Laboratory Operations Flashcards by Jeff Carriedo

Which process is mandatory to practice a profession in a specific state?

A. Certification
B. Accreditation
C. Licensure
D. Registration

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Licensure is state-granted and legally required.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which organization provides certification for laboratory professionals?

A. CAP
B. ASCP
C. OSHA
D. CMS

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: ASCP certifies individuals (e.g., MLS).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

CLIA ‘88 primarily regulates:

A. Research laboratories
B. All human diagnostic testing
C. Pharmaceutical manufacturing
D. Hospital accreditation

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: CLIA regulates all lab testing on human specimens (except research).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which agency enforces CLIA regulations?

A. FDA
B. CDC
C. CMS
D. EPA

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: CMS enforces CLIA.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What determines CLIA test complexity?

A. Cost of test
B. Turnaround time
C. 7 criteria scoring system
D. Specimen type

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Includes knowledge, training, QC, interpretation, etc.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which test complexity requires the highest personnel qualifications?

A. Waived
B. PPM
C. Moderate
D. High complexity

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: High complexity tests require advanced education/training.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which standard is known as the “Right-to-Know Law”?

A. CLIA
B. HIPAA
C. Hazard Communication Standard
D. Bloodborne Pathogen Standard

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Requires informing workers about chemical hazards.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

HIPAA regulates:

A. Lab safety
B. Patient privacy
C. Test complexity
D. Infection control

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Protects patient health information (PHI).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Universal precautions assume:

A. Only known infected patients are infectious
B. All specimens are noninfectious
C. All blood/body fluids are infectious
D. Only airborne pathogens are dangerous

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Treat all specimens as potentially infectious.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is an engineering control?

A. Handwashing
B. PPE
C. Sharps container
D. Training

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Engineering controls physically remove hazards.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which specimen is considered infectious?

A. Sweat
B. Tears
C. CSF
D. Urine

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: CSF is always considered infectious.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which tube must be completely filled for accurate results?

A. EDTA
B. Heparin
C. Citrate
D. Fluoride

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Requires 9:1 blood-to-anticoagulant ratio.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What happens if citrate tube is underfilled?

A. ↓ clotting time
B. ↑ clotting time
C. No effect
D. Hemolysis

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Excess anticoagulant falsely prolongs clotting.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which additive inhibits glycolysis?

A. EDTA
B. Heparin
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Citrate

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Preserves glucose.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which tube is used for CBC?

A. Red
B. Green
C. Lavender
D. Gray

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: EDTA preserves cell morphology.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Correct order of draw begins with:

A. EDTA
B. Serum
C. Blood culture
D. Heparin

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Prevents contamination.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which contamination causes ↑ potassium?

A. Heparin
B. EDTA
C. Citrate
D. Fluoride

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: EDTA contains potassium.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Tourniquet applied too long causes:

A. Hemodilution
B. Hemoconcentration
C. Hemolysis
D. Coagulation

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Leads to ↑ proteins, K⁺, lactate.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Fist pumping during venipuncture causes:

A. ↓ potassium
B. ↑ potassium
C. ↓ glucose
D. ↓ calcium

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Muscle activity releases K⁺.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Drawing above IV line causes:

A. Hemolysis
B. Contamination
C. Dilution
D. Clotting

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: IV fluids dilute specimen.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Hemolysis falsely increases:

A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: RBCs release intracellular K⁺.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which causes microclots?

A. Overmixing
B. Undermixing
C. Hemolysis
D. Lipemia

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Inadequate mixing → fibrin clots.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which specimen requires protection from light?

A. Glucose
B. Bilirubin
C. Sodium
D. Creatinine

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Light degrades bilirubin.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which test requires chilling?

A. Bilirubin
B. Ammonia
C. Sodium
D. Hemoglobin

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Prevents metabolic changes.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which centrifuge type gives best separation for serum? A. Angle-head B. Swinging-bucket C. Ultracentrifuge D. Fixed rotor

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Produces flat, clean separation.

What is the main cause of hemolysis during collection? A. Slow draw B. Small needle C. Gentle mixing D. Cooling

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Small gauge needles shear RBCs.

When should serum be separated? A. Immediately B. Within 2 hours C. After 24 hours D. After freezing

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Prevents analyte changes.

What happens if specimen is left unseparated? A. ↓ potassium B. ↑ glucose C. ↑ potassium D. ↓ enzymes

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Cells leak K⁺ over time.

Which is cause for specimen rejection? A. Proper labeling B. Correct tube C. Hemolysis D. Proper storage

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Hemolysis can invalidate results.

Which QC rule detects random error? A. 1₃s B. 2₂s C. R₄s D. 4₁s

Correct Answer: C Explanation: R₄s identifies random error.

Which QC rule indicates systematic error? A. R₄s B. 4₁s C. 1₃s D. 1₂s

Correct Answer: B Explanation: 4₁s = consistent bias.

Which is TRUE about calibration? A. Done once only B. Establishes accuracy C. Detects random error D. Replaces QC

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Calibration ensures accuracy.

Precision refers to: A. Accuracy B. Reproducibility C. Sensitivity D. Specificity

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Precision = repeatability.

Accuracy refers to: A. Closeness to true value B. Repeatability C. Specificity D. Sensitivity

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Accuracy = correctness.

Which increases potassium falsely? A. Delayed separation B. Proper storage C. Immediate centrifugation D. Correct tube

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Cell leakage increases K⁺.

Which anticoagulant is best for chemistry tests? A. EDTA B. Heparin C. Citrate D. Fluoride

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Heparin causes minimal interference.

What is the purpose of QC? A. Diagnose disease B. Ensure reliability C. Replace calibration D. Reduce cost

Correct Answer: B Explanation: QC ensures consistent results.

Which is NOT part of QA? A. QC B. Proficiency testing C. Calibration D. Diagnosis

Correct Answer: D Explanation: QA ensures quality, not diagnosis.

Which agency regulates workplace safety? A. FDA B. OSHA C. CDC D. EPA

Correct Answer: B Explanation: OSHA enforces workplace safety standards.

Which agency regulates biological transport? A. OSHA B. EPA C. DOT D. CDC

Correct Answer: C Explanation: DOT governs transport of hazardous materials.

Which agency regulates lab waste disposal? A. CDC B. EPA C. OSHA D. CMS

Correct Answer: B Explanation: EPA regulates hazardous waste disposal.

Which agency approves lab reagents and instruments? A. CMS B. OSHA C. FDA D. CDC

Correct Answer: C Explanation: FDA regulates market entry of lab products.

Which biosafety level is required for routine clinical labs? A. BSL-1 B. BSL-2 C. BSL-3 D. BSL-4

Correct Answer: B Explanation: BSL-2 is standard for clinical specimens.

Which fire extinguisher is used for electrical fires? A. Water B. CO₂ C. Foam D. Sand

Correct Answer: B Explanation: CO₂ does not damage electrical equipment.

Which class of fire involves flammable liquids? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Class B = liquids (gasoline, alcohol).

Which class of fire involves electrical equipment? A. A B. B C. C D. D

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Class C = electrical fires.

Which chemical is considered a flammable? A. Sodium hydroxide B. Acetone C. Hydrochloric acid D. Sodium chloride

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Acetone is highly flammable.

Which chemical hazard causes cancer? A. Corrosive B. Toxic C. Carcinogen D. Mutagen

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Carcinogens induce cancer.

Which hazard symbol color represents flammability? A. Blue B. Yellow C. Red D. White

Correct Answer: C Explanation: NFPA red = flammability.

Which NFPA color represents health hazard? A. Blue B. Red C. Yellow D. White

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Blue indicates health risk.

Which NFPA number indicates highest hazard? A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4

Correct Answer: D Explanation: 4 = most severe hazard.

Which chemical should be stored away from water? A. Acids B. Bases C. Water-reactive chemicals D. Oxidizers

Correct Answer: C Explanation: React violently with water.

Which is an oxidizer? A. Alcohol B. Nitric acid C. Sodium hydroxide D. Acetone

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Nitric acid promotes combustion.

What is the main purpose of MSDS? A. Diagnose disease B. Provide chemical safety info C. Perform QC D. Calibrate equipment

Correct Answer: B Explanation: MSDS contains hazard and handling info.

Which is required in specimen transport? A. Open container B. Absorbent material C. Unlabeled tubes D. Air exposure

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Prevents leakage spread.

What is required on specimen containers? A. Color coding only B. Biohazard label C. Volume D. Expiration

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Required for safety.

Which error affects coagulation tests most? A. Hemolysis B. Short draw C. Lipemia D. Light exposure

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Alters anticoagulant ratio.

Which tube is used for blood culture? A. Lavender B. Yellow C. Green D. Gray

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Yellow (SPS) for cultures.

Which causes falsely decreased calcium? A. Heparin B. EDTA contamination C. Fluoride D. Serum

Correct Answer: B Explanation: EDTA binds Ca²⁺.

Which is most accurate pipet? A. Serological B. Mohr C. Volumetric D. Transfer

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Volumetric pipets are most precise.

What does “TD” mean on glassware? A. To contain B. To deliver C. Temperature dependent D. Total dilution

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Calibrated to deliver volume.

What does “TC” mean? A. Total capacity B. To contain C. Temperature calibration D. Transfer container

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Holds specified volume.

Which pipet requires blowout? A. Volumetric B. Serological C. Mohr D. Micropipet

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Blowout indicated by etched rings.

What is the best method for micropipette calibration? A. Visual B. Gravimetric C. Colorimetric D. Manual

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Based on weight of water.

Which plastic is autoclavable? A. Polyethylene B. Polypropylene C. Polystyrene D. PVC

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Polypropylene withstands heat.

Which plastic is most chemically inert? A. PVC B. Teflon C. Polyethylene D. Polystyrene

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Teflon is highly inert.

Which glass is most heat resistant? A. Flint B. Borosilicate C. Soda-lime D. Low actinic

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Used for lab glassware.

Which specimen change occurs at room temp? A. ↓ potassium B. ↑ glucose C. ↑ potassium D. ↓ enzymes

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Cells leak K⁺.

Which decreases in unpreserved blood? A. Potassium B. Glucose C. Sodium D. Chloride

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Cells consume glucose.

What is lipemia? A. Hemolysis B. High protein C. High lipid content D. Infection

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Causes turbidity.

Which interferes with spectrophotometry? A. Hemolysis B. Lipemia C. Icterus D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D Explanation: All affect absorbance.

Which is random error? A. Calibration drift B. Pipetting variation C. Instrument bias D. Reagent deterioration

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Random = unpredictable variation.

Which is systematic error? A. Pipetting variation B. Temperature fluctuation C. Calibration error D. Random noise

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Consistent deviation.

What is SD used for? A. Accuracy B. Precision C. Mean D. Bias

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Measures variability.

What is CV? A. Mean × SD B. SD / mean × 100 C. Mean / SD D. SD²

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Expresses precision in %.

Which QC rule rejects run immediately? A. 1₂s B. 1₃s C. 2₂s D. 4₁s

Correct Answer: B Explanation: 1₃s = critical violation.

Which rule is warning only? A. 1₂s B. 1₃s C. R₄s D. 4₁s

Correct Answer: A Explanation: 1₂s = warning rule.

What is sensitivity? A. True negative rate B. True positive rate C. Accuracy D. Precision

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Detects disease.

What is specificity? A. True positive rate B. True negative rate C. Precision D. Bias

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Detects absence of disease.

Which increases sensitivity? A. High cutoff B. Low cutoff C. High specificity D. High precision

Correct Answer: B Explanation: More positives detected.

Which increases specificity? A. Low cutoff B. High cutoff C. High sensitivity D. High CV

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Reduces false positives.

What is reference range? A. Mean ± 3 SD B. Mean ± 2 SD C. Mean ± 1 SD D. Median

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Covers 95% population.

What is mean? A. Middle value B. Most frequent C. Average D. Spread

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Sum ÷ number.

What is median? A. Average B. Middle value C. Most frequent D. Range

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Middle of ordered data.

What is mode? A. Average B. Middle C. Most frequent D. Range

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Most common value.

What is range? A. Mean B. Difference max-min C. Median D. SD

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Spread of values.

What is turnaround time? A. Collection time B. Processing time C. Time from order to result D. Centrifugation time

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Total test time.

What is proficiency testing? A. Daily QC B. External comparison C. Calibration D. Maintenance

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Compares lab performance.

What is calibration verification? A. Daily QC B. Confirm calibration accuracy C. Specimen handling D. Storage

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ensures calibration validity.

What is post-analytical error? A. Hemolysis B. Wrong interpretation C. Wrong tube D. Poor mixing

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Occurs after testing.

What is pre-analytical error? A. Instrument failure B. Calculation error C. Collection error D. Reporting error

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Occurs before testing.

Which step is MOST prone to error? A. Analytical B. Post-analytical C. Pre-analytical D. Reporting

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Most lab errors occur before analysis (collection, labeling).

Patient misidentification is what type of error? A. Analytical B. Post-analytical C. Pre-analytical D. Systematic

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Occurs before testing begins.

Reporting wrong result is: A. Pre-analytical B. Analytical C. Post-analytical D. Random

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Happens after analysis.

Which is an example of analytical error? A. Hemolysis B. Instrument malfunction C. Wrong patient ID D. Delay in transport

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Occurs during testing process.

What is the primary anticoagulant in green top tube? A. EDTA B. Heparin C. Citrate D. Fluoride

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Heparin inhibits thrombin.

Which additive is found in gray top tube? A. EDTA + oxalate B. Fluoride + oxalate C. Citrate D. Heparin

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Preserves glucose.

Which additive prevents platelet aggregation? A. EDTA B. Heparin C. Citrate D. SPS

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Citrate preserves coagulation factors.

Which anticoagulant is used for ESR? A. EDTA B. Heparin C. Citrate D. Oxalate

Correct Answer: C Explanation: ESR uses sodium citrate.

What is the ratio for ESR citrate tube? A. 1:1 B. 4:1 C. 9:1 D. 2:1

Correct Answer: B Explanation: ESR ratio = 4:1 blood.

Which specimen is best for blood gases? A. Serum B. Venous blood C. Arterial blood D. Plasma

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Reflects oxygenation status.

Air bubbles in ABG cause: A. ↓ pH B. ↑ pCO₂ C. ↓ pO₂ accuracy D. ↑ bicarbonate

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Gas exchange alters values.

ABG sample should be: A. Warm B. Frozen C. On ice D. Exposed to air

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Slows metabolism.

Which test is affected by posture? A. Sodium B. Protein C. Glucose D. Hemoglobin

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Standing increases protein concentration.

Which analyte shows diurnal variation? A. Calcium B. Cortisol C. Sodium D. Chloride

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Peaks in morning.

Fasting is required for: A. Sodium B. Lipid profile C. Hemoglobin D. Calcium

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Avoids postprandial lipemia.

Which interferent causes yellow serum? A. Hemolysis B. Lipemia C. Icterus D. Turbidity

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Due to bilirubin.

Which interferent causes milky serum? A. Hemolysis B. Lipemia C. Icterus D. Clotting

Correct Answer: B Explanation: High triglycerides.

Which interferent causes red serum? A. Hemolysis B. Lipemia C. Icterus D. Oxidation

Correct Answer: A Explanation: RBC breakdown.

What is carryover? A. Sample contamination B. Instrument failure C. Calibration error D. Reagent issue

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Previous sample affects next.

Which minimizes carryover? A. Faster testing B. Washing steps C. High temperature D. Mixing

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Cleans system between samples.

What is linearity? A. Accuracy B. Precision C. Range of valid results D. Sensitivity

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Range where results are proportional.

What is analytical sensitivity? A. Detect disease B. Detect low concentration C. Accuracy D. Precision

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lowest detectable level.

What is analytical specificity? A. Detect disease B. Avoid interference C. Precision D. Accuracy

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Measures only intended analyte.

What is bias? A. Random error B. Systematic error C. Precision D. Range

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Consistent deviation from true value.

What is standard deviation? A. Average B. Spread C. Accuracy D. Bias

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Measures variability.

Which indicates good precision? A. High SD B. Low SD C. High bias D. Low accuracy

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Less variation.

Which improves accuracy? A. QC B. Calibration C. Precision D. Repetition

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Aligns with true value.

What is delta check? A. QC rule B. Compare current vs previous result C. Calibration D. Linearity

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Detects significant change.

Which detects clerical error? A. QC B. Delta check C. Calibration D. Precision

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Flags unexpected differences.

What is turnaround time? A. Testing time B. Total time from order to report C. Processing time D. Transport time

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Full workflow duration.

What is stat test? A. Routine B. Urgent C. Delayed D. Optional

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Requires immediate processing.

Which sample is rejected? A. Proper label B. Hemolyzed C. Correct tube D. Proper storage

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Hemolysis interferes.

Which temperature is refrigerator? A. -20°C B. 2–8°C C. 25°C D. 37°C

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Standard cold storage.

Which temperature is freezer? A. -20°C B. 2–8°C C. 25°C D. 37°C

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Standard freezing.

Which temperature is room temp? A. 2–8°C B. 20–25°C C. -20°C D. 37°C

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Controlled ambient temp.

Which specimen uses serum separator tube? A. CBC B. Chemistry C. Coagulation D. ESR

Correct Answer: B Explanation: SST used for chemistry.

Gel separator function is: A. Anticoagulant B. Barrier formation C. Preservative D. Activator

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Separates serum from cells.

Which affects potassium most? A. Hemolysis B. Lipemia C. Icterus D. Light

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Releases intracellular K⁺.

Which is light-sensitive? A. Glucose B. Bilirubin C. Sodium D. Protein

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Degrades with light.

Which test requires fasting? A. Calcium B. Lipids C. Sodium D. Hemoglobin

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Prevents false elevation.

Which tube contains clot activator? A. Red B. Lavender C. Green D. Gray

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Speeds clotting.

Which anticoagulant interferes with calcium? A. EDTA B. Heparin C. Fluoride D. Serum

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Chelates Ca²⁺.

Which step ensures patient safety? A. QC B. Proper ID C. Calibration D. Analysis

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Prevents misdiagnosis.

Which is quality assurance? A. QC only B. Entire lab process C. Calibration D. Testing

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Covers total system.

Which is quality control? A. Entire process B. Monitor test performance C. Patient ID D. Reporting

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Focuses on analytical phase.

Which error is due to reagent deterioration? A. Random B. Systematic C. Pre-analytical D. Post-analytical

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Causes consistent bias.

Which error is unpredictable? A. Systematic B. Random C. Pre-analytical D. Analytical

Correct Answer: B Explanation: No pattern.

Which improves precision? A. Calibration B. Repetition C. New reagent D. QC

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Repeated measurement consistency.

Which improves reliability? A. QC B. Calibration C. Training D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D Explanation: All improve lab performance.

Which factor most affects specimen integrity during transport? A. Color of tube B. Time and temperature C. Patient age D. Tube size

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Delays and improper temperature alter analytes.

Which test is most affected by delay in processing? A. Sodium B. Glucose C. Chloride D. Calcium

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Cells continue glycolysis → ↓ glucose.

What is the purpose of a control material? A. Calibrate instrument B. Monitor accuracy and precision C. Replace reagent D. Identify patient

Correct Answer: B Explanation: QC ensures reliability of results.

Which type of water is required for most laboratory testing? A. Tap water B. Distilled water C. Deionized water D. Type I reagent-grade water

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Highest purity required for lab accuracy.

What is the function of a blank in spectrophotometry? A. Measure analyte B. Set zero absorbance C. Increase sensitivity D. Detect error

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Blank corrects for background absorbance.

Which factor affects centrifugation efficiency? A. Tube color B. Radius and speed C. Sample volume only D. Temperature only

Correct Answer: B Explanation: RCF depends on radius and RPM.

Which is the correct action for mislabeled specimen? A. Relabel B. Process anyway C. Reject specimen D. Ask nurse

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Never relabel—must reject.

What is the primary goal of laboratory safety programs? A. Increase speed B. Reduce cost C. Prevent injury and exposure D. Improve accuracy

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Protect personnel and patients.

Which process verifies test performance before patient testing? A. Calibration B. Validation C. QC D. Reporting

Correct Answer: B Explanation: Validation ensures test reliability before use.

What is the best indicator of laboratory quality? A. Speed B. Cost C. Accuracy of results D. Number of tests

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Correct results are the ultimate goal.

Laboratory Operations Flashcards

(150 cards)