Lecture 11 Liver function tests Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

What are the three major categories of liver blood tests?

A

Hepatocellular injury markers (ALT/AST); cholestatic markers (ALP/GGT/bilirubin); synthetic function markers (albumin/INR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is the term ‘liver function tests’ misleading?

A

Most tests reflect injury, not function; only albumin and INR assess true synthetic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which enzymes is most specific for cholestatic injury markers ?

A

ALP, GGP, Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which enzymes is most specific for hepatocellular injury markers ?

A

ALT, AST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which enzymes is most specific for synthetic function markers ?

A

Albumin, INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does AST > ALT typically suggest?

A

Alcohol-related liver disease or established cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does ALT/AST >1000 IU/L indicate?

A

Severe acute hepatocellular necrosis (e.g., paracetamol toxicity, acute viral hepatitis, ischaemic hepatitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does a raised ALP with raised GGT indicate?

A

Cholestasis of hepatic origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does raised ALP with normal GGT suggest?

A

Bone disease rather than liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is GGT particularly sensitive to?

A

Alcohol intake and enzyme-inducing drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which bilirubin type is water-soluble?

A

Conjugated bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What causes dark urine in jaundice?

A

Renal excretion of conjugated bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What bilirubin level causes visible jaundice?

A

Above 50 µmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What pattern suggests pre-hepatic jaundice?

A

Isolated unconjugated bilirubin elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does low albumin indicate in chronic liver disease?

A

Reduced hepatic synthetic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why does hypoalbuminaemia worsen ascites?

A

Reduced oncotic pressure causing fluid leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does low albumin affect drug handling?

A

Increases free fraction of highly protein-bound drugs, raising toxicity risk

18
Q

What does a prolonged INR indicate?

A

Impaired synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

19
Q

Why is INR a good marker of acute deterioration?

A

Factor VII has a short half-life so INR rises quickly

20
Q

What does lack of INR improvement after vitamin K suggest?

A

True hepatic synthetic failure

21
Q

What pattern indicates hepatocellular injury?

A

Markedly raised ALT/AST with mild ALP rise

22
Q

What pattern indicates cholestasis?

A

Raised ALP + GGT + bilirubin with mild ALT/AST rise

23
Q

What pattern indicates synthetic failure?

A

Low albumin + raised INR

24
Q

How does liver disease affect drug absorption?

A

Slower gastric emptying, reduced splanchnic perfusion, impaired bile salt secretion

25
How does hypoalbuminaemia affect drug distribution?
Increases free drug levels and toxicity risk
26
How is drug metabolism altered in cirrhosis?
Reduced CYP450 activity and reduced first-pass metabolism causing accumulation
27
Why is drug excretion impaired?
Reduced biliary clearance and common renal impairment
28
Which metabolic phase is most impaired in liver disease?
Phase I (CYP450 oxidation/reduction)
29
Which metabolic phase is relatively preserved?
Phase II (conjugation)
30
Which benzodiazepines are safer in liver disease?
Lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam
31
Why do high-extraction drugs accumulate in cirrhosis?
Reduced hepatic blood flow and impaired first-pass metabolism
32
Why are highly protein-bound drugs risky in cirrhosis?
Low albumin increases free drug concentration
33
Name three high-risk protein-bound drugs.
Warfarin, phenytoin, diazepam
34
Give 5 classes of drugs to avoid or use with extreme caution in cirrhosis, give an example and their rational for caution
NSAIDS - Ibuprofen -Risk of GI bleeding, renal impairment, and worsening ascites Sedatives - Benzodiazepines, opioids - They accumulate and precipitate encephalopathy Opioids- Morphine - Constipation may worsen encephalopathy by increasing ammonia absorption ACE i or ARBs - Ramipril/losartan -They reduce renal perfusion and may trigger hepatorenal syndrome Direct hepatotoxins- Methotrexate - compounding of pre-existing hepatic injury
35
What is the general dosing rule in liver disease?
Start low, go slow
36
Why choose short-acting drugs?
Reduced accumulation and fewer active metabolites
37
What monitoring is essential in liver disease?
INR, LFTs, U&Es, renal function, drug levels
38
A patient with known cirrhosis presents with worsening fatigue. Their blood tests show: ALT: 32 IU/L (normal–mildly raised) AST: 35 IU/L (normal–mildly raised) ALP: 310 IU/L (significantly raised) GGT: 420 IU/L (raised) Albumin: 26 g/L INR: 1.7 Which interpretation BEST fits this pattern? A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Cholestasis with impaired synthetic function C. Drug-induced hepatocellular injury D. Haemolysis causing unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia E. Early compensated alcoholic liver disease
B
39
Which medication is most likely to have increased bioavailability in a patient with advanced cirrhosis due to reduced first-pass metabolism? A. Amoxicillin B. Propranolol C. Metformin D. Levothyroxine E. Enoxaparin
B. propranolol
40
A patient with decompensated cirrhosis has developed worsening confusion and ascites. Which medication is MOST likely to require a dose reduction due to reduced hepatic clearance in advanced liver disease? A. Gentamicin B. Morphine C. Lithium D. Atenolol E. Gabapentin
b. morphine
41
A patient with advanced cirrhosis has marked hypoalbuminaemia (albumin 24 g/L). Which medication is MOST likely to have increased free (unbound) concentration due to reduced protein binding? A. Furosemide B. Paracetamol C. Warfarin D. Salbutamol E. Amoxicillin
C
42
A 58-year-old man with decompensated cirrhosis presents with increasing confusion and lethargy. His blood results show: Na⁺ 128 mmol/L, K⁺ 3.0 mmol/L Albumin 24 g/L INR 1.9 ALT 30 IU/L, AST 32 IU/L Ammonia mildly elevated His current medicines include: morphine modified-release, lorazepam at night, omeprazole, and lactulose 15 mL once daily. Explain the key pharmaceutical considerations when managing this presentation in relation to the blood tests and drug handling in liver disease.
Electrolyte abnormalities (Na⁺ 128, K⁺ 3.0) are important precipitants of hepatic encephalopathy; potassium correction is essential. Sodium (Na⁺) Normal range: 135–145 mmol/L Potassium (K⁺)Normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/L Low albumin (24 g/L) increases free levels of highly protein‑bound drugs, raising toxicity risk. Normal serum albumin: 35–50 g/L High INR (1.9) shows impaired synthetic function, increasing bleeding risk and affecting drug choice. Sedatives and opioids (lorazepam, morphine MR) accumulate due to reduced hepatic metabolism and worsen encephalopathy — they should be reduced or stopped. Lactulose is underdosed (15 mL once daily); needs titration to achieve 2–3 soft stools/day to treat encephalopathy effectively.