical area B. Is less than 5 mm C. Is cosmetic only
Answer: A – Exceeds one inch or is in a critical area
50
When installing a honeycomb plug, the replacement core must match: A. Colour only B. Density and pattern C. Thickness only
Answer: B – Density and pattern
51
MSDS provides information about: A. Structural strength B. Hazard and safety data C. Repair overlap size
Answer: B – Hazard and safety data
52
The most common solvents used in composite repair are: A. Alcohol and water B. MEK and Acetone C. Oil and grease
Answer: B – MEK and Acetone
53
MEK is particularly hazardous because it: A. Is non-toxic B. Can be absorbed through skin C. Is non-flammable
Answer: B – Can be absorbed through skin
54
When working with composite resins, ventilation is required because: A. They are non-reactive B. Fumes may be toxic C. They are colourless
Answer: B – Fumes may be toxic
55
Incorrect storage of resins and pre-pregs may result in: A. Better bonding B. Structurally unsafe components C. Improved curing
Answer: B – Structurally unsafe components
56
Flashcard 1 What does the term “non-ferrous” describe? a) Metals containing iron b) Metals with elements other than iron as their base c) Metals that are heat treated
Answer: b) Metals with elements other than iron as their base
57
What is the most distinctive property of non-ferrous metals? a) High density b) Magnetic behaviour c) Non-magnetic behaviour
Answer: c) Non-magnetic behaviour
58
Which of the following is a common non-ferrous metal used in aircraft construction? a) Steel b) Titanium c) Cast iron
Answer: b) Titanium
59
Which group contains only non-ferrous metals? a) Aluminium, copper, titanium, magnesium b) Iron, steel, nickel c) Cast iron, steel, chromium
Answer: a) Aluminium, copper, titanium, magnesium
60
From which ore is aluminium obtained? a) Hematite b) Bauxite c) Galena
Answer: b) Bauxite
61
Which statement best describes pure aluminium? a) Heavy and extremely strong b) Lightweight but lacking sufficient strength for aircraft use c) Brittle and magnetic
Answer: b) Lightweight but lacking sufficient strength for aircraft use
62
How can the strength of aluminium be increased? a) By heat treatment alone b) By alloying with other compatible metals c) By increasing thickness
Answer: b) By alloying with other compatible metals
63
How are aluminium alloys classified? a) By colour b) By melting point c) By their major alloying ingredient
Answer: c) By their major alloying ingredient
64
Why are aluminium alloys widely used in modern aircraft construction? a) They are inexpensive only b) They offer high strength with low weight c) They are easy to recycle
Answer: b) They offer high strength with low weight
65
Which elements are most commonly used for alloying aluminium? a) Iron, carbon, sulphur b) Copper, magnesium, manganese, zinc c) Nickel, chromium, molybdenum
Answer: b) Copper, magnesium, manganese, zinc
66
What is the strength-to-weight advantage of aluminium alloyed with copper or zinc? a) Same strength as steel at twice the weight b) Same strength as steel at one-third of the weight c) Half the strength of steel at the same weight
Answer: b) Same strength as steel at one-third of the weight
67
According to ANSI H35.1 & H35.2, how many main classes of aluminium alloys are there? a) One b) Two c) Three
Answer: b) Two
68
What are the two main classes of aluminium alloys? a) Heat-treated and non-heat-treated b) Wrought and cast c) Structural and non-structural
Answer: b) Wrought and cast
69
What does the first digit in a wrought aluminium alloy designation indicate? a) Alloy modification b) Heat treatment method c) Major alloying element
Answer: c) Major alloying element
70
What do the last two digits in an aluminium alloy designation represent? a) Carbon content b) Special heat treatment c) Identification of the alloy only
Answer: c) Identification of the alloy only
71
Which two aluminium alloys are most widely used in aviation? a) 1050 and 3003 b) 2024 and 7075 c) 5052 and 6061
Answer: b) 2024 and 7075
72
A rivet obtains its clamping action by: a) Thread friction b) Mechanical upsetting of one end c) Adhesive bonding
Answer: b) Mechanical upsetting of one end
73
The most commonly used aircraft rivet today is: a) CherryLOCK b) AN470 universal head c) Pop rivet
Answer: b) AN470 universal head
74
The head style code “470” in AN470 indicates: a) Alloy type b) Universal head c) Countersunk head
Answer: b) Universal head
75
The head style code “426” indicates: a) Brazier head b) Universal head c) Countersunk head
Answer: c) Countersunk head
76
The diameter in a rivet code is measured in increments of: a) 1/16 inch b) 1/32 inch c) 1/8 inch
Answer: b) 1/32 inch
77
The rivet length is measured in increments of: a) 1/32 inch b) 1/16 inch c) 1/8 inch
Answer: b) 1/16 inch
78
AN470 rivet length is measured from: a) Top of head b) Bottom of head c) Centre of shank
Answer: b) Bottom of head
79
AN426 rivet length is measured from: a) Bottom of head b) Centre of shank c) Top of head
Answer: c) Top of head
79
The most commonly used countersink angle is: a) 82° b) 90° c) 100°
Answer: c) 100°
80
Before driving, a rivet must extend beyond the material by at least: a) 1 diameter b) 1.5 times its diameter c) 2 diameters
Answer: b) 1.5 times its diameter
81
After driving, the bucktail diameter should be approximately: a) Equal to original diameter b) 1.5 times original diameter c) 2 times original diameter
Answer: b) 1.5 times original diameter
82
2117-T3 rivets (AD) are commonly called: a) Heat treated rivets b) Field rivets c) Structural rivets
Answer: b) Field rivets
83
2017 (D) rivets must be: a) Refrigerated after quenching b) Air cooled only c) Stored at room temperature
Answer: a) Refrigerated after quenching
84
D rivets become too hard to drive approximately: a) 10 minutes after quenching b) 1 hour after quenching c) 24 hours after quenching
Answer: b) 1 hour after quenching
85
A rivet head with a raised dot identifies: a) 2024 b) 2017 c) 7050
Answer: b) 2017
86
Two raised dashes identify: a) 2117 b) 2024 c) 5056
Answer: b) 2024
87
A raised cross identifies: a) 5056 b) 2117 c) 1100
Answer: a) 5056
88
A friction-lock rivet replacing a solid rivet must be: a) Same size b) 1/32 inch larger c) 1/16 inch smaller
Answer: b) 1/32 inch larger
89
Mechanical-lock rivets prevent: a) Corrosion b) Stem loss due to vibration c) Over-torquing
Answer: b) Stem loss due to vibration
90
The CherryMAX rivet can replace a solid rivet: a) One size larger b) One size smaller c) Size for size
Answer: c) Size for size
91
Lockbolts are available for: a) Shear only b) Tension only c) Shear and tension
Answer: c) Shear and tension
92
Shear Lockbolts have: a) Thick head b) Thin head and two collar grooves c) Five grooves
Answer: b) Thin head and two collar grooves
93
Hi-Lok bolts are installed using: a) Thread locker b) Interference fit and shear collar c) Lock wire
Answer: b) Interference fit and shear collar
94
The Hi-Lok collar shears off when: a) Correct torque is reached b) Hand tight c) Fully bottomed
Answer: a) Correct torque is reached
95
Hi-Lite fasteners are lighter because: a) Shorter transition between thread and shank b) Thinner threads c) Smaller collar
Answer: a) Shorter transition between thread and shank
96
Rigid tubing size is determined by: a) Inside diameter b) Outside diameter c) Wall thickness only
Answer: b) Outside diameter
97
Rigid tubing diameter increments are: a) 1/16 inch b) 1/8 inch c) 1/32 inch
Answer: b) 1/8 inch
98
Wall thickness is measured in: a) 1/8 inch b) Thousandths of an inch c) Millimetres only
Answer: b) Thousandths of an inch
99
High pressure lines are above: a) 1000 PSI b) 1500 PSI c) 3000 PSI
Answer: b) 1500 PSI
100
Low pressure lines are typically: a) Suction and return lines b) Hydraulic pressure lines c) Brake lines
Answer: a) Suction and return lines
101
Aircraft flare angle is: a) 45° b) 37° c) 90°
Answer: b) 37°
102
Automotive flare angle is typically: a) 37° b) 45° c) 100°
Answer: b) 45°
103
AN fittings are identified by: a) No shoulder b) Shoulder between threads and flare c) Shorter body
Answer: b) Shoulder between threads and flare
104
Aluminium AN fittings are coloured: a) Black b) Blue c) Green
Answer: b) Blue
105
Steel AN fittings are coloured: a) Blue b) Green c) Black
Answer: c) Black
106
Double flares are used on soft aluminium tubing: a) Above 1/2 inch b) 3/8 inch and smaller c) Any size
Answer: b) 3/8 inch and smaller
107
If a flare leaks when properly torqued you should: a) Tighten further b) Replace and inspect components c) Apply sealant
Answer: b) Replace and inspect components
108
Flexible hose size is based on: a) Outside diameter b) Inside diameter c) Wall thickness
Answer: b) Inside diameter
109
A -10 hose equals: a) 10/32 inch b) 10/16 inch c) 10/8 inch
Answer: b) 10/16 inch (5/8 inch)
110
Low pressure hoses operate up to: a) 600 PSI b) 3000 PSI c) 5000 PSI
Answer: a) 600 PSI
111
Medium pressure hoses operate up to: a) 1500 PSI b) 3000 PSI c) 6000 PSI
Answer: b) 3000 PSI
112
High pressure hoses operate above: a) 1500 PSI b) 3000 PSI c) 5000 PSI
Answer: b) 3000 PSI
113
Buna-N is best suited for: a) Skydrol b) Petroleum products c) Oxygen
Answer: b) Petroleum products
114
Butyl liner is used for: a) Petroleum fluids b) Phosphate ester fluids (Skydrol) c) Oxygen
Answer: b) Phosphate ester fluids
115
Teflon liners have: a) Limited life b) Broad temperature range and low expansion c) Poor chemical resistance
Answer: b) Broad temperature range and low expansion
116
Lay lines on hoses indicate: a) Pressure rating b) Whether hose is twisted c) Manufacturing date only
Answer: b) Whether hose is twisted
117
Blanking caps prevent: a) Pressure build up b) Contamination and fluid loss c) Overheating
Answer: b) Contamination and fluid loss
118
Swivel fittings prevent: a) Leakage b) Twisting and kinking c) Corrosion
Answer: b) Twisting and kinking
119
V-retainer couplings seal by: a) Thread compression b) Wedging action of V-shape c) Adhesive
Answer: b) Wedging action of V-shape
120
Worm gear hose clamps are commonly called: a) T-bolts b) Jubilee clips c) Swage clamps
Answer: b) Jubilee clips
121
Aircraft electrical cable selection is primarily based on: A – Colour of insulation B – Purpose and installation location C – Conductor manufacturer
Answer: B – Purpose and installation location
122
The normal current rating of a cable is defined as: A – Maximum current regardless of temperature B – Current without excessive insulation deterioration or voltage drop C – Minimum current to energise a device
Answer: B – Current without excessive insulation deterioration or voltage drop
123
In the AWG system, a 24 gauge wire compared to 18 gauge is: A – Larger diameter B – Smaller diameter C – Equal diameter
Answer: B – Smaller diameter
124
Which wire has the lowest resistance? A – 24 AWG B – 18 AWG C – 0000 AWG
Answer: C – 0000 AWG
125
Bunching multiple wires together in a loom affects current rating by: A – Increasing it B – Decreasing it C – No change
Answer: B – Decreasing it
126
Aluminium wire in aircraft: A – Carries more current than copper of the same size B – Has lower specific resistance than copper C – Saves weight compared to copper
Answer: C – Saves weight compared to copper
127
Stranded conductors are used in aircraft cables because: A – They are cheaper B – They allow maximum flexibility C – They have higher resistance
Answer: B – They allow maximum flexibility
128
Shielded cables are used to: A – Protect against water ingress B – Prevent radio frequency interference (RFI) C – Reduce conductor resistance
Answer: B – Prevent radio frequency interference (RFI)
129
Co-axial cables are primarily used to: A – Carry low-voltage DC only B – Transfer RF signals with minimal interference C – Reduce current in high-power systems
Answer: B – Transfer RF signals with minimal interference
130
High-tension ignition cables are: A – Multi-core, unshielded B – Single-core, metal-braided screened C – Aluminium stranded only
Answer: B – Single-core, metal-braided screened