MT Laws and Lab Management > Lab Management > Flashcards

Lab Management Flashcards

(145 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q

RA, approval date, president and revision of the Clinical Laboratory Act of 1966

A

RA 4688
June 18, 1966
Ferdinand E. Marcos
AO 27 s 2007

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the types under the ff lab classifications?

  1. Ownership
  2. Function
  3. Institutional Character
  4. Service capability
A
  1. Govt or private
  2. Clin pathology or anatomic pathology
  3. Institution-based or freestanding
  4. Primary, secondary or tertiary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Identify which type of lab can performed the ff services:

  1. Routine hema
  2. Microbiology
  3. Special chem
  4. Routine chem
  5. Routine fecalysis
  6. Blood typing
  7. Crossmatching
  8. Gram staining / KOH
  9. Secondary category lab exam
  10. Primary category lab exam
  11. Routine urinalysis
  12. Qualitative platelet determination
  13. Quantitative platelet determination
  14. Immunology / serology
  15. Special hema
A
  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 3
  4. 2
  5. 1
  6. 1
  7. 2
  8. 2
  9. 3
  10. 2
  11. 1
  12. 1
  13. 2
  14. 3
  15. 3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Provides lab tests required for a particular service in institutions

A

Limited service capability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Identify whether the ff descriptions are for “leadership” or for “management”:

  1. A pattern of behaviors used to engage others to complete tasks in a timely and productive manner.
  2. Provides the “road” to get there.
  3. Uses certain talents to work with people to get things done.
  4. It requires an optimal mix of skilled personnel, dedicated people, and task-oriented ______ to achieve goal.
  5. Must be visionary and must set clear goals with strategic objectives.
  6. Used, in the most efficient manner, the human, financial, physical, and information resources available to an organization.
A
  1. Leadership
  2. Management
  3. Management
  4. Leadership
  5. Leadership
  6. Management
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Leadership styles:

  1. Includes one or more employees in the decision-making process.
  2. All three styles are used depending on the situation.
  3. Leader dictates what is to be done and how it is performed.
  4. Leader confers the decision-making ability to the employees.
A
  1. Participative / democratic
  2. Combination
  3. Authoritative / autocratic
  4. Delegative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Theory stating that all individuals focus on the fundamental needs and once those are fulfilled, with progress to higher needs.

A

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Enumerate the needs mentioned in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs from the bottom to top.

A

Physiological needs, safety needs, love and belonging, esteem, self-actualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which among the needs in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, are considered as growth needs? How about deficiency needs?

A

Growth needs: self-actualization, esteem

Deficiency needs: love and belonging, safety needs, physiological needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to this theory, there are 5 managerial styles namely authoritarian, country club, impoverished, team and middle-of-the-road.

A

Robert Blake and Jane Mouton’s Managerial Grid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Identify the managerial style described:

  1. Low task and low concern for people; uses delegation as the primary management tool
  2. Low task-oriented with higher concern for people; uses reward to maintain discipline and encouragement
  3. Adequate concern for both people and production; balance between company goals and workers’ needs
  4. Highly task-oriented and high concern for people; leads by example
  5. Highly task-oriented with low concern for people; has little allowance for cooperation and collaboration
A
  1. Impoverished manager
  2. Country club manager
  3. Middle-of-the-road manager
  4. Team manager
  5. Authoritarian manager
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Theory stating that employees base their satisfaction or dissatisfaction with work on hygiene factors and motivator factors.

A

Frederick Herzberg’s Motivator-Hygiene Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Identify whether the ff are under hygiene factors or motivator factors:

  1. Status
  2. Job security
  3. Advancement opportunity
  4. Wages
  5. Company policies
  6. Recognition
  7. Personal achievement
A
  1. Motivator
  2. Hygiene
  3. Motivator
  4. Hygiene
  5. Hygiene
  6. Motivator
  7. Motivator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Theory assuming that humans have an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it if they can.

A

McGregor’s Theory X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Theory assuming that humans can perceive their job as relaxing or normal and exercise their physical and mental efforts in an inherent manner.

A

McGregor’s Theory Y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Theory assuming that humans need to be controlled, forced, and entices by rewards.

A

McGregor’s Theory X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Theory assuming that managers adopt a decentralized, participative management style

A

McGregor’s Theory Y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Acronym PODC stands for:

A

Planning
Organizing
Directing
Controlling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Process of influencing people to attain predetermined objectives

A

Directing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Process of formulating objectives and determining the steps which will be employed in obtaining them

A

Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Process of structuring activities, materials, and personnel for accomplishing predetermined objectives

A

Organizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Process of determining that everything is going according to plan

A

Controlling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Identify whether the ff is under planning, organizing, directing and controlling:

  1. Making SWOT analysis
  2. Benchmarking
  3. Reviewing current situation in the lab to ensure there are no unattended details
  4. Empowerment
  5. Coaching
  6. Formulating goal
  7. Formulating objective
  8. Reengineering
A
  1. Planning
  2. Organizing
  3. Controlling
  4. Directing
  5. Directing
  6. Planning
  7. Planning
  8. Organizing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SWOT acronym stands for:

A

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Answers the question “What is it for?” A. Mission B. Vision
A
26
Answers the question “what services do you offer?” A. Mission B. Vision
A
27
Long term goal A. Mission B. Vision
B
28
Areas to be improved A. Strengths B. Weaknesses C. Opportunities D. Threats
B
29
Potential problems/risks caused by external factors that your organization may face. A. Strengths B. Weaknesses C. Opportunities D. Threats
D
30
External factors that may contribute to your organization and can build up your strengths. A. Strengths B. Weaknesses C. Opportunities D. Threats
C
31
Areas you do well or advantages of your organization. A. Strengths B. Weaknesses C. Opportunities D. Threats
A
32
A type of plan described the day-to-day running of a company and includes single use plans or ongoing plans.
Operational planning
33
A type of plan described as: “plans made when something unexpected happens or when something needs to be changed”
Contingency planning
34
A type of plan aka backup plan
Contingency planning
35
A type of plan described as: focused, specific, short-term plans; supports strategic planning by breaking it down to actionable chunks
Tactical planning
36
A type of plan described as: “includes a high-level overview of the entire business; it is the foundational basis of the organization and will dictate long-term decisions”
Strategic planning
37
A type of plan that answers the question, “why things happen”?
Strategic planning
38
A type of plan that answers the question, “what is going to happen”?
Tactical planning
39
Identify each description whether it is a goal or an objective: 1. Intangible and abstract 2. Strategic 3. Specific statements 4. Defined short-term results or targets 5. Tactical 6. Tangible and measurable 7. Broad/general statements 8. Sets the long-term direction
1. Goal 2. Goal 3. Objective 4. Objective 5. Objective 6. Objective 7. Goal 8. Goal
40
SMART acronym stands for:
Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, time bound
41
Reorganizing work process in an organization and determining if more effective processes can be implemented
Reengineering
42
Best process in one organization is modified to fit similar processes in another organization; the process of measuring products, services, and practices against leaders in a field, allowing the identification of best practices that will lead to sustained and improved performance.
Benchmarking
43
Measurement of an organization’s products or services against specific standards for comparison and improvement
Benchmarking
44
What type of communication flow is described? From superior to immediate subordinate to provide instruction.
Downward
45
What type of communication flow is described? Between people on the same level of authority.
Lateral
46
What type of communication flow is described? From subordinate to immediate supervisor to provide feedback
Upward
47
What type of communication flow is described? Between people who are neither in the same dept nor same level of authority within the org
Diagonal
48
It allows the instilling of confidence and motivation into an employee about accomplishing a task.
Coaching
49
The employee has more “say-so” in how to accomplish a task.
Coaching
50
It allows an employee to determine the task and how to accomplish the task.
Empowerment
51
Employees are allowed to be creative and innovative to solve problems and to take risks without fear of admonishment for failing.
Empowerment
52
Is the supply, labor, and overhead money spent on a product or service
Cost
53
Cost aka
Expense
54
Type of cost / expense: Routine charge that does not change with test production volume.
Fixed cost
55
Type of cost / expense: Related to all components considered overhead or administrative, such as marketing/sales, insurance, proficiency testing, utility expenses, etc.
Indirect cost
56
Type of cost / expense: Changes proportionally based on fluctuations in test volume and hours worked
Variable cost
57
Type of cost / expense: Related to all components associated with performing the test
Direct cost
58
Type of cost / expense: Examples are lab equipment, reagents, consumables, hands-on technologist, service contract, and quality control
Direct cost
59
Type of cost / expense: Examples are rent and taxes
Fixed cost
60
Type of cost / expense: Examples are reagent usage, and regular and overtime costs
Variable costs
61
Type of cost / expense: not directly related to a billable test but are necessary for its production
Indirect cost
62
Type of cost / expense: Expenses that can easily be traced directly to an end product (billable test)
Direct cost
63
These are physical factors within the environment that harms the musculoskeletal system such as repetitive movement and uncomfortable workstation design.
Ergonomic hazards
64
Color coding of lab waste: 1. Wet, non-infectious 2. Radioactive 3. Sharps and pressurized container 4. Dry, non-infectious 5. Infectious and pathological 6. Chemical waste including heavy metals
1. Green 2. Orange 3. Red 4. Black 5. Yellow 6. Yellow with black band
65
Sequence for putting on PPE
Gown - mask or respirator - goggles or face shield - gloves
66
Chain of infection
``` Infectious agent Reservoir Exit portal Mode of transmission Entry portal Susceptible host ```
67
From an animal or insect bite What mode of transmission is described?
Vector
68
Host touches the reservoir What mode of transmission is described?
Direct contact
69
Ingestion of a contaminated substance What mode of transmission is described?
Vehicle
70
Inhalation of dried aerosol particles circulating or attached to dust particles What mode of transmission is described?
Airborne
71
Host inhales material from the reservoir What mode of transmission is described?
Droplet
72
Remain suspended in air for a long period of time that can reach alveoli once inhaled What mode of transmission is described?
Airborne
73
Larger particles that causes them to not stay suspended in the air for too long and they do not reach the alveoli What mode of transmission is described?
Droplet
74
The best way to break the chai of infection since hand contact is the primary method of infection transmission.
Hand hygiene
75
If hands are visibly soiled...
Use soap and water
76
If hands are not visibly soiled...
Use alcohol based cleansers
77
Handwashing is done for at least ____ (how long and in what position)
15 secs ; downward position
78
All sharp objects must be disposed in a puncture-resistant, leak-proof container w/ what symbol?
Biohazard symbol
79
When skin contact with chemicals occurs, flush the area with large amounts of ______ for _____(how long)
Water ; at least 15 mins
80
Acid to water or water to acid?
Acid to water
81
NFPA Hazard Identification System: 1. Health hazard color 2. Flammability hazard color 3. Reactivity hazard color 4. Other / specific hazard color 5. Number signifying slight hazard 6. Number signifying no or minimal hazard 7. Number signifying extreme hazard 8. Number signifying moderate hazard 9. Number signifying serious hazard
1. Blue 2. Red 3. Yellow 4. White 5. 1 6. 0 7. 4 8. 2 9. 3
82
The amount of radiation exposure is a combination of ____, ____ and ____
Time, distance and shielding
83
All electrical equipment must be grounded with ____
Three-pronged plugs
84
When you witness an electric shock, what should you do first?
The electrical source must be removed immediately
85
The acronym PASS stands for:
Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
86
The acronym RACE stands for:
Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish
87
Classes of fire: 1. Combustible cooking media 2. Combustible metals 3. Flammable liquids 4. Ordinary combustibles 5. Detonation (arsenal fire) 6. Electrical equipment
1. Class K 2. Class D 3. Class B 4. Class A 5. Class E 6. Class C
88
Identify each description whether it is for flammable or combustible: 1. Have a flash point greater than or equal to 100 deg C 2. Require a large ignition source to catch fire 3. Burn at low temperatures 4. Have a flashpoint less than 100 deg C 5. Burn at temperatures usually above working temperatures 6. Need a small ignition source to catch fire
1. Combustible 2. Combustible 3. Flammable 4. Flammable 5. Combustible 6. Flammable
89
The minimum temp at which a liquid gives off a vapor in sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air near the surface of the liquid.
Flashpoint
90
Flammable is defined as liquids having a flashpoint of _____ according to OSHA
Less than 100 deg C
91
NFPA stands for?
National Fire Protection Association
92
OSHA stands for?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
93
Are standard approaches to quality leadership and management
Total quality management (TQM) and continuous quality improvement (CQI)
94
Traditional or TQM thinking? 1. Department focused 2. System process 3. Reactive systems 4. Defects by workers 5. Quality as expense 6. Defects by system 7. System process 8. Organization focused 9. Error-free quality 10. We versus they relationship
1. Traditional 2. TQM 3. Traditional 4. Traditional 5. Traditional 6. TQM 7. TQM 8. TQM 9. TQM 10. Traditional
95
TQM thinking strives to continually look for ways to ______ by empowering employees to assist in solving problems and getting them to understand their integral role within the greater system (universal responsibility).
Reduce errors (defect prevention)
96
A structured process improvement program based on statistics and quantitative measurements with the single mantra of “improvement”.
Six sigma
97
In six sigma, the number of ______ is measured.
Defects per million opportunities (DPMO)
98
A ______ is anything that does not meet customer requirements, for example, a lab result error.
Defect
99
The goal of six sigma.
To reduce the number of defects to near zero
100
The acronym DMAIC stands for:
Define, measure, analyze, improve, control
101
Identify the defects per million and its corresponding yield in the ff sigma levels: 1. 3 2. 1 3. 6 4. 5 5. 2 6. 4 7. 7
1. 66,800 ; 93.32% 2. 690,000 ; 30.85% 3. 3.4 ; 99.99966% 4. 230 ; 99.977% 5. 308,000 ; 69.15% 6. 6,210 ; 99.38% 7. Walang sigma level 7
102
Was ultimately designed to reduce waste (nonvalued activities)
Lean process
103
Lean process was first implemented in _____ by _____
in Japan by Toyota
104
Is a set of requirements for quality management specific to medical labs at every level of the healthcare system
ISO 15189:2007
105
Labs that meet or exceed the guidelines in ISO 15189:2007 can be ______, indicating a high level of confidence in the quality of services provided by that lab.
CAP-certified
106
The acronym CAPA in ISO 15189:2007 stands for:
Corrective and Preventive Action
107
Confirmatory testing lab of blood donor units.
RITM
108
RITM stands for
Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
109
National reference lab for environmental and occupational health, toxicology, micronutrient assays and assoc. social problems related to drug abuse and malnutrition.
EAMC
110
National reference lab for hematology, immunohematology, immunopathology, automated urinalysis, and anatomic pathology for renal disease.
NKTI
111
EAMC stands for
East Avenue Medical Center
112
NKTI stands for
National Kidney and Transplant Institute
113
The reference lab for clinical chemistry in the Phils
LCP
114
LCP stands for:
Lung Center of the Philippines
115
The newborn screening reference center that defines testing and follow-up protocols and maintains an external lab proficiency testing program for newborn screening centers.
NIH
116
NIH stands for:
National Institute of Health
117
National reference lab for HIV/AIDS, hepatitis, and sexually transmitted infections.
SACCL
118
SACCL stands for:
STD/AIDS Cooperative Central Laboratory
119
National reference lab for dengue, influenza, enteroviruses, measles and other viral exanthems, polio, TB and other mycobacteria, bacterial enteric dse, mycology, emerging dse, and malaria and other parasites.
RITM
120
Bioethical principle: “Do no harm” ; refrain from harming the px
Non-maleficence
121
Bioethical principle: Px have the right to accept/reject medical care after being provided enough information
Autonomy
122
Bioethical principle: “Do good” ; doing what is best for the px
Beneficence
123
Bioethical principle: Fair allocation of resources, px in similar situations must have access to the same care
Justice
124
Suggested retention time for lab records: 1. Blood bank QC records 2. Accession logs 3. Blood/fluid smear 4. Urine 5. Requisitions 6. Maintenance/instrument logs 7. Blood bank px records 8. Blood bank donor/receipt records 9. Quality control records 10. Blood bank employee signatures/initials 11. Clinical pathology test records 12. Serum/CSF/body fluids
1. 5 yrs 2. 2 yrs 3. 7 days 4. 24 hrs 5. 2 yrs 6. 2 yrs 7. 10 yrs 8. 10 yrs 9. 2 yrs 10. 10 yrs 11. 2 yrs 12. 48 hrs
125
Suggested retention time for lab records: 1. Microbiology stained slides 2. Cytology slides 3. Paraffin blocks/slides 4. FNA slides 5. Flow cytometry plots/histograms 6. Reports (surgical/cytology/nonforensic) 7. Wet tissue 8. Cytogenetic slides 9. Surgical pathology (bone marrow) slides 10. Cytogenetic reports/images
1. 7 days 2. 5 yrs 3. 10 yrs 4. 10 yrs 5. 10 yrs 6. 10 yrs 7. 2 wks 8. 3 yrs 9. 10 yrs 10. 20 yrs
126
A device that follows instructions to work with electronic data based on user input.
Computer
127
A collection of data identified by a specific name and grouped in relation to a specific purpose.
File
128
Refers to programs (which are essentially sets of instructions) that allow computers or other devices to perform tasks.
Software
129
Refers to physical components of an information system.
Hardware
130
The basic unit of digital information
Bit
131
The most common unit of measurement used in digital information.
Byte
132
1 byte is how many bits?
8 bits
133
Two main types of file
Applications and data
134
Type of file that is “executable” files
Applications
135
Type of file that is an image, text/document, or sound.
Data files
136
Bit (the basic unit of digital information) is derived from ____
Binary digit
137
Refers to the circuitry that serves as the main information processor, and is driven by clock pulses.
Central processing unit (CPU)
138
The speed of the CPU is most commonly measured in _____
Gigahertz
139
Refers to the physical chips on the motherboard that hold programs and data for rapid access by the CPU.
Memory
140
Refers to a set of programs responsible for the management and coordination of activities and the sharing of resources.
Operating system
141
A type of memory that is volatile (the contents of these chips are lost when the computer is turned off)
RAM
142
A type of memory that is permanent
ROM
143
RAM stands for?
Random access memory
144
ROM stands for?
Read only memory
145
Acts as a host for application programs
Operating system
MT Laws and Lab Management
flashcards
Decks in class (2)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions