Lab final Flashcards

(667 cards)

1
Q

What are knots

A

Intertwining of one or two ropes in which the pressure of the standing part of the rope alone prevents it from slipping

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2
Q

What are hitches

A

Temporary fastening of a rope to a hook, post, or other object w/ the rope arranged so that the standing part forces the end against the object w/ sufficient pressure to prevent slipping

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3
Q

What is the standing end of a rope

A

The longer end of the rope or end attached to the animal

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4
Q

What is the end of the rope

A

The short part of the rope or the part that you can freely move about

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5
Q

What is a bright

A

A sharp bend in the rope

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6
Q

What is a loop or half hitch

A

A complete circle formed in the rope

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7
Q

What is a throw

A

When one rope is wrapped around another to make a part of a knot

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8
Q

What is an overhand knot

A

The base know for a number of different knots

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9
Q

What are the 4 easiest ways to keep a rope from fraying

A

Tying a simple overhand knot close to both ends, melting the ends w/ a match or lighter if its a nylon rope, coating them w/ a stop fraying product, or whipping

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10
Q

How is whipping done

A

Take a cord of smaller diameter of the rope about 1 to 1.5 inches away from the end of the rope lay about 4 inches of cord up against the rope and make a small bright with the cord producing two 4 inch strands and wrap the cord around the two strands of rope make sure to leave a small tag below the wrapped strands when finished wripping bring the end of the cord through the bright and bury the bright by pulling the tag and cutting it off

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11
Q

What is a square knot used for

A

To secure the ends of two ropes together or to form a nonslipping noose

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12
Q

What is the saying for remembering how to make a square knot

A

Right over left and left over right

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13
Q

What is a surgeon’s knot for

A

When a package or load cannot be secured because the first throw loosens while the second throw is being placed

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14
Q

What should always be on top of a surgeon’s knot to keep it secure

A

A square knot

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15
Q

What does a reefer’s knot do

A

Allows you to tie a nonslipping quick release

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16
Q

What does a tomfool knot do

A

It is a variant of a square knot used to bind two limbs together

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17
Q

What is a halter tie and what is it used for

A

A quick release knot that is always used when securing an animal to an immovable object

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18
Q

What is a sheet bend knot do

A

Used to tie two ropes different sizes securely together

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19
Q

When can sheet bend knots be used when working w/ horses and cattle

A

As a tail tie

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20
Q

What is a bowline knot do

A

To make a nonslip noose that will not tighten making it easy to untie regardless of how tight the knot is pulled

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21
Q

What is the saying for remembering how to do a bowline knot

A

The rabbit comes out of its hole goes around the tree and back into it’s hole

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22
Q

What does the bowline on the bright do

A

It is good for placing rope around an animal’s neck and securing the legs w/ the same rope

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23
Q

What does a half hitch do

A

It is a temporary fastening if steady pressure is going to be applied to the rope such as tying an animal to the surgery table

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24
Q

What is a clove hitch

A

It is the same as two half hitches stacked on one another

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25
What is a clove hitch good for
Securing a rope to a vertical bar
26
What things will cattle rely on to defend themselves
Speed, head, body, and hooves
27
Where is the safest place to stand aroud cattle
Right next to the shoulder or rear of the animal or outside of the kill zone
28
What does the type of restraint method used on cattle depend on
Age, sex, breed, and previous exposure to people
29
What does the body language of a nervous cow look like
It keeps its head and tail up and has a some what wild look in its eye
30
What do signs of aggression look like in bulls
Looking directly at you, pawing the ground w/ a front foot, and lowering/shaking its head
31
How do you move a cow and calf safely
By moving a small group with the cow calf in it into a pen that has another gate to another pen then move the cow and calf along the fence opposite to the secondary gate person so the gate can close behind the cow and calf
32
What is a stanchion
A simple head catch that usually has a horizontal single bar on the sides and an open rear area
33
What species are stanchions usually used w/
Dairy cows
34
What is the best method of restraining cattle to avoid injury
In a chute or stranchion w/ their head restrained in a head halter
35
What is the best tool for restraining a cow's head
Rope halter
36
What things can be done once the head is restrained in a rope halter
Examination of the eyes, ears, or mouth and jugular venipuncture
37
What is the purpose of nose leads
It restrains cattle by applying pressure to the nasal septum
38
What are cautions when using nose leads
If the balls are too close or touch each other when the instrument is closed circulation to the nasal septum is compromised
39
Why is compromising the circulation of the nasal septum render the nose lead useless
Because its more meant as a way to distract the cattle while they are restrained
40
How long can a nose lead be used safely
20-30 minutes
41
What type of cattle have permenant nose rings
Dairy bulls
42
How are oral medications delivered to cattle
By a balling gun, a drenching bottle or gun, or a stomach tube (requires a speculum)
43
What does restraining the feet of cattle usually require
Sedation or general anesthesia and the use of a hydraulic tilt table
44
What can be used when restraining the feet of cattle if a hydraulic tilt table is not available
Rope specifically a specialized hitch
45
How high should a back foot be restrained w/ cattle
Until the hock is above or level w/ the stifle
46
What is a milking or chain hobble used for
To prevent the animal from kicking by fitting two metal bands around the animal's leg just proximal to the hock
47
What is a tail jacking used for
To distract the animal from painful procedures or to raise the tail for blood draws
48
What will happen if the tail is held up offsided instead of in the middle of the body
It could trigger the animal to move forward or could cause a coccygeal vertebrae to become fractured
49
Where can a tail be tied when tail tying cattle
To their body not an immovable object to avoid a fracture or avulsion if they bolt
50
Why should dairy cows not have their tails tied
Because many of them are amputated so they do not have a switch at the end to act as a bight
51
What is flanking
Putting an calf/sheep in lateral recumbency
52
How can cattle's herding instinct be used to keep them calm when handling
Because their herding instinct is so strong the tend to remain calm when they can see other cattle
53
What are important concepts to remember about the environment when moving cattle
They move from darker to lighter areas, senstivie to color changes, and unknown objects, noises, or individuals cause stress and bulk
54
What weather conditions should be considered when handling cattle
Temperature, humidity, wind speed, phenotype, and cattle acclimation
55
How is the alley way designed
It is a narrow walkway designed so that cattle must walk through it in a single file
56
What are backstops
Spring loaded panels that can be pushed forward as the animal moves through the chute and then pop back into place once the animal is past the chute to prevent the animal from backing up once it has moved forward
57
What is tailing
Used to encourage cattle to move forward by grabbing the middle of the tail is grasped and twisted forward to one side or the other and over the back off the midline
58
Where on the cattle can electric prods be applied
To areas w/ sufficient muscle mass
59
How are cattle encouraged to enter the chute
By giving them the impression that they can walk all the way through it and keeping the head gate open as they enter the chute
60
What does stress predispose cattle to
Disease and decreases the animal's performance
61
How many hands should personnel have inside the chute
One hand
62
How can avoid smashing your fingers when working w/ bovine patients
Toss the halter over the ears
63
What is cow kicking
Common tendency of cattle to swing the kicking leg forward then laterally then our behind them
64
What is a physical thing that can prevent cattle from kicking
Use of pressure on the flank or the abdomen most often done w/ a flank rope or the antikick bar
65
What side should cattle be laid on if they need to go to lateral recumbency
Right side
66
Where should you work when working w/ an animal in recumbent
Along the animal's spine to prevent from being kicked
67
What must each brangus undergo before being registered
Inspection to determine conformation and breed character
68
What is the largest breed of cattle
Chianina
69
Where does ayshire fall in milk breed rankings
Third average milk production and fourth in average milk fat production
70
What kind of heifers mature more slowly compared to other breeds
Brown swiss
71
Where did brown swiss cattle fall in the dairy breed ranks
Second in average milk production and third in average milk fat production
72
Where do guernseys fall in the dairy breed rankings
Fourth in average milk production and second in average milk fat produced
73
What dairy bread has the largest udder
Holstein
74
Where do holsteins fall in the dairy breed ranks
First in average milk production and fifth in average milk fat produced
75
What is the smallest dairy breed
Jerseys
76
Where do jersey cattle fall in the dairy breed ranks
Fifth in average milk production and first in average milk fat produced
77
What classifies an individual as a mini or micro bovine
Stands at 48 inches or less at 3 years old
78
What are ways to identify cattle w/ the USDA
Offical ear tag, registration tattoo w/ registration certificate, registration brand w/ brand inspection certificates, registration number of a breed association recognized by APHIS w/ either an ear tag, tattoo, or brand, or USDA approved backtag
79
What are ways to provide cattle w/ enrichment
Toys, exercise, grazing, human contact, music, or grooming/scratching areas
80
What are group 1 drugs that are restricted in food animals
They are not to be used off label in any food producing animal species
81
What drugs fall into group 1 of illegal food animal drugs
Chloramphenicol, clenbuterol, diethystilbestrol, fluoroquinolone (antibiotic), glycopeptides like vancomycin, medicated feeds, nitroimidazoles like dimentridazole, ipronidazole, and metronidazole, and nitrofurans like furazolidone and nitrofurazone
82
What are group 2 drugs that are restricted in food animals
They have restricted extralables uses in all food producing animal species
83
In what animals is giving adamantane and neuraminidase inhibitors restricted
Poultry such as chickens, turkeys, and ducks
84
In what ways are cephalosporins restricted in food animals
W/ the intention to use the product in a way that deviates from the approved dose, treatment duration, frequency, or administration route on the product labe, use of product major species or animal production class, and use of the product for the purpose of disease prevention
85
How is gentian violet and indesxed drugs prohibited for food species
Can't be put in feed of any food producing animals
86
In what type of food animals is the use of phenylbutazone prohibited
Female dairy cattle greater than 20 months of age
87
In what type of food animals is the use of sulfonamide prohibited
Lactating dairy cattle
88
What drugs fall into group 2 of illegal drugs for food producing animals
Cephalosporins, gentian violet, indexed drugs, phenylbutazone, and sulfonamides
89
What are group 3 drugs that are restricted w/ food producing animal species
Drugs w/ special restrictions for grade A dairy operations
90
What drugs fall into the group 3 illegal drugs for food producing animals
Nonmedical grade dimethylsulfoxide, dipyrone, and colloidal silver
91
What are the minimum requirements looked at during a bull BSE
Scortal circumference, sperm motility, and sperm morpholgoy
92
Where should semen be placed for AI in cattle
Directly into the uterus just beyond the cervix w/ an intrauterine transcervical approach 12 hours after the first detected of estrus
93
What are the steps of embryo transfer in cattle
Superovulation, insemination of donor cow, collect embryos, identification and selection of embryos, and transfer the desired embryo in the recipient
94
How do we prepare female cattle for any uterine procedure
Tie up their tail and wash the vulva and perineum thoroughly w/ warm water and disinfectant scrub
95
What should be emphasized when implanting the embryo in the recipient's uterus
The close synchrony between the age and stage of development of the embryo and the endocrine status of the endometrium of the recipient
96
What are two normal treatments for uterine infections in cattle
Uterine infusion and lavage
97
What is a uterine infusion
Used to place liquid medication into the uterus and is left there to increase contact time w/ bacteria
98
What is springing in cattle
Relaxation of the vulva and muscles/ligaments on the tail head
99
What are the leading cause of death during the first 3 days of a calf's life
Starvation and hypothermia
100
What is the first things that are addressed after a neonate is born
Oxygenation and pulse assessment, temperature regulation, care of umbilical cord and umbilicus, nutrition/nursing, bonding of dam and baby, passage of meconium, adequacy of passive transfer of antibodies, and physical examination
101
What is the normal RR of a calf
45-60 bpm
102
What is normal HR of a calf
90-110 bpm
103
What is the normal temperature of a calf
100-102 F
104
What is the recommended umbilical treatment for calves
Topical treatment w/ either 3% povidone-iodine solution or dilute chlorhexidine solution 1:4 either once or twice daily
105
What is the most common congenital defect in cattle
Umbilical hernia
106
When do umbilical infections usually occur in cattle
W/in the first 2 weeks of life
107
When should calves try to stand
15-30 minutes after birth
108
When should calves start to nurse
1-2 hours after birth
109
How much colostrum should calves drink
10%-15% in BW but they need to ingest at least 150g in order to prevent failure to passive transfer
110
How much liquid can be given per tube or bottle feeding to prevent overdistension of the abomasum
No more than 2L/2 hrs
111
Which type of neonates metabolize IgG faster sick or healthy ones
Sick so they may need more
112
What is the normal blood sugar of calves
90-120 mg/dL
113
What blood sugar level is immediately life threatening in calves
60 mg/dL
114
When is calf rejection more common
In first time heifers, twins, or calves delivered via c-sections
115
What can failure of passive transfer be treated w/
IV plasma products, IV hyperimmune serum, or whole blood transfusions
116
What goes into the observation from a distance aspect of a calf PE
Mental alertness, behavior, suckling activity, gait, RR, and respiratory effort
117
What is the primary risk factor for neonatal bacteral septicemia
Failure of passive transfer of colostral antibodies
118
What are clinical signs of neonatal bacterial septicemia
Depression, dehydration, diarrhea, lethargy, decreased suckling, weakness, and increased recumbency
119
What can occur w/o septicemia in calves older than 4 days
Calf scours
120
What disease is common in calves older than 4 weeks
Calf pneumonia
121
What are clinical signs of calf pneumonia
High fever, depression, tachypnea, and soft/moist cough
122
What is the rumen responsible for
Microbial digestion w/ bacteria and protozoans
123
What vitamin can cattle produce on their own
C
124
What is the pH of the rumen
6.2-7.2
125
What type of fiber is required to keep the microorganisms of the rumen alive
Dietary fiber
126
What is the reticulum responsible for
Regurgitation of food during rumination
127
What is the omasum responsible for
Thought to squeeze fluid out of the ingested food
128
What is the abomasum responsible for
Beginning of peptic digestion of proteins
129
How much is forage wasted decreased by using round bales
10%
130
Why should concentrates be balanced w/ roughages even though they provide the most energy
To avoid problems like obesity, digestive problems, and decreased milk production
131
What minerals should be fed at free choice to cattle
Sodium and chloride
132
In what animals are iodine deficiencies most common
Pregnant animals leading to stillbirths
133
How are calcium deficiencies caused and corrected in ruminants
W/ high grain diets and corrected w/ limestone
134
What can cobalt deficiencies cause in cattle
Listlessness, ocular discharge, anemia, ketosis, abortions, decrease milk production, neurologic disorders, lameness, and diarrhea, and decreased appetite
135
What can cobalt toxicity cause in cattle
Decreased growth rates, incoordination, elevated levels of hemoglobin, kidney/liver disease, increased incidence of respiratory diesease in calves, hemorrhagic diarrhea, gastroenteritis, and elevated PCV
136
How can selenium and zinc be fed to cattle
In trace mineralized salt
137
What does selenium deficiencies led to
Reproductive problems such as calves w/ white muscle disease and immunosuppression
138
What are signs of zinc deficincy in cattle
Reduction in growth, reduced conception rates, reduced immune response, bone irregularities, decreased appetite, decreased wound healing, and hoof problems
139
What type of animals have the highest zinc requirements
Young male animals for testicular development
140
How do you hold off the jugular vein in cattle
W/ the whole fist or all fingers
141
Which venipuncture location are cattle more tolerant of
Tail venipuncture
142
What protects the coccygeal artery and vein that are located on the ventral aspect of the vertebral bodies
The hemal processes
143
Why should milk veins be the last site used for venipuncture
Because they are prone to prolonged bleeding and large hematoma formation
144
What arteries are accessible for arterial blood sampling in anesthetized patients
Auricular arteries and palpable peripheral limb arteries
145
Where is abdominal fluid collected from
Preformed slightly to the right of the ventral midline collected from the more dependent portion of the ventral abdomen
146
Where is it recommended to take an ear notch in cattle for a BVD test
From the midventral margin of the ear
147
Why is rumen fluid analysis beneficial
To diagnose the diseases of the forstomachs
148
What are routes that rumen fluid can be collected from
Passage of an orogastric tube or directly through the lower left abdominal wall by a rumenocentesis
149
Where is a rumenocentesis done
Caudal to the xiphoid process and left of the ventral midline
150
What do we look at when evaluating rumen fluid
Color, pH, odor, identification/assessment of microbial organisms, and electrolyte levels
151
How is urine collected in cattle
Catching a voided sample or by bladder catheterization through the urethra
152
What is titillating
Stroking the skin beneath the vulva lightly w/ the fingers or straw until urination occurs or vigorously rub the back of your hand ventrally and dorsally immediately ventral to the vulva
153
How can a voided urine sample be collected in male cattle
Rubbing the inside of the sheath w/ threads of a capped tube or w/ a finger
154
What is present in the female bovine urinary tract
A small blind sac (suburethral diverticulum) that extends from the ventral aspect of the urethra
155
Why is urinary catheterization in male cattle impossible
Because of the long urethra and sigmoid flexure
156
Where is the preferred sample collected from when looking for tritrichomonas foetus
The glans penis
157
How is a sample for tritrichomonas foetus obtained
Place the pipette into the sheath and use a vigorous back and forth scaping motion along the glans while applying negative pressure to the 20 or 30 ml syringe
158
Where is a sample taken from female cattle when we do test them for tritrichomonas foetus
From the cervical mucus or uterine secretions
159
What are the two most common media used when testing for tritrichomonas foetus
InPouch medium or the TF transit tubes
160
Where can we collect cerebrospinal fluid in cattle
The atlantooccipital space or the lumbosacral space
161
When can you do a bovine spinal tap standing up
Only if the animal is very sedated, restrained appropriately, and using the lumbosacral space
162
When is milk sampling done
When dairy cattle are suspected of mastitis
163
What are indications of mastitis
Clumps, clots, flakes, abnormal color, blood, and bad odor
164
What is a SCC and why is it done
Somatic cell counts is done to measure the amount of mammary inflammation however, this is not a direct indication of mastitis
165
What is the CMT
The california mastitis test is the most common field test used to identify individual cows for subclinical mastitis and which quarters are affected along w/ the severity of the inflammation
166
What are the somatic cells found w/ mastitis
Sloughed white blood cells and epithelial cells from the udder
167
How does the CMT identify somatic cells
Contains a 1:1 of reagnet that lyses the somatic cells in the milk releasing their DNA changing the consistency and color of the milk
168
What can cause a false positive in the CMT
If the foremilk is tested during late lactation or estrus
169
What is the WMT
The wisconsin mastitis test that is commonly used by milk receiving plants to measure the quality of the farm bulk tank milk sample picked up by the milk hauler done under the more precise procedures and standard temperature conditions
170
What can poor use of a balling gun do
Cause severe trauma to the pharynx, epiglottis, and oral cavity
171
What is drenching
Delivery of liquid oral medication directly into the oral cavity
172
How should you NOT hold the head of cattle while drenching
The tip of the nose should never be held higher than the top of the head
173
Hows is placement of an orogastric tube
Palpating or observing the tube in the esophagus, feeling resistance as it passed, noting the strong smell of rumen gas, aspirating rumen fluid, or having an assistant listen w/ a stethoscope while blowing air through the tube
174
What can IM injections cause in cattle
Injection site lesions that must be trimmed out of the meat during processing reducing profit
175
Where is the preferred IM injection site for cattle
Cervical muscle
176
Where is the only location we give SQ fluids in cattle
The lateral cervical region
177
What is the only medication that can be administered via dart guns according to the FDA restrictions and why isn't it done
Oxytetracyline and because the darts are not large enough to hold the recommended dose
178
What are implants
Small pellets that contain a growth stimulant that is slowly released over a period of time
179
Where is the only FDA approved locations for implants
Middle third on the back side of the ear between the skin and the cartilage
180
What are subconjunctival injections used for in cattle
To treat pinkeye
181
How are subconjunctival injections done
Into the bulbar conjunctiva which is the thin membrane that covers the sclera if done properly the area will swell and a bulge should be seen in this area
182
What medication is used for active corneal ulcers in cattle
Dexamethasone
183
What are regional limb perfusions
Provision of temporarily anesthsia and administration of antibiotic to treat a localized infection
184
How is an RLP or bier block done
A tourniquet is placed on the distal extremity proximal to the lesion and the injection is done directly into the local venous access and is held there for 30-45 minutes
185
Where is the only place brucellosis vaccination tattoos be placed on cattle
The right ear
186
Why are intradermal injections done
For diagnostic purposes such as testing for TB using the caudal tail fold or allergic reactions in the lateral cervical or flank area
187
What are the most common type of meds that are given intramammary
Antibiotics
188
How should you clean/infuse teats for infusion of medications
Cranial teats should be cleaned first then the caudal teats then they should be fused in the reverse order to avoid contamination via the technician's arms
189
Why should motorized equipment be used during hoof trimming
To prevent excessive heating of the internal tissues in the hoof
190
How is ruminant necropsy usually preformed
In lateral recumbency to minimize interference w/ the rumen
191
Why is making a stab incision over fluid in the rumen a bad idea
Because it will release the contents onto the adjacent tissues contaminating them
192
How do we decide if a food animal is a surgical candidate
We base it on the value of the animal
193
What are the two categories that large animal surgical procedures are broken into
Standing surgery procedures and general anesthesia procedures
194
What is a third option of surgical procedures
Heavy sedation w/ forced recumbency
195
How are most surgical procedures done in ruminants
Animal in standing position and they use a combination of sedation or tranquilization and local or regional anesthesia
196
What do the form of restraints used on cattle depend on
Facilities available, personnel availability and experience, expected duration of the procedure, and patient related factors such as species, age, temperament, anatomic location of the procedure, anticipated level of pain, and general health of the animal
197
Why are ruminants at an increased risk of bloat while under sedation or being tranquilized
They depress GI motility and when they regurgitate they can aspirate
198
How long can food and water safely withheld from ruminants
Food for 12-24 hrs and water for 6 hrs
199
What are the common local anesthetic drugs used in large animals
Lidocaine, mepivacaine, and bupivacaine but lidocaine is the most common
200
What is the toxic lidocaine dose in cattle and what are the signs of toxicity
13mg/kg and signs are hypotension, drowsiness or sedation, muscle twitching, respiratory depression, and possibly convulsions
201
What is an L block
Type of field block used to desensitize the flank for stanking flank laparotomies
202
What vertebrae are targeted to create a large region of flank anesthesia and how
T13, L1, and L2 can be blocked near their exit from the vertebral column at a "paravertebral" location
203
What are the 2 main ways to approach the nerves needed to anesthesize the large region of the flank in cattle
Dorsal approach near the intervertebral foramina or a lateral approach near the tips of the trnasverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae
204
What is a cornual nerve block used for
Desensitization of the horn and horn base for dehorning surgical procedures
205
Where is the cornual nerve block given
Ventral to the temporal ridge at a site approximately halfway between the horn base and the lateral canthus of the eye
206
What is a ring block
Lidocaine is deposited in a complete circle around the base of the horn but is often used on distal limb surgical procedures
207
Where are tourniquets placed for limb procedures
For procedures on the feet it should be placed on the midcarpus or midtarsus and for procedures it should be placed just proximal to the carpus or tarsus
208
What should be done in the grooves in the front of the common calcaneal tendon before placing a tourniquet
Fill the grooves on both sides of the leg w/ roll gauze or other soft padding before placing the tournique
209
What is complications can occur if the tourniquet is on for longer than 2 hours
Tissue necrosis, pain, and swelling
210
What can occur if a tourniquet isnt taken off gradually
A bolus release of anesthetic drugs into the general circulation and possible resulting hypotension
211
When are caudal epidural analgesics utilized and how long does it last
In ruminants especially for obstetric procedures and treatment of prolapses of the uterus, vagina, and rectum this takes affect after 10-20 minutes and lasts 1-2 hours on average
212
Where is the caudal epidural analgesia administered
Through the dorsal aspect of the tail base at the first intercoccygeal space
213
What complications are cattle prone to during cranial epidural analgesia recovery
Splay legged recoveries w/ overabduction of hindlimbs and resulting damage to the pelvis and inner thigh muscles
214
How is the risk of regurgitation decreased in cattle
Reduce the size of the rumen and decrease pressure inside the organ
215
What can stimulation of the pharynx and larynx cause in bovine
Can induce a gag reflex and cause regurgitation especially in light planes of anesthesia
216
How does depression of GI motility increase the chances of bloat
Ongoing fermentation in the rumen or reticulum create gas which may accumulate and cause bloat
217
How does acepromazine affect cattle
Helps calm nervous cattle but does not have a strong tranquilizing effect at recommended dose this lasts 2-4 hrs
218
What are complications can ace cause in cattle
Males experience a prolonged period of penile relaxation and increase the risk of injury to the penis
219
What is the contraindication of ace in cattle
If they are dehydrating patients
220
What is the common preanesthetic sedative drug used in bovine and what is it used for
Xylazine it is used for casting animals for recumbent procedures and for sedation during standing surgical procedures however ruminants are highly sensitive to xylazine
221
What dosing should be used for dosing ruminants w/ xylazine and can it be reversed
20mg/ml and can be reversed w/ yohimbine or tolazoline
222
What are clinical signs of over use of xylazine
Bloat, bradycardia, decreased ventilation, hyperglycemia, and urterine contractions
223
What is the age restriction of thiobarbiturates in cattle
Should not be used in animals less than 3 months old and can cross the placenta and cause adverse effects on the fetus
224
What is ketamine used with
Sedatives such as xylazine or acepromazine
225
What is guaifenesin used for in large animals and for what
It is combined w/ thiobarbiturates, xylazine, or ketamine for induction and sometimes for maintenance for muscle relaxant effects and to decrease required doses of other anesthetic drugs
226
Why should solutions of guaifenesin for IV use in ruminants not exceed 5%
Can cause significant hemolysis
227
What is a popular inducation combination used in cattle
The triple drip or GKX contains xylazine, guaifenesin, and ketamine
228
What is the double drip formulation
IV guaifenesin and ketamine can be a safer alternative for induction of anesthesia because their isn't as much potential for excessive cardiovascular and respiratory depression exists
229
What is telazol used for in cattle
Induction anesthesia in calves and maintenance of short term surgical anesthesia
230
What can propofol be used for in cattle
Induction in calves producing approximately 10 minutes of surgical anesthesia but a continuous drip can be used to maintain anesthesia for slightly longer periods of time
231
How is placing an ET easiest in cattle
Having the patient in sternal recumbency w/ the head and neck held in extension
232
How can ET placement be palpated into place in cattle
Epiglottis is palpated and depressed w/ one or more fingers while the tip of the tube is manually guided into the trachea
233
When is inhalation anesthesia used in cattle
Procedures lasting longer than 60 minutes
234
Why is nitrous oxide gas not recommended for use in ruminants
Because its poor solubility in the blood
235
What are the methods for determining the depth of anesthesia in cattle
Ocular reflexes, eyeball position, pupil size, and muscle movement
236
What are ocular reflexes that are used for determining the anesthetic depth in cattle
The corneal reflex should always be present and the palpebral reflex may be delayed be should be present
237
How does the eyeball position change during anesthesia
The eye tends to roll ventromedially in light surgical anesthesia and returns to a central position in deep surgical anesthesia
238
How does the pupil size change during anesthesia
They dilate w/ an overdose of inhalant gas occurs the central eyeball position w/ dilated pupils usually indicates that excessive anesthesia has been administered
239
How is muscle movement used to measure anesthetic depth
Lack of muscle movement in response to the surgical procedure should be monitored
240
What is the ideal respiration rate for cattle
10-30 bpm
241
What is the ideal heart rate for cattle under anesthesia
60-120 bpm
242
What is the ideal mean BP for anesthetized cattle
70 mmHg
243
What is the relationship w/ complications of castration and age
The complication rate and difficulty of the procedure increases w/ ages
244
What is the most common type of castration preformed w/ calves at the time of weaning
Surgical knife castration
245
What are emasculators used for
Castrating animals w/ more developed spermatic cords to provide more reliable hemostasis
246
What are emaculatomes used for
To crush the spermatic cord above the testicle through the skin and w/o the incision but this is less reliable
247
What are elastrators used for
Castrating via banding can lead to clostridial disease
248
What is chemical castration
Each testicle is injected w/ a castration solution containing a chemical that gradually destroys the testicular tissue and a local anesthetic for pain relief this process is complete in 60-90 days
249
What is disbudding
Removal of the horn buds before actual horn growth begins
250
What is heat cautery used for
To cauterize the horn bud in young calves
251
What type of sedation is used for surgical removal of horns
Xylazine and local anesthesia w/ a cornual nerve block or ring block at the base of the horn
252
What is tipping
Removal of only the tips of the horns that should be done beyond the extent of the frontal sinus w/in the horn to prevent creating a permanent opening
253
What are tube or spoon dehorners used for
To remove very small horns
254
What does supernumerary teats me
There are an extra amount of teats
255
How can extra teats be removed
W/ an emasculatome or an emasculator in animals more than 6 months old
256
What is the surgical procedure of choice for dealing w/ bladder stones in cattle
Cystotomy
257
What is the only way to attempt to prevent stone formation in cattle
Nutritional management
258
What closed procedures can be done for left displacement of the abomasum
Rolling, blind tack, toggle pin, and laparoscopy assisted toggle pin
259
What kind of anesthesia is used for prolapses
Caudal epidural anesthesia
260
What should be done prior to the clinican placing the prolapse back inside cattle
Cleaned using povidone iodine or chlorhexidine solution
261
What is an adult male castrated goat or sheep called
Wether
262
What is an adult male castrated pig called
Before puberty barrow and after puberty stag
263
What are immature females called in small ruminants
Ewe lamb and doe kid
264
What vaccinations are given to sheep and goat
Clostridium perfringens C & D and clostridium tetani (tetanus)
265
What vaccinations are given to swine
Mycoplasma, parvovirus, leptospirosis, and erysipelas
266
What vaccinations are given to cattle
Rhinovirus, BVD, parainfluenza3, respiratory syncytial virus, pasteurella, blackleg, and brucellosis (heifers)
267
What is the normal temperature of adult cattle
100-102.5
268
What is the normal heart rate of adult cattle
40-80 bpm
269
What locations can be used to palpate the pulse of cattle
Coccygeal artery, facial artery, median forelimb, dorsal metatarsal
270
What is a borborygmus
Sound of rumen contractions/digestion
271
How many borborygmus should occur in a healthy rumen
1-2/minute
272
What venipuncture vessel is the safest for technicians working w/ cattle
The jugular
273
What is the max amount of fluids that can be given IM in cattle
10mls/IM injection site
274
What information should be documented when injecting cattle
Product, amount, location, and date
275
What are landmarks for IM injections
Cervical vertebrae and nuchal ligament (ventral), scapula (cranial), and jugular furrow (dorsal)
276
What are intradermal injections used for in cattle and where
Used for diagnostic testing of tuberculosis in the caudal tail fold
277
What is the normal temperature for small ruminants
101-104
278
What is the normal heart rate of small ruminants
70-90bpm
279
What is the normal respiration for small ruminants
12-25bpm in sheep and 12-30bpm in goats
280
What veins can be used for giving IV meds in small ruminants
Jugular, cephalic, and saphenous
281
How are IV meds given in ruminants
Quickly place the needle only, once dripping blood is visualized place the syringe, aspirate to check for placement, and inject
282
Where are SQ injections given to small ruminants
Axillary region
283
What is the normal temperature of pigs
101-103
284
What is the normal heart rate of pigs
60-90bpm
285
Where can we feel the pulse of pigs
Femoral, auricular, and coccygeal
286
What is the normal respiration rate of pigs
10-24bpm
287
How many auricular veins are there in pigs
3 branches but the lateral and central are the largest
288
How do you do a jugular stick in a pig
It is a blind stick that involves visualizing a horizontal line passing through the shoulders and manubrium sterni and a second line from the manubrium to the scapula at 45 degrees to the first line you want to insert the needle where the 2 lines intersect
289
How should a cranial vena cava stick done in pigs
Enter from the right side of the pig to avoid the phrenic nerve and the external jugular that is more prominent on the left side, insert the needle at a 45 degree angle craniolateral to the manubrium aimming for the dorsal border o the opposite scapula, after puncturing the skin apply negative pressure, advance the needle then stop when blood is found, and never redirect the needle
290
When are orbital sinus blood draws done
In research settings
291
How are orbital sinus blood draws done in pigs
Animal should be sedated and in lateral recumbency, place tip of needle at the medial canthus of the eye w/ the bevel of needle is turned toward the eyeball directing it caudomedial, and rotate the needle to lacerate the vessels then aspirate
292
How many mls of fluid can be given pigs IM
3 mls per injection site
293
What are the functions of hoof trimming
To properly shape the foot in young growing animals and to control disease and avoid musculoskeletal disorders
294
What is the goal of hoof trimming
Make foot match angle of coronary band so they are parallel
295
How is hoof trimming done
Grasp the foot at the fetlock joint using your thumb to separate the toes and examine the region, trim the toe and outside the hoof wall down to where fresh sole can be seen and bottom of foot is parallel to the coronary band, trim inside the hoof wall slightly lower than the outside wall, and release the animal and observe for weight distribution on the feet and length of toes
296
What type of teeth do ruminants have
Mandibular incisors
297
What is the permanent dental formula for small ruminants
2(I 0/4, C 0/0, P 3/3, M 3/3) = 32
298
What permanent incisors erupt when small ruminants are 1-1.5 years of age
Central
299
What permanent incisors erupt when small ruminants are 1.5-2 years of age
Middle
300
What permanent incisors erupt when small ruminants are 2.5-3 years of age
Lateral
301
What permanent incisors erupt when small ruminants are 3.5-4 years of age
Corner
302
What permanent incisors erupt when cattle are 1-2 years of age
Central
303
What permanent incisors erupt when cattle are 28 months of age
Middle
304
What permanent incisors erupt when cattle are 30-36 months of age
Lateral
305
What permanent incisors erupt when cattle are 48 months of age
Corner
306
How should goats be restrained
W/ minimum amount of restraint necessary to complete medical procedures if they are handled to rough they will struggle
307
What happens if handlers get agitated while handling goats
They will attempt to butt, pyoderma, sneezing, snorting, and stomping
308
What are immobile objects that can be used to help restrain goats
Walls, fences, and corners
309
What are the best ways to restrain goats for invasive procedures
Lateral or flank
310
What is an instant way to catch a goat
Capture a goat and have it remain still grasp one of its front legs and lift it
311
What are the 2 methods of flanking a goat
For both start w/ the goat's body parallel to your legs then either grasp the goat's nose w/ one hand and its inside rear leg w/ the other then bring the back leg forward and turn its nose to meet its leg or grab the goat's near back leg while using your forearm to control its head an dneck and raise its back legs by grasping the flank and lifting then gently put the goat on the ground keeping a firm hold on all four legs and gently press your knee on its neck
312
When do head restraining techniques work the best
When the goat is back into a corner and pushed sideways against the wall
313
What are the 2 ways to restrain a goats head
Grasping the goat's beard w/ one hand and encircling the neck w/ the other or place each hand on either side of its cheeks wrapping your fingers around its mandible holding firmly
314
Why is holding a goat's beard not always the best idea
Because they pee on their beards during mating season when produces a strong odor that stays on your hand and clothing
315
What species of goat typically are seen using collars
Dairy goats
316
How are collars useful for restraining goats
They are used to secure goats to a stanchion or wall for milking, jugular venipuncture, and general examinations
317
How is a goat restrained for cephalic venipuncture
One hand around the goat's neck and one hand grasps the front legs to roll the vein
318
How do you drench a goat
Either put the goat in a corner and or straddle it then hold the drenching syringe in your dominant hand while lifting the goat's head w/ your nondominant hand and insert the syringe at the commissure of the lips
319
How are goats gregarious
They enjoy the company of other species and often respond to human touch and affection
320
Do goat's tend to have a strong flocking instinct or herd hierarchy
Their flocking instinct isn't that strong however, they do have a herd hierarchy giving them the tendency to show independent behavior but they do follow the dominant goat when directed
321
What can be used to lead a goat
Their beard
322
How should legs be grabbed when using them to restrain goats
At the fetlock so they bend at the knee when lifting up
323
How should small kids be restrained
Typically in sternal recumbency in the lap of the handler w/ their forearms on the kid's back to prevent the kid from rising and using their hands to control the head dorsal recumbency or lateral recumbency up against the legs is also possible
324
Which gender do we put more emphasis on placing when it comes to breeding
Males because they contribute a higher percentage of genetics to the herd
325
What is a harem breeding system
One male is used to breed several females
326
How do we evaluate particular breeding animals
Estimated progeny differences (EPDs), estimated breeding values (EBVs), pedigrees, and conformation
327
What are EPDs used for
To predict the characteristics of offspring before they are born especially in male bovine
328
What does scrotal circumference correlate w/
The amount of sperm producing tissue and usually is a good indication of sperm production
329
What EPDs utilize bull's female offspring
Milk production and mothering ability
330
What is the accuracy number
Gives the producer an indication of the actual accuracy of the EPD
331
What affects accuracy of EPDs
The number of progeny and if ancestral records are included
332
What are EPVs
Used to determine the value of a breeding between two animals to indicate the degree of heritability of these traits especially in the cattle and swine industries
333
What are pedigrees typically used for
Selecting a type of breeding such as inbreeding, linebreeding, purebreeding, outcrossing, and grading up
334
What is inbreeding
Mating of two animals that are closely related
335
What is linebreeding
Mating of several generations of offspring to particular animals or their descendants
336
What is crossbreeding
Mating of sires of one breed to dams of another
337
What is a purebreeding
Mating of two animals from the same breed
338
What is outcrossing
Practice of breeding of animals from different families w/in the same breed
339
What is grading up
Practice of breeding a grade animal to a purebred animal
340
How should animals overall selected for breeding
Based on conformation each sire and dam should be as close as possible to perfect conformation
341
What does the female anatomy consist of
The broad ligament, ovaries, oviducts, uterus, cervix, vagina, vestibule, and vulva
342
What is the ovarian bursa
Surrounds the ovary in ruminants
343
What are the 3 parts of the oviduct
Infundibulum, ampulla, and isthmus
344
What is the function of the papilla at the uterotubal junction in horses
It makes sure only fertilized eggs into the uterus
345
What is the urethral opening present in cows and sows
The suburethral diverticulum in the vestibule
346
What does the male reproductive anatomy consist of
Scrotum, testicles, epididymis, vas deferens, accessory sex glands, penis, and prepuce
347
Where does spermatogenesis take place in the testicle
The seminiferous tubules
348
What is the function of the epididymis
It connects the testicles and the spermatic cord that is responsible for sperm maturation, storage, and transport
349
What are the accessory sex glands and what are they responsible for
Vesicular glands, prostate gland, and bulbourethral/cowper's gland are responsible for producing seminal fluids
350
What re the four phases of estrous
Proestrus, estrus, metestrus, and diestrus
351
When is anestrus present in livestock animals
It can be seasonally polyestrus species and only in polyestrous species during pregnancy
352
Why does proestrus start w/ the decline in progesterone
Because the surge of PGF2alpha in diestrus lysis the CL present on the ovary
353
What does the decline progesterone in the proestrus phase lead to
The block on GnRH, FSH, and LH disappears allowing FSH to be produced and act on the ovary which will eventually lead to estrogen production for estrus
354
What happens once there is a specific blood level of estrogen
LH will be released triggering ovulation
355
What happens during metestrus
The CL will begin to form where the follicle was leading to the production of progesterone
356
What occurs during diestrus
If the animal is not pregnant the body triggers PGF2alpha surge to lysis the CL if it is pregnant it will continue to produce progesterone unit parturition
357
What does FSH and LH do in males
FSH triggers sperm production and LH triggers the production of testosterone
358
What are the three phases of spermatogenesis
Proliferation, meiotic, and differentiation
359
What happens during the proliferation stage of spermatogenesis
Several cellular divisions take place while some of the cells revert back to primitive cell types so their is always a continuous supply of stem cells
360
What occurs during the meiotic stage of spermatogensis
Genetic diversity
361
What occurs during the differentiation stage of spermatogensis
They obtain a head, midpiece, and flagella
362
When do most embryonic losses occur
Before implantation occurs
363
What can poor vaginal and labial conformation result in
Urovagina, ascending endometritis, or the need for a caslick due to windsucking
364
What is used to obtain cultures of a uterus
A uterine culturette it has a trap door cap keeping it from being contaminated by the vulva, vagina, and cervix
365
What is an uterine infusion
Delivering liquids into the uterus
366
What are indications for an uterine infusions
Treatement of uterine infection, routine flushing after an abortion or foaling, and postbreeding infusions to prepare the uterus to recieve an embryo
367
What is a goal of a uterine lavage
To remove debris and exudate from the uterus
368
How are uterine biopsies graded
1-3 w/ 1 suggesting normal or minimally abnormal specimen and 3 suggesting severe or irreversible disease
369
What does bouin's fixative used for and consist of
Used for biopsy samples and is comprised of 10% buffered formalin and 70% alcohol
370
How long can biopsy samples be left in bouin's fixative
No more than 24 hrs
371
WHat are 5 phases of heifer development
Sire selection, preweaning management, heifer selection at weaning, weaning to breeding, and gestation through parturition, and rebreeding
372
How are heifers selected at weaning
Select the oldest heifers that are between 450-600 pounds
373
What percentage of mature BW do farmers want heifer calves before breeding
60-65%
374
What is the primary goal of a breeding soundness exam on males
To evaluate the current stage of fertility of an individual
375
What things are evaluated on the accessory sex glands
Symmetry, size, consistency, and sensitivity
376
What are important things to acquire on a bulls history when doing a breeding soundness exam
Info on their pregnancy rates, number of females mated, diseases, illnesses, and nutrition
377
What two things should be emphasized when examining a male for a BSE
Vision and conformation
378
What type of tranquilizers are more likely to lead to the penis being extended for a prolonged time
Phenthiazine based tranquilizers
379
What things should be evaluated when examining a penis during a BSE
Ability to extend the penis, extension of the penis to a straight line, hair rings, and skin lesions of the prepuce or glans penis
380
What things should be evaluated when examining the scrotum and testicles during a BSE
The shape, size, and consistency of the scrotum and testicles along w/ the testicles ability to move w/in the scrotum
381
What can the scrotal circumference be influenced by and correlate w/
Can be influenced by age, breed, and time of year making them correlate w/ sperm production, ovulation, and age of puberty of females
382
What does a BSE not evaluate or ensure
Libido nore does it ensure that a male will remain a satisfactory potential breeder the entire season
383
When is semen collected
For a BSE to determine the quality/quantity of the sperm, evaluation of reproductive diseases, and collection/preparation of semen for AI
384
What are the 3 primary ways to collect semen in large animals
Electroejaculation, using an artifical vagina, and natural stimulation
385
How is postcoital aspiration done in camelids
Sponge is placed into the vagina of the female just bred and the seminal fluid is collected from the vagina for evaluation
386
What are the two methods for storing semen
In semen straws or ampules
387
What is extender used for in AI
It is a combination of liquid and solid ingredients designed to nourish and help sperm out of the males reproductive tract and to increases the volume of sperm if the ejaculate is being split into different doses
388
What can be evaluated about the ovaries by doing a rectal palpation
Examine ovaries for the presence of follicles and their size
389
How does a cervix change during estrus
It dilates and becomes hyperemic
390
What is the stance that sows present w/ when they are receptive to boars or if pressure is applied to their back
Lordosis is when they w/ their legs rigid and erect ears
391
What species primarily utilizes a marking harness and how is it used
Primarily used in small ruminants worn by the males to marking the female's tail head they breed
392
What are different types of live cover
Pen mating, hand mating, and individual breeding
393
What is pen mating
Multiple animals are placed in a pen and allowed to mate using natural instincts
394
What is hand mating
A male and female in estrus are brough together w/ the producer present to ensure mating was complete
395
What is individual breeding
A male and a female are placed in a pen together for an extended period of time w/o supervision w/ the assumption that she came into estrus and was bred
396
What are supplies needed for AI
Animal records, restraint, liquid nitrogen tank or semen cooler, electric thaw unit, thermometer, timer, semen or insemination pipettes, and straw cutter or scissors
397
What are the two different ways to conduct AI programs
Keeping a breeding male on the premises and collect fresh semen as needed for prompt uses or store deep frozen semen from males and use it as needed
398
What is the ideal temperature for storing semen at
-196 degrees C
399
How long can canes be lifted out of the nitrogen tank when pulling semen
No more than 10 seconds
400
What is in vitro fertilization
Producing embryos from oocytes by collecting the oocytes from the ovaries using ultrasound guided follicular aspiration and then fertilizing them w/ semen in a petri dish
401
How long are IVF embryos kept in a petri dish before transferred into the recipients
7 days
402
What are the benefits of confirming pregnancy
Planning for labor in terms of feeding, vet care, and space needed and estimating the budget for cost and profit
403
When can pregnancy be confirmed w/ rectal palpation in cattle
As early as days 25-30 of gestation
404
How is rectal palpation done on sheep and goats to determine pregnancy
By using a palpation rod to gently elevate and hold the uterus against the abdominal wall however this doesn't usually work in goats because they hate being on their back
405
When can cattle and small ruminants be ultrasounded to confirm pregnancy
Cattle at day 12 of gestation and small ruminants day 18 of gestation
406
When can sexing be done when ultrasounding pregnant cows
Between 60-70 days of gestation
407
What is the most common way to confirm pregnancy in small ruminants
Transabdominal ultrasound at 30-45 days of gestation but accuracy is higher at day 60 of gestation
408
When are you most likely to visualize multiple fetuses in small ruminants
After 45-90 days of gestation
409
When can a doppler ultrasound be done in small ruminants to determine pregnancy
35-40 days of gestation but accuracy is highest after 70 days of gestation
410
When can doppler ultrasound be used to determine pregnancy in cattle
After 6-7 weeks of gestation
411
What is the best way to determine if a sow is pregnant
Transabdominal ultrasound using A mode and doppler
412
When can ultrasound be used to determine pregnancy in sows
Most accurate between 30-90 days of gestation, doppler is accurate after 28 days of gestation, B mode is accurate after 18 days of gestation but ideally after 22 days of gestation
413
How can pregnancy be determined externally
By pressing both fist against the lower flank area and rapidly pressing inward supposedly this displaces the uterus and causes it to rebound back bumping the examiners fist however this is not accurate
414
Which large animal species do we x-rays to determine pregnancy or checking for multiple fetuses and when can this be done
Sheep and goats as early as 65-70 days of gestation but is the most accurate after 90 days of gestation
415
What be sent to the lab when doing an abortion cause workup
The fetus and placenta
416
Which type of dystocia causes is most common
Fetal causes specifically abnormal fetal position
417
What are 3 main methods of dealing w/ dystocias
Mutation, delivery by traction or feotomy, and cesarean section
418
What is the most common method for dealing w/ dystocias
Mutation (changing the position of the fetus)
419
What are the most common instruments used for applying traction
Obstetric chains and handles
420
How is traction applied when dealing w/ dystocias
Gradual and smooth movements in a curved path from the pelvis down to the ground at a 45 degree angle
421
What is commonly done in sheep and goats prior to mutation
A caudal epidural block
422
What is a common issue during farrowing
Determining if all of the fetuses have been birthed
423
How is a female medicated for a fetotomy
She is sedated and given a caudal epidural block
424
Which large animal species are cesarean sections straightforward w/ good survival rates for dam and calf
Cattle w/ local anesthesia +/- sedation
425
When is a c-section indicated
Fetus is too large for vaginal delivery, size of female prohibits vaginal manipulations, failure of the cervix to dilate, vaginal prolapse, fetal emphysema, fetus too malformed, and planned termination of pregnancy before term
426
What are common post partum complications
Retained placentas, uterine prolapses, ketosis, acetonemia, pregnancy toxemia, displaced abomasums, milk fever, and mastitis
427
What is important when recieving large animal patients being hospitilized for treatment
Who is in charge of the making the decisions
428
What is important to check before loading animals into transport vehicle
Cleanliness, structural soundness, flooring, gates, sharp edges, and check trailer tires
429
What type of flooring is ideal for transporting animals
Nonslip
430
What are the different type of trailer layouts
Two horse trailers, stock trailers, and slant load trailers
431
When are swine at the most risk for brusing
Improper handling and transport of swine
432
What are indications that a livestock animal should immediately be euthanized
Unable to sit up or rise w/o assistance and refuse to eat or drin
433
What are unacceptable actions for a downer
Never drag nonambulatory animals, never use an electric pod to stimulate an injured or disabled animal to get unless essential to prevent further injury or death, never use chains/ropes/cables to lift/suspend/move the animals unless necessary to prevent further injury or death if allowed by state law, and never let a nonambulatory animal remain in any area where they may get walked on or trampled
434
What can help present misunderstandings w/ medical records and pricing
Cost estimates
435
What are the three common types of equine insurance
Mortality insurance, surgical insurance, and loss of use insurance
436
What is mortality insurance
Covers the value of the horse in the case of death
437
What is surgical insurance
Covers specific costs of surgery and hospitlization w/ some limitations
438
What is loss of use insurance
Covers the intended use of the horse if the horse cannot perform its intended use because of illness or injury possibly reimbursing the owner
439
What is the purpose of withdrawal times
To keep the nation's food supply safe
440
What is the maximum residue limits
A trading standard set by national and international authorities to ensure the residues are controlled in world food trade
441
How should patients be described
Sex, breed, age, permanent or temporary ID, coat color, and marketings
442
What are temporary artificial forms of ID
Panel tags, electronic identification tags, metal clips, collars, ankle bands, temporary marking paint, brisket tags, and tail tags
443
What are permanent artifical IDs
Lip tattoos, freeze brands, hot brands, ear notching, and micochips
444
What are natural markings
Hair color patterns, scars, hair whorls, muscle identations, and chestnuts
445
What is the national animal identification system that has been created by the USDA
Helps track individual animals health during disease outbreaks and quickly find other animals that may be infected
446
What are the 3 phases of the national animal identification system
Premises registration, animal identification, and animal tracking database
447
What is the premises registration stage of the national animal identification system
Producers register their farms and ranches as locations where livestock are raised then give a premises identification number (PIN) or location identifier (LID)
448
What is the animal identification stage of the national animal identification system
Information about the livestock are stored
449
What are the two types of brands used
Freeze branding and heat branding
450
What does freeze branding do
It destroys the hair pigment which is derived from cells called melanocytes
451
Which gender of pygmy goats is required to have beards
Males
452
What are pygmy goats used for
Milk production
453
Which dairy goat is best producing
Saanens
454
What is mohair
Fleece of the angora goat
455
What age of angora fleece is more valuable
Kid fleece
456
What is cashmere
Soft down or winter undercoat of fiber produced by most breeds of goats except the angora
457
What are examples of environmental enrichment for goats
Adding stumps or elevated platforms, adding sand dirt, or other substrates, adding balls, fallen trees, or anything else that provides various textures to explore
458
What is rute
The mating period of male goats this can present w/ decreased appetitie, flehman response, and urinating on their face and forelegs
459
What glands contribute to producing odors to attract does
The sebaceous scent glands located at the base of the horns
460
What is the most common method of semen collection in rams
Electroejactulation
461
What is a major parasite of small ruminants and what does it cause
Haemonchus contortus causes anemia
462
What is used to determine the degree of anemia in an individual animal
The FAMACHA carding system
463
Why do we selectively treat individuals w/ high levels of anemia
Because typically 20% of the flock will contain 80% of the worm
464
How are goats held for jugular blood draws
Standing
465
What other veins can be used for venipuncture in small ruminants
Cephalic vein and femoral vein
466
How can you stimulate a ewe to urinate
By holding their nostrils and mouth shut for up to 45 seconds w/ the animal is standing
467
How can you collect goat urine
Waiting w/ a specimen cup for urination to occur however it can be encouraged by placing them in a new pen or putting them in lateral recumbency
468
Why is catherizing male goats impossible
Due to their S shaped curvature of the penis and urethra and the urethral diverticulum
469
How are oral medications given to goats
By straddling them, taking one hand to elevate and restrain the head, and then the other to operate the balling gun
470
What is the most common IM injection site for non showing goats
The lateral cervical muscles
471
Why is the lateral cervical muscle avoided as an injection site for showing goats
Because a tissue reaction could be mistaken for an abscess of the prescapular lymph node which mimics the caprine disease caseous lymphadenitis
472
How many mls of fluid can be put in each gluteal muscle injection site
5 mls
473
How many mls of fluid can be put in the SQ space of small ruminants and where can SQ fluids be given
50 mls and fluids can be given via the axilla and flank folds
474
How are large animals given SQ fluids and injections
Making a skin tent then injecting at the base like in small animals
475
What is the necessary equipment needed for an intramammary infusion
1/8 inch infusion tip, sterile tom cat catheters, and medication for infusion
476
How long is food withheld from small ruminants when preping for surgery
12-24 hours if they are adults lambs/kids should only be fasted for 2-4 hours
477
What drug are sheep and goats more sensitive to and what dosage causes toxicity
Lidocaine and toxic dose is 10mg/kg
478
How many mls can be put in a paravertebral block
2-5 mls can be given
479
How many mls can be given in a distal paravertebral block
2-4 mls can be given
480
What does the nerve supply look like in goat horns
Duel nerve supply to each horn
481
Where are the nerve blocks given in goats
Cornual branch from the lacrimal nerve behind the caudal ridge of the supraorbital process and cornual branch of the infratrochlear nerve at the dorsomedial margin of the orbit
482
How much can be given IV to goats
10 mls
483
What is the dose given to caudal epidural analgesia in small ruminants
Caudal epidural administration should not exceed 0.5 to 1 ml of 2% solution per 50 kg body weight
484
How much oxygen should be given to ruminants before the anesthetic gas
3-5 L/minute for 1-2 minutes
485
How are ET tubes measured in small ruminants
Estimated by palpation of the tracheal diameter through the skin of the neck but adults can usually take 10-12 mms
486
What care commonly used drugs in small ruminant anesthesia
Diazepam, ketamine, and propofol
487
What HR should be maintained during small ruminant anesthesia
80-150 bpm
488
When can young small ruminants be castrated and their tail dock
W/in the first maybe second week of life however those kept as pets are advised to wait until 5-6 months
489
How does castration decrease the likelihood of urethral blockages w/ calculi
It will decrease the likelihood of the urethra narrowing but not the formation of the calculi
490
How can lambs and kids be restrained for castration or tail docking
On their back in a handler's lap or held upside down by the hindlegs w/ the body resting against the handler's thighs
491
What disease are small ruminants especially sensitive to
Tetanus
492
What should be done post castration in small ruminants
To put on insect repellent to prevent fly strike and maggot infestation
493
When can elastrator be used in sheep/goat and when does testicle necrosis occur
1 to 3 weeks old and necrosis occurs after 2 weeks
494
How is an emasculatome used in ruminants
Applied twice to each spermatic cord but it is not used much due to the postoperative discomfort
495
What are the risks of using a heat cautery for dehorning
Meningitis and malacia
496
Why is tail docking done in sheep and what can cutting the tail too close to the anus increase the risk of
To prevent fly strike and could increase the cause of rectal prolapse
497
How is a cesarean section done
Through the left flank in right lateral recumbency
498
What is descenting and what is the best way to do it
It is removing the primary sex glands to reduce the buck odor best way to do this is to castrate to remove the testosterone triggering the smell however some producers choose to surgically remove the glands during dehorning or disbudding
499
What may occur due to descenting
Females my reject the males
500
Where are sebaceous scent glands in sheep
Inguinal, interdigital, and infraorbitial
501
What is the medical term for burpting
Eructation
502
What is the difference between open and close castration in large animals
Open involves blood while closed castration is bloodless
503
What does xeno mean
A prefix meaning strange, or denoting relationship to foreign material
504
What does SPF mean
Specific pathogen free is a term used in management that ensures the source of animals is free of many infectious and parasitic diseases
505
What were SPFs first designed for
Diseases w/ heavy negative impact on the economy such as mycoplasma, pseudorabies, and atrophic rhinitis
506
What does MD mean
Minimally diseased often covers SPF colonies that have been reinfected w/ regulated pathogens
507
What does microbiologically defined mean
Produced under barrier protection similar to what guidelines apply when breeding lab rats and mice
508
What is a rederivation
Germ free produced by removing embryos from uterus and rearing in isolators
509
What is xenozoonosis
Infections that may pass w/ the organ from the animal donor to human recipient such as rotavirus, retrovirus, and hepatitis
510
What is transgenic mean
Inserting a foreign gene into the chromosome of an animal
511
What is a panepinto sling
Hammock w/ four holes hung on a metal frame the legs are placed onto the four holes and are tied loosely to the frame
512
What is a sidewinder
A teaser animal used to mark females in estrus
513
How do sheep show they are disturbed
Stamping their front feet or butting w/ their heads
514
When do ramps tend to butt the most
During breeding season
515
What are sheeps only means of defense
Movement as a group and their speed
516
What is important to remember about sheep when handling them
They have very fragile bones
517
What can happen if sheep w/ full wool are chased or handled during warm weather
They can easily become hyperthermic
518
What can reduce the carcass value and cause sheep pain
Subcutaneous bruises
519
What is the easiest way to separate a sheep from their flock
Driving the entire flock into a small pen or enclosure, approach the individual, wrap an arm around its front quarters and quickly wrap your other arm around its rear quarters grasping the dock or use a shepherd's crook
520
What things can be done while holding sheep in a rump position
Examine the dorsal aspect of the animal's body, trim its hooves, shear its wool, or give it a subcutaneous vaccination
521
How do you put a sheep in lateral recumbency
Turn it so the front legs go in between your legs and let the sheep slide down so its shoulders are resting on your foot keeping its shoulder off the ground to keep it from getting up
522
How do you return a sheep to its feet
Grasp it around the jaw and allow it to rock forward
523
How are oral medications given to sheep
In the form of individual doses or drenching solution
524
How do you drench a sheep
Either have a single sheep in the pen and back the animal into a corner or along a solid wall, use your knee to pin its neck against the wall allowing you to reach around its neck and hold its head so that you can administer the medication
525
What else can you do while restraining a sheep as if your were drenching it
Intramuscular or subcutaneous injection
526
How do you restrain a sheep for jugular venipuncture
Maneuver the sheep around so its rear quarters are in a corner and one side is against the wall the straddle the animal elevate its head, and tuck its head under your arms
527
What other vessel can be used for venipuncture in sheep
Cephalic
528
What is the primary concern when attempting to catch and restrain sheep
Injuring the sheep
529
What things can be used when handling sheep similiarily to cattle
The flight zone and point of shoulder
530
Why should you avoid catching sheep by grabbing their wool
Because it is easy to pull the wool and bruise or rip the skin
531
How should you catch sheep
By circling the neck w/ one arm and placing the other arm around the rump
532
Where can a shepards crook be used on a sheep
Around a hindleg at the level of the hock or above
533
What are the 3 types of merino sheep and how are they told apart
Types A, B, and C can be told apart by the degree of skin wrinkles w/ A being the most wrinkly and C has hardly and wrinkles at the
534
What are the different types of merinos referred as
Types A and B are american merinos and type C is the delaine merino which tends to be more popular in the US
535
What are rambouillets primarily used for
Wool production
536
What are fine wool breeds
Merino and rambouillet
537
What is unique about dorset ewes
They will breed outside of breeding season
538
How many lambs can finnsheep have per year
Three to six
539
What are romanov sheep known for
Prolificacy and maternal strengths such as producing litters of four to six lambs
540
What are suffolk sheep known for
Producing market lambs
541
What are medium wool breeds
Cheviot, corriedale, dorset, finnsheep, hampshire, montadale, oxford, polypay, romanov, shropshire, southdown, and suffolk
542
What breed of sheep has a fine tuff of wool on its forehead
Cotswold
543
What breed of sheep produces ringlets of wool
Lincoln
544
What is romney sheep known for producing
High quality meat and wool
545
What are long wool breeds
Cotswold, lincoln, and romney
546
Where can semen be deposited in sheep and goats when doing AI
Vagina, cervix, or directly into the uterus
547
When is semen deposited for AI in small ruminants
Most commonly 52 hours after the CIDR is removed and given 1 cc of PG 600
548
What can increase the likelihood of conception and technical difficulty of insemination
The depth of depositing semen
549
What are required for visualization of the cervix in sheep
A light source and a vaginal speculum
550
Why is transcervical insemination difficult in goats
Due to the presence of the four cervical rings
551
How should female small ruminants be prepared and positioned for laparoscopic insemination
Sedated, restrained in dorsal recumbency cradled w/ the head angled downward at a 40 degree angle, and w/hold food and water for 24 hours before the procedure
552
How are embryos recovered and transfered in small ruminants and why
Surgical methods because the anatomy of the female's cervix makes nonsurgical approaches difficult especially in ewes
553
When are embryos recovered in small ruminants
On day 6 after estrus
554
On average how many embryos are recovered from small ruminants
8-10
555
How many embryos are placed in each small ruminants
2
556
What is polled intersex
Infertility and the intersex condition are linked to the polled genotype specifically the homozygous dominant poll gene (HH) in goats
557
What are risks to homozygous polled males
Not intersex but 35% can be infertile due to abnormalities of the testicles or epididymis or both
558
What are risks to homozygous polled females
Intersex w/ various degrees of development of both male and female reproductive organs commonly w/ hypoplastic testicles that are sterile
559
What breeds are less likely to be affected by polled intersexes
Angora and nubian
560
When should crutching happen and what else can happen at this time
3-4 weeks before lambing; facing, vaccination to clostridium, and deworming should also occur at this time
561
What is crutching
Shearing of wool from the vulva and udder
562
What is facing
Shearing the wool from around the eyes in breeds w/ facial wool to improve the dam's vision of her newborn lambs
563
What do does tend to do w/ their young after giving birth
Hide their young
564
What are signs of impending parturition in small ruminants
Swelling of the vulva, mucoid vulvar discharge, relaxation of the pelvic ligaments, and enlargement of the udder
565
When during a 24 hour period do small ruminants give birth
During the day
566
How does an ewe act during stage 1 of parturition
Restless, frequent urination, lie down repeatedly as contractions begin, and separate from the flock
567
How long should stage 1 of parturition take for sheep and goats
1-4 hrs in sheep and 12 hrs in goats
568
How do does act during stage 1 of parturition
Separate from herd, become restless, paw, and show nesting behavior
569
How long does stage 2 of parturition last in sheep and goats
1-3 hrs
570
What is normal fetus presentation
Anterior head diving
571
How long can a sheep be straining to produce a fetus before help or dystocia should be considered
An hour
572
How long can a goat strain w/ contractions before assistance or dystocia is considered
30-60 minutes
573
How long can stage 3 of parturition be in small ruminants
2-3 up to 6
574
When is treatment for retained placenta necessary in ewes
12 hours if there are no signs of toxemia or septicemia
575
What should happen if a lamb/kid isn't spontaneously breathing after 20-30 seconds
Respiratory resuscitation should be done at 20bpm
576
What is the normal heart rate for small ruminant neonates
90-150 bpm
577
When can resuscitation efforts be stopped
Once a palpable pulse has returned and mucus membranes are pink
578
When are lambs and kids most susceptible to hypothermia
W/in the first 36 hrs of life
579
When are small ruminant neonates most susceptible to umbilical cord infection
In the first 2 weeks of life
580
When do lambs tend to attempt to start standing
10-15 minutes after birth but are more successful after 30 minutes
581
When should lambs start nursing successfully
1-2 hrs
582
What is most important for small ruminant maternal bonding
Vigorously lick the newborns and eat the fetal membranes
583
What is the most crucial time period for maternal bonding in small ruminants
First 6-12 hrs except for dairy breeds they don't matter
584
When should meconium be passed
W/in 24 hrs
585
How much colostrum should small ruminant neonates consume
10-15% of their body weight or at bare min 50ml/kg in the first 2-4 hrs
586
What are the two primary causes of neonatal death
Starvation and diarrhea
587
What bacteria is the most common cause of diarrhea in small ruminant neonates
E. coli and clostroidium perfigenes
588
What are the most common cause to weakness and depression
Hypothermia and hypoglycemia
589
At what temperature do small ruminant neonates experience clinical signs of hypothermia
98 degrees F
590
How much water do small ruminants consume on a daily basis
1-1.5 gallons/day
591
How much water should an ewe consume
1-1.5 gallons per 4 lbs of DM
592
How much should small ruminants be consuming on a daily basis
2-4% of their BW in DM dairy breeds should be consuming 3-5% of their BW/day
593
What mineral supplements should be offered as free choice to small ruminants
Salt and trace minerals
594
Why can't cattle supplements be given to sheep
Because their is too much copper and they are sensitive to cooper
595
How much grain should be added for sheep producing milk
For 3 pounds of milk produced 1 pound of grain should be added
596
When does a pregnant small ruminant need the most nutritional support and why
During the last 6-8 weeks because that is when the fetus grows the most
597
How long do newborn small ruminants drink milk
First 8-12 weeks of life
598
When should young small ruminants have access to crep feeding
At 2 weeks of age
599
What are pet ruminants at risk for when consuming fertilized lawn grass
Nitrate or nitrite poisoning
600
What is a good general rule of thumb for plants that are poisonous to small ruminants
They are poisonous if they have a bulb
601
What are known plants that are poisonous to small ruminants
Rhododendron, hemlock, hydrangea, narcissus, foxglove, oleander, poinsettia, larkspur, nightshade, mountain laurel, and mistletoe
602
What do avocado leaves do to milk production in small ruminants
Decreases it
603
How much salt should small ruminants daily
10 g/day
604
What can cause and correct calcium deficiency in small ruminants
High grain diets can cause it and limestone can correct it
605
What can happen if lactating small ruminants have a phosphorus deficiency
Declined milk production, bones become more fragile, and feed intake is poor
606
What can a phosphorus deficiency result in young animals
Slow growth and poor appetite
607
What group of animals is iodine most important in
Pregnant animals
608
What can cobalt deficiency cause in sheep
Anemia, loss of appetitie, retarded growth, decreased production, and a rough hair coat
609
How much copper do sheep require per day
Minimum of 5 mg/kg of DM
610
What are signs of copper deficiency in sheep
Anemia, brittle or fragile bones, and loss of wool or hair pigment
611
What are signs of copper toxicity in sheep
Severe hemorrhagic diarrhea, liver and kidney disease, and resulting in death
612
How can selenium be given to small ruminants
Injection, oral feeding, or addition of trace mineralized salt
613
What are signs of deficiencies of selenium cause in sheep
Nutritional muscular dystrophy, white muscle disease in lambs, and periodontal disease of the molars
614
What are signs of selenium toxicity in sheep
Loss of appetitie, loss of hair, sloughing of the hooves, and eventual death
615
What are signs of zinc deficiency
Slipping of the wool, swelling and lesions around hooves and eyes, excessive salivation, anorexia, wool eating, listlessness, reduced food consumption, reproductive problems, and decreased production
616
What is necropsy
The examination of an animal after it has died to determine abnormal and disease releated changes that occurred during its life
617
What is pathology
Study of disease especially the causes and development of abnormal condition
618
What is gross pathology
Refers to pathologic changes in tissue that are visible to the unaided eye
619
What is histopathology
Pathologic changes in tissue that can be seen only w/ the use for a microscope
620
What are lesions
Abnormalities in a tissue
621
What is pathogenesis
Sequence of events that leads to or underlies a disease
622
What are the reasons for doing a necropsy
Determine cause of death, determine disease processes that led to the animal's death, determine the accuracy of the clinical diagnosis, and evaluate the positive and negative effects of therapeutic measures
623
What is important to acquire from owners prior to doing a necropsy
Signed permission and perference for disposition of the body
624
What is a cosmetic necropsy
Internal organs are removed for examination w/o disrupting the external body
625
In what cases is it illegal to freeze a body prior to necropsy
Suspected rabies cases
626
Why should bodies not be frozen prior to necropsy
Freezing and thawing can cause postmortem artifacts
627
What details should be used to describe all lesions found
Location, number, color, size, shape, distribution, consistency, and odor
628
What is fixed tissues
Tissues preserved in fixative solutions to prevent further decomposition
629
What is the most widely used fixative used for necropsy tissue preservation
10% buffered formalin
630
What type of formalin is used for preservation of whole brains, intact spinal cord, and bones
50% formalin
631
What tissues should be preserved using bouin solution
Fetal tissues, intestinal, epithelium, eyes, testes, endocrine glands, and inclusion bodies associated w/ viruses
632
What are fresh tissues
Tissues collected for suspected microbiological contamination and other biological organisms and toxicologic examinations w/o the addition of preservatives
633
What is used to collect samples for microbiological testing
Sterile instruments
634
What kinda samples can be frozen
Those being used for toxicology
635
What are swabs used for when doing a necropsy
When doing bacterial culture, viral growth, or molecular testing (PCR) on infected areas
636
What is an invaluable diagnostic tool for necropsys
Blood samples ante mortem
637
Why should there be instruments designated for necropsys
To reduce the spread of pathogens
638
Why should dissection begin w/ the eyes
Because the retinas decompose rapidly after death
639
Why is the diaphragm punctured during necropsys
To check for negative pleural pressure
640
What tools can be used to first start cutting into the skull during necropsys
Stryker saw, hacksaw, and meat saw
641
What should we prevent doing during necropsys
Rubbing mucosal surfaces of tissues during examination
642
What recumbency should we lay ruminants and horses in for necropsy
Left lateral
643
Why are thoracic contents removed via an abdominal cavity approach when doing large animal necropsys
Due to their large size and difficulty to cut the ribs of mature animals
644
What is the most difficult joint to get to when doing a necropsy on a horse
The coffin joint
645
Why do we want the freshes possible gut tissue when doing a necropsy on a pig
Because enteric disease is a frequent reason for necropsy
646
What recumbency should fetuses be placed in for necropsys
Right lateral recumbency
647
What should be done w/ a bird carcass if it is thought they could have an infectious or zoonotic disease
Sent to a diagnostic lab
648
What is done prior to doing a necropsy on a bird
The carcass should be dampened w/ warm soapy water or disinfectant to decrease the spread of infective agents
649
What recumbency are birds placed in for necropsys
Dorsal recumbency
650
What should be done prior to evaluating small rodent's lungs and intestinal tract during a necropsy
They should be inflated w/ formalin
651
When can cosmetic necropsies be preformed
When disease processes are limited to the abdomen and the chest
652
What is the physical palpation of the rumen
Ballottement
653
What is the normal PCV and TP for sheep
PCV is 27-45% and TP is 6-7.9 g/dL
654
What is the normal PCV and TP for goats
PCV is 22-38% and TP is 6-7.6 g/dL
655
What is the normal PCV and TP for pigs
PCV is 32%-50% and TP is 6-8 g/dL
656
What systems does tetanus affect
Nervous system and musculoskeletal system
657
What disease does Clostridium perfringens C cause
Entertoxemia
658
How is entertoxemia typically diagnosed
On necropsy it attacks the bodies GI mucosa simiarly to parvovirus so they are often found dead in a field
659
What is casesous lymphadenitis (CL) caused by
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
660
How does casesous lymphadenitis affect small ruminants
It can cause respiratory signs, swollen lymphnodes, reproductive failure, failure to gain, and overall poor doer
661
How is casesous lymphadenitis treated
If the producer wants to save the animal the infected lymphnodes can be surgically removed but in a production setting the infected individuals are culled
662
What is foot rot and is it contagious
Anerobic necrotic infection is very infection
663
What microorganisms are responsible for foot rot
Dichelobacter nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum
664
What is the gestation period of small ruminants
150 days
665
What type of breeders are small ruminants
Seasonally polyestrus and short day breeders
666
What is an antitoxin
Given for a bigger and immediate immune response
667
What is a toxoid
Stimulates a humeral immune response this is what is passed in the colostrum