1
Q
What is gastroschisis &associated with what
A
Intestine protruding through defect lateral to umbilicus
Associated with socioeconomic deprivation (maternal age <20, maternal alcohol, tobacco use)
2
Q
What is omphalocele
A
defect in umbilicus
3
Q
foetal alcohol syndrome presentation
A
small head, flattened/smooth philtrum and thin upper lip
4
Q
Which delayed motor milestones are suggestive of cerebral palsy
A
Not sitting by 8 months (corrected for gestational age)
Not walking by 18 months (corrected for gestational age)
Early asymmetry of hand function (hand preference) before 1 year (corrected for gestational age)
Persistent toe-walking
5
Q
What vaccines are given at 8 weeks
A
6 in 1 (diphtheria, hep b, HiB, polio, tetanus, whooping cough)
Rotavirus
Men B
6
Q
What vaccines are given at 12 weeks
A
6 in 1 second dose
Men B 2nd dose
Rotavirus 2nd dose
7
Q
What vaccines are given at 16 weeks
A
6 in 1 (3rd dose)
pneumococcal
8
Q
What vaccines are given at 1 year
A
MMR
pmeumococcal (2nd)
Men B (3rd)
(HiB/MenC - if older than dob 30/06/2024)
9
Q
What vaccines are given at 18 months
A
6 in 1 4th - for kids younger than 01/07/2024)
MMR 2nd (for kids younger than 01/07/2024)
10
Q
What vaccines are given to children age 2-15
A
childrens flu vaccine
11
Q
What vaccines given at 3 yrs, 4 months
A
MMR 2nd for kids older than dob 30/06/24
4 in 1 pre school booster (diphtheria, tetanus, polio, whooping cough)
12
Q
what vaccines are given at 12-13 years
A
HPV
13
Q
What vaccine is given at 14 years
A
Td/IPV (tetanus, diptheria, polio)
Men ACWY
14
Q
what is the newborn hearing test
A
acoustic emission test
A soft earpiece is placed in the baby’s ear and quiet clicking sounds are played through it; the earpiece picks up the response from the inner ear and a computer analyses the results.
15
Q
what happens if newborn hearing test is abnormal
A
auditory brainstem response test is carried out as a newborn/infant
16
Q
ALL peak incidence
A
2-5 years
17
Q
what is Prehn’s sign
A
a medical test for diagnosing the cause of testicular pain by lifting the scrotum to see if the pain is relieved. A positive sign (pain relief) suggests epididymitis (inflammation), while a negative sign (no pain relief) suggests testicular torsion (twisting of the spermatic cord)
reliability - limited
18
Q
NICE paediatric traffic light red lights
A
SKIN: Pale/mottled/ashen/
blue
ACTIVITY: No response to
social cues
* Appears ill to a
healthcare
professional
* Does not wake or if
roused does not
stay awake
* Weak, high-pitched
or continuous cry
RESP:
- Grunting
* Tachypnoea:
RR >60
breaths/minute
* Moderate or severe
chest indrawing
CIRCULATION?HYDRATION: Reduced skin
turgor
OTHER: Age <3 months,
temperature
≥38°C*
* Non-blanching rash
* Bulging fontanelle
* Neck stiffness
* Status epilepticus
* Focal neurological
signs
* Focal seizures
19
Q
What hearing test is done in school entry health screening
A
Pure tone audiometry
This test can be used in children over the age of 3 and in adults. It involves playing sounds at different frequencies and volumes and the patient indicating when they can no longer hear the sound.
20
Q
What is mesenteric adenitis
A
Presents as abdominal pain often preceeded by a viral infection. Mesenteric adenitis describes inflamed mesenteric lymph nodes. It is self limiting
21
Q
How do transposition of great arteries and tetralogy of fallot present
A
Cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting within the first days of life is TGA.
Cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting at 1-2 months of age is TOF
22
Q
what is the first sign of puberty in boys
A
increase in testicular volume. occurring between the ages of 9 to 14 years old, and it’s referred to as gonadarche. It is characterised by an increase in testicular size (>3ml or >2.5cm longest length), followed by changes in texture and redness of the scrotum.
23
Q
How does tetralogy of fallot present
A
Cyanosis or collapse in first month of life, hypercyanotic spells. Ejection systolic murmur at left sternal edge
24
Q
How long do children with whooping cough need to be excluded
A
2 days after commencing antibiotics (or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics)
25
What is roseola
a common viral infection, often called "roseola infantum" or "sixth disease," that usually affects babies and toddlers between six months and two years old. It is typically marked by several days of high fever, followed by a distinctive pink rash that appears as the fever breaks. While the rash and high fever can be alarming, it is generally mild, and most children recover completely within a week without specific treatment other than fever-reducing medication and fluids.
26
Infant < 8 weeks, presents with milky vomits after feeds, often after being laid flat, excessive crying
GORD
27
This type of cerebral palsy is characterised by abnormal, involuntary movements, including dystonia (twisting movements) and athetosis (slow, writhing movements).
WHat type & where is the damage
dyskinetic cerebral palsy.
basal ganglia and substantia nigra
28
what area of brain effected in spastic cerebral palsy
Motor cortex and pyramidal tracts
29
what other condition is commonly associated with CF
T1DM
30
At what age do you take steps to manage nocturnal enuresis
>5
31
by what age should testes have decended
3 months
32
what age should undescended testes be repaired
6-18 months
33
What is Prader-Willi and what is it associated with
genetic condition caused by the loss of functional genes on the proximal arm of the chromosome 15 inherited from the father. This can be due to a deletion of this portion of the chromosome, or when both copies of chromosome 15 are inherited from the mother.
Hypotonia is associated with Prader-Willi, it is also associated with neonatal sepsis, spinal muscular atrophy and hypothyroidism. Constant insatiable hunger --> obesity
34
When to do APGAR Score
1 and 5 minutes
35
What medication is given to neonates with cyanotic heart disease
Prostaglandin E1 to maintain PDA
36
5 T's for cyanotic congenital heart diseases (CHD)
Tetralogy of fallot
Transposition of great vessels (TGA)
Tricuspid atresia
Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
Truncus arteriosus
37
When does TGA normally present
hours to days of birth
38
HUS
HUS is associated with a triad of microangiopathic haemolytic uraemia, acute kidney injury and thrombocytopenia. The symptoms are typically bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain, fever and vomiting, and the history usually includes exposure to farm animals.
Usually caused by infection/toxin or can be autoimmune. Most commonly due to STEC
39
HSP
Features of HSP are typically a non-blanching rash affecting the legs and buttocks, arthralgia and abdominal pain.
40
ITP
is a differential in any child presenting with petechiae and no fever and is usually preceded by a viral illness. We need blood results to confirm the diagnosis but these typically present with isolated thrombocytopenia and this low platelet count causes the classic petechial rash.
41
ITP management
The severity and management depends on how low the platelet count falls. Usually no treatment is required and patients are monitored until the platelets return to normal. Around 70% of patients will remit spontaneously within 3 months.
Treatment may be required if the patient is actively bleeding or severe thrombocytopenia (platelets below 10):
Prednisolone
IV immunoglobulins
Blood transfusions if required
Platelet transfusions only work temporarily
42
AR Vs AD patterns
Autosomal recessive conditions are 'metabolic' - exceptions: inherited ataxias
Autosomal dominant conditions are 'structural' - exceptions: Gilbert's, hyperlipidaemia type II
43
Familial adenomatous polyposis.
usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, meaning that an affected individual has a 50% chance of passing the mutated gene to each offspring. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by mutations in the APC gene which leads to the development of hundreds to thousands of polyps in the colon and rectum from a young age. If left untreated, there's almost a 100% chance of these polyps becoming malignant.
44
what does a normal pCO2 suggest in an asthma attack
A normal pCO2 suggests that there is reduced respiratory effort as the chest is tiring and no longer able to efficiently compensate by hyperventilating in response to hypoxia, a normal compensatory process in asthma attacks which 'blows off' pCO2, leading to a decreased pCO2.
= life threatening
45
most common causative organism of early onset neonatal sepsis
group B strep
46
main cause of painless massive GI bleeding in age 1-2
Meckel's diverticulum
47
Edward's Syndrome
A baby is born with micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet and overlapping of fingers
Trisomy 18
48
what is the primary cause of roseola infantum
human herpes virus 6
49
is scarlet fever notifiable
yes
50
what should be given to mothers of babies with CMPA
calcium supplements
51
what formula should be tried in formula babies with CMPA
extensively hydrolysed formula
52
what is toddlers diarrhoea
Toddler's diarrhoea is a benign condition that causes the child no problems. It is due to the fast transit through their digestive system and often contains undigested food. It requires no treatment.
53
what is Caput succedaneum
puffy swelling that usually occurs over the presenting part and crosses suture lines
(localised oedema) common after ventouse delivery
54
what is chickenpox a risk factor for
invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections including necrotizing fasciitis
55
what is group a strep AKA
strep pyogenese
56
organism in Perianal itching in children, possibly affecting other family members
Enterobius vermicularis (threadworms)
57
1st line therapy for threadworms
&what dose/frequemcy
Mebendazole
Single dose (for whole household too)
58
whooping cough treatment
Whooping cough - azithromycin or clarithromycin if the onset of cough is within the previous 21 days. Most effective to start within 14 days
59
what medication can be used to help spasticity in cerebral palsy patients
Baclofen is a muscle relaxant and antispastic agent, which works by inhibiting the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in the spinal cord.
60
Which maternal condition is a risk factor for the development of surfactant deficient lung disease in the newborn?
Maternal diabetes mellitus. Surfactant deficient lung disease, also known as neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (RDS), is more common in infants born to mothers with diabetes mellitus. This is because insulin, which is increased in diabetic mothers, inhibits surfactant production and maturation of the fetal lungs.
61
xray sign in necrotising enterocolitis
gas cysts in the bowel wall
62
63
What’s in the 6 in 1 vaccine
diphtheria, hep b, HiB, polio, tetanus, whooping cough
64
Give 2 conditions associated with hypospadias
Cryptorchidism
Inguinal hernias
65
Patau Syndrome
Trisomy 13
Microcephalic, small eyes
Cleft lip/palate
Polydactyly
Scalp lesions
66
Fragile X
intellectual disability
Macrocephaly
Long face
Large ears
Macro-orchidism
Hypermobile joints (hands)
Autism/ADHD
Seizures
67
Noonan Syndrome
Usually AD inheritance
Webbed neck
Pectus excavatum
Short stature
Pulmonary stenosis
Associated with: CHD, cryptorchid, learning disability, bleeding, lymphoedema, increased risk of leukaemia & neuroblastoma
68
Pierre-Robin Syndrome
Micrognathia
Posterior displacement of the tongue (may result in upper airway obstruction)
Cleft palate
Similar presentation to Treacher-Collins - except TC is AD so will have family history
69
Prader-Willi syndrome
Chromosome 15
Hypotonia
Hypogonadism
Obesity (insatiable hunger)
neonatal sepsis
spinal muscular atrophy
hypothyroid
70
William's Syndrome
Random deletion on ch7 around conception
Short stature
Learning difficulties
Friendly, extrovert personality
Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia
Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Starburst eyes
Wide mouh & teeth
Big forehead
71
Cri du chat syndrome (chromosome 5p deletion syndrome)
Characteristic cry (hence the name) due to larynx and neurological problems
Feeding difficulties and poor weight gain
Learning difficulties
Microcephaly and micrognathism
Hypertelorism (widely spaced eyes)
72
XR sign in Rickets
Joint widening
inadequate mineralisation of developing bones leading to a widening of the joints due to an excess of non-mineralised osteoid at the growth plate.
73
DIC
DIC is a recognised rare complication of ALL, frequently precipitated by infection, chemotherapy, or the leukaemia itself. It leads to simultaneous bleeding due to the consumption of clotting factors and thrombosis due to widespread microvascular clot formation. This is reflected by the blood results- thrombocytopaenia, prolonged PT, and raised D-dimer- and the clinical presentation of bruising, petechiae, and nose bleeds.
74
Turner's Syndrome
45XO
Short stature
Webbed neck
High arching palate
Downward sloping eyes with ptosis
Broad chest with widely spaced nipples
Cubitus valgus
Underdeveloped ovaries with reduced function
Late or incomplete puberty
Most women are infertile
75
give an infection commonly associated with febrile convulsions
scarlet fever
76
77
Procedure name for malrotation with volvulus
Ladds procedure (division of Ladd bands and widening of base of mesentery)
78
What Abx should be given to women with PPROM?
10 days erythromycin
79
what to do if blood glucose targets are not met in GDM with metformin
insulin
80
Cervical screening what to do if smear is inadequate
repeat in 3 months
81
Screening tool for post natal depression
Edinburgh scale (>10 suggests depression present)
82
what do brisk tendon reflexes suggest in pre-eclampsia
Hyperreflexia is a crucial neurological sign that may precede eclamptic seizures in pre-eclampsia.
83
how to manage thyrotoxicosis in postpartum thyroiditis
propanalol
84
what does obstetric cholestasis increase risk of
stillbirth
85
GBS prophylaxis
Benzylpenicillin
86
cholestatic vs hepatic picture (blood results)
Cholestatic: high ALP and GGT, lesser rise in AST (obstetric cholestasis)
Hepatic: rise in ALT/AST greater than that of ALP, raised WCC +/- clotting abnormalities (acute fatty liver of pregnancy)
87
First line for pregnancy induced hypertension
labetalol
88
how long does the implant (nexplenon) last?
3 years
89
what signs can increased cardiac output and volume lead to in normal pregnancy
ejection systolic murmur
third heart sound
90
most common cause of pph
uterine atony
91
how to remember gestational diabetes thresholds
5678
fasting glucose >5.6
2 hour glucose >7.8
92
what precipitates/exacerbates thrush
recent antibiotic exposure
93
medical management of miscarriage
oral mifepristone + 48 hours later, misoprostol (vaginal, oral or sublingual) unless the gestational sac has already been passed
94
which form of contraception causes weight gain
depo-provera
95
what to do if pregnant women is exposed to chickenpox and hasnt had chickenpox
& when
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy: antivirals or VZIG (if available) should be given at days 7-14 post-exposure, not immediately
96
when to use metformin vs insulin in gestational diabetes
If at the time of diagnosis of gestational diabetes, the fasting glucose level is >= 7 mmol/l immediate insulin (plus or minus metformin) should be started
97
what results of combined test indicate higher probability of trisomy21
raised HCG, low PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency
98
pH in thrush (candidiasis)
<4.5
99
is COCP contraindicated in >35 who smoke >15/day
yes (VTE risk)
100
BV & trichomonas treatment
metronidazole
101
is fluconazole (thrush) contraindicated in pregnancy
yes, use clotrimazole
102
standard folic acid dose
0.4mg
103
who should take 5mg folic acid
(as opposed to .4)
previous child with NTD
DM
antiepileptics
BMI >30
HIV taking co-trimoxazole
Sickle cell
104
does absence of vaginal bleeding rule out abruption
no
105
1st line for infertility in PCOS
clomifene
106
when should a woman treated for CIN II next have smear
6 months
107
what does AROM increase risk of
cord prolapse
108
what is in the Risk of Malignancy Index in ovarian cancer?
CA125, menopausal status, US findings
109
first step if woman reports reduced foetal movements
doppler for foetal heart beat
110
what is the hb threshold for oral iron supplementation in 1st trimester
<110g/L
111
112
What to give to at risk of bronchiolitis (chronic lung, chd, prem, downs, cf
Pavluzimab im
113
Bronchiolitis complications
SIADH
Adenovirus only - bronchiolitis oblitrtans
114
FeNO in asthmatics
>35ppb
(Fraction of exhaled nitric oxide)
115
Meds for nocturnal enuresis
Desmopressin - reduces vol of urine
Oxybutanism - reduces bladder contractility
116
What is the investigation of choice for reflux nephropathy
Micturating cystography
117
What suggests infection on urine dip
Leucocytes
118
What might you see in vesicoureteric reflux on a DMSA
Upper and lower pole renal scarring associated with cortical thinning
119
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
Minimal change disease
120
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and how to treat
Minimal change disease
Steroids
121
Examination finding in adenomyosis
Enlarged boggy uterus
122
How long to take folic acid for
Until end of first trimester
123
Thrush
Candidiasis (candida albicans)
124
Premature ovarian failure treatment
HRT/COCP until age 51 to protect against osteoporosis, oestrogen deficiency and cardiovascular complications
125
Treatment threshold for asymptomatic neonatal hypoglycaemia
<2.0 mmol/l
126
Infant, first few weeks of life with greasy yellowish rash with flaky scales on scalp (ears face neck)
Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Management - topical emollient, wash off with shampoo
127
Preterm prom + maternal pyrexia, maternal tachycardia + foetal tachycardia
Chorioamnionitis
128
Placenta risk in ivf
Praevia
129
What can be given to close a pda
Ibuprofen/indomethacin (inhibits prostaglandin synthesis)
(Paracetamol)
Surgery if doesn’t close
130
CXR finding in ToF
Boot shaped heart
131
What is a tet spell
Severe cyanosis, may pass out
E.g. in ToF
132
Measles S&S
Fever
Rash
Coryza
Conjunctivitis
Koplik spots
133
Most common measles complication
& others
Otitis media
Pneumonia
Encephalitis
Seizures
Blindness
134
Is measles notifiable
Yes
135
List of urgently notifiable diseases
Infectious hepatitis
Meningitis
Poliomyelitis
Anthrax
Botulism
Cholera
Diphtheria
Enteric fever
HUS
Infectious bloody diarrhoea
Zoonotic flu
Invasive GAS
Legionnaires
Measles
MERS
Mpox
Plague
Rabies
SARS
Smallpox
Vital haemorrhaging fever
136
When is measles infectious
5 days before and after the rash appears
137
Most common cause of scarlet fever
Group A strep
138
Scarlet fever management
PO Pen V QDS 10 days
139
Sandpaper rash
Scarlet fever
140
Impetigo when can return to school
After 48 hours of treatment or when the sores have dried and healed
141
Bullous vs non bullous (impetigo)
Bullous- larger fluid filled blisters
Non Bullous- red papules/pustules that burst quickly leaving honey coloured crusts
142
Impetigo organism
Usually staph aureus
Can be MRSA
143
General Abx for skin things
Fluclox
144
5 cream acronym Kawasaki
<5 yo. >5 day fever
Conjunctivitis
Rash
Erythema
Adenopqthy (lymph)
Mucosa - strawberry tongue
145
Kawasaki complications
Coronary artery aneurysm
146
Aspirin complication in children
Reye’s syndrome
Encephalopathy and liver failure
147
Eczema herpeticum
(Descriptive phrase)
Patient has eczema- broken skin barrier, HSV 1 or 2 gets in.
Clusters of itchy blisters or punched out erosions. And fever.
Dermatological emergency
Treat with acyclovir
Can become dehydrated
148
Chickenpox rash
Papules first - then become fluid filled vesicles. Then crusting of lesions (scabs) - stop being infectious at this point
149
SSSS
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
Detachment of epidermis and blistering. Usually children <5
150
SSSS locations
Usually face and flexural regions
151
Nikolsky sign
Positive if gentle rubbing of skin causes exfoliation.
Positive in SSSS
152
Management of ssss
Complications
Hospitalisation and iv Abx
Derm emergency
1st line fluclox
Complications
Scarring
Dehydration and electrolytes
Secondary infections
Renal failure
Hypothermia
153
Slapped cheek name and pathogen
Erythema infectiosum, 5th disease
Parvovirus b19
154
Main complication of slapped cheek
Transient aplastic crisis
155
Most common place for ectopic
Ampulla of fallopian tube
156
Features of atypical uti (paeds)
Seriously ill
Poor urine flow
Abdominal or bladder mass
Raised creatinine
Septicaemia
Failure to respond to treatment in 48 hours
Infection not with E. coli
157
What hyperemesis drug has extra pyramidal side effects
Metoclopramide
Shouldn’t be used for >5 days
E.g. raised tone and tremor
158
Cushings triad
Hypertension
Bradycardia
Irregular respirations
Raised ICP
159
main causative organisms otitis media
strep pneumonia
haemophilus influenza
moraxella catarrhalis
160
first line abx for otitis media
amoxicillin
161
when to give abx for otitis media
symptoms >4 days/not improving
systemically unwell
immunocompromised
<2 and bilateral
perforation/discharge in canal
162
management glue ear
conservative - normally resolves within 3 months
grommits if doesnt resolve (or comorbidities e.g. down syndrome)
163
why can ferritin be high in systemic JIA
ferritin = acute phase reaction, goes up in inflammation
164
complications of JIA
macrophage activation syndrome
joint destruction/deformity
chronic anaemia
osteoporosis
165
what is macrophage activation syndrome
& key investigatin finding
severe activation of the immune system with a massive inflammatory response. It presents with an acutely unwell child with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), anaemia, thrombocytopenia, bleeding and a non-blanching rash. It is life threatening. A key investigation finding is a low ESR.
166
systemic JIA blood findings
raised inflammatory markers, with raised CRP, ESR, platelets and serum ferritin.
ANA and RF negative
167
oligoarticular JIA associated feature
anterior uveitis
168
investigation for SUFE
XR: AP and lateral views (frog leg)
169
DDH risk factors
female
firstborn
breech after 36 weeks
FHx
birthweight >5kg
170
investigation for DDH
<4.5 months US
>4.5months XR
171
tests for DDH
Barlow and Ortolani
172
XR signs in necrotising enterocolitis
pneumatosis intestinalis
dilated asymmetrical bowel loops
bowel wall oedema
Pneumoperitoneum refers to free gas in the peritoneal cavity and indicates perforation
gas in portal veins
173
when does nec enterocolitis usually happen
within first 3 weeks
174
xr sign in respiratory distress syndrome
ground glass appearance with air bronchograms
175
what investigation to do in neonatal jaundice
conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin (conjugated indicates biliary atresia --> surgery)
176
organisims causing neonatal sepsis
gbs
e coli
listeria
klebsiella
177
Neonatal jaundice <24 hours causes
haemolytic disorders
congenital infections
sepsis
178
24 hours - 14 days neonatal jaundice
usually physiological
causes:
- physiological
- breast milk jaundice
- dehydration
- infection
- bruising
- polycythaemia
^still need to treat if too high
179
neonatal jaundice >14 days (or >21 if preterm)
physiological jaundice
breast milk jaundice
infection
hypothyroidism
biliary obstruction
biliary atresia
neonatal hepatitis
180
neonatal jaundice complication
kernicterus (encephalopathy)
181
pregnant women at risk of preterm labour given what to protect lungs
corticosteroids
dont just say steroids!
e.g. betamethasone
182
183
Complication of oligoarticylar JIA and others
Uveitis
184
what vaccines are offered to pregnant women
whooping cough (16 weeks)
flu
185
quadrouple vs triple test
no inhibin A in triple
186
Downs quadrouple results
AFP low
Estriol Low
hCG high
inhibin A high
187
pre-eclampsia BP
>140/90 after 20 weeks
188
Turners syndrome quadroupe test results
AFP - low
Estriol - low
hcg - very high
inhibin A - very high
189
Edwards quadrouple test results
AFP - normal
Estriol - Low
hcg - very low
inhibin A - normal
190
High risk factors for preeclampsia
HTN in previous preg
CKD
Autoimmune diseases
Diabetes
Chronic HTN
191
Patau's quadrouple results
AFP high
Estriol normal
hCG normal
Inhibin A normal
192
what to do if >1 high risk factor or >2 moderate for preeclampsia
75-150mg aspirin daily from week 12
193
complications of magnesium sulphate in preeclampsia
respiratory depression - give calcium gluconate
194
how to monitor for MgSO4 toxicity
check reflexes (loss of reflexes indicates toxicity)
195
why do you get placenta accreta
defective decidua basalis
196
what to do in risk factors of GDM
OGTT at 24 and 28 weeks
197
if FG <7 in GDM what to do
trial of diet and exercise then metformin
198
what to do postpartum in GDM
Fasting glucose 6-13 weeks postpartum to rule out true diabetes
199
grades of placenta praevia
1-4
1&2 - vaginal delivery
3-4 CS 37-38 weeks
200
abruption risk factors
A-abruption previously
B- blood pressure (high)
R- ruptured membranes
U- uterine injury
P- polyhydramnios
T- twins
I- infection (chorio)
O- older age >35
N - narcotics (cocaine, smoking)
201
abruption management
Distressed foetus - immediate CS
No distress <36 weeks admit & steroids
No distress >36 weeks - vaginal delivery
dead foetus - induce vaginal delivery
202
when to expectantly manage ectopics
hcg <1500
foetus <35mm
203
indications for induction
prolonged pregnancy
PROM
maternal diabetes
pre-eclampsia
obstetric cholestasis
foetal death
204
1st step in PPH for uterine atony if stable and minor PPH
uterine massage
205
what does a high vaginal swab test for
BV, thrush, trichomonas vaginalis
206
lichen simplex vs lichen planus
simplex - caused by scratching
planus - autoimmune - purple and shiny
207
depot age contraindications
not to be given over 45
208
how to shrink fibroids
gnrh agonists - but only for short periods because of menopause related complications/side effects
e.g. gosrelin
209
complication of fibroids in pregnancy
red degeneration - occurs during pregnancy where there is a haemorrhage into the tumour
210
txa vs mefanamic for adenomyosis etc
txa if no pain
mefanamic acid if pain
211
adenomyosis complications
(Related to pregnancy)
infertility
miscarriage
preterm birth
small for gestational age
preterm rupture of membranes
pph
212
ca125 level for urgent USS
>35 IU/ml
213
following orchidectomy in AIS what do you need to do
give lifelong oestrogen therapy as you are removing sertoli cells so need to replace
214
swimmers ear
infective otitis externa (usually bacterial or fungal)
215
how to investigate a child <3 months with a fever
FBC
Blood culture
CRP
Urine testing
CXR if respiratory signs
stool culture if diarrhoea
216
when are bow legs normal
Bowlegs are common in children aged between 1 and 3 years old, as their legs are adjusting to bearing weight during walking. In most cases, physiological genu varum resolves spontaneously by the age of 4 years as the child grows.
217
tests at booking appointment
Pregnant women are offered testing for HIV, syphilis and hepatitis B at their booking appointment (ideally before 10 weeks of pregnancy). Tests for sickle cell disease and thalassemia are also offered at this stage.
218
first-line step in managing IIH (idiopathic intracranial hypertension)
diuretics such as acetazolamide and weight loss. The use of diuretics is associated with an improvement in papilloedema and cerebrospinal fluid pressure.
219
1st line adhd
methylphenidate
220
medication for stress incontinence if pelvic floor exercises don't work don't want surgery
duloxetine
221
adverse effects of clozapine
agranulocytosis (1%), neutropaenia (3%)
reduced seizure threshold - can induce seizures in up to 3% of patients
constipation
myocarditis: a baseline ECG should be taken before starting treatment
hypersalivation
222
flu vaccine for 2-15y/os
Intranasal flu vaccine
live attenuated
223
Rokitansky protuberance
seen in teratomas (dermoid cyst)
single or multiple white shiny masses projecting from the wall toward the centre of the cysts. When hair, other dermal appendages, bone and teeth are present, they usually arise from this protuberance
224
Differentiating between Knight's move and flight of ideas
Knight's move thinking there are illogical leaps from one idea to another, flight of ideas there are discernible links between ideas
225
medication for recurrent febrile seizures
rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam
226
multiple system atrophy
autonomic failure, parkinsonism, and cerebellar ataxia
progressive, sporadic, adult-onset neurodegenerative disorder characterised by varying combinations of autonomic failure, parkinsonism, and cerebellar ataxia. It results from widespread neuronal loss and the accumulation of α-synuclein–containing glial cytoplasmic inclusions within multiple regions of the central nervous system
227
Phase 3a EK
flashcards
Decks in class (5)
# Cards
