1
Q
How is the world’s airspace divided?
A
Flight Information Regions (FIRs)
These are administered by the countries which they overfly.
2
Q
What percentage of the world’s airspace is Australia’s FIR?
A
11%
3
Q
How is the Australian FIR divided?
A
Two sub FIRs administered from Melbourne and Brisbane respectively.
4
Q
What is controlled airspace?
A
Areas of the greatest need - where traffic levels warrant the greatest level of protection.
To operate in controlled airspace pilots will require an airways clearance specifying the route and altitude the aircraft is allowed to fly.
5
Q
What is uncontrolled airspace?
A
Airspace that does not require clearance to operate in.
Air Traffic Control provides an advisory service to uncontrolled airspace.
The majority of light aircraft and helicopters operate outside or underneath controlled airspace.
In uncontrolled airspace, pilots are often not visible to air traffic control but must still follow visual flight rules (VFR) or instrument flight rules (IFR).
In uncontrolled airspace controllers do not provide separation but provide a Flight Information Service and Traffic Information Service to aircraft flying on IFR and an on-request service to aircraft flying on VFR.
6
Q
What is Class A airspace?
A
High-level en-route controlled airspace is used predominately by commercial and passenger jets.
Only IFR flights are permitted and they require an ATC clearance.
All flights are provided with an air traffic control service and are positively separated from each other.
7
Q
What is Class C airspace?
A
Controlled airspace surrounding major airports.
Both IFR and VFR flights are permitted and must communicate with air traffic control.
IFR aircraft are positively separated from both IFR and VFR aircraft.
VFR aircraft are provided traffic information on other VFR aircraft.
Class C airspace has been established, starting from ground level, and extending in control area (CTA) ‘steps’.
8
Q
What is Class D airspace?
A
Controlled airspace that surrounds general aviation and regional airports equipped with a control tower from sea level to 4500 feet.
All flights require ATC clearance.
9
Q
What is Class E airspace?
A
Usually sits in a band beneath Class A to provide services for IFR aircraft but allow VFR aircraft to transit the airspace with only an on request service.
10
Q
What is Class G airspace?
A
Uncontrolled airspace.
11
Q
In a non radar environment, what changes to airspace class altitudes are there?
A
Class G - up to 18000ft
Class E - 18000 - 24500 ft (except where class C steps exist)
Class A - 24500 - 60000 ft
12
Q
In a radar environment, what altitudes do various airspace classes cover?
A
Class A - 18000 - 60000 ft
Class D - ground to 4500 ft
Class E - 8500 - 12500 ft
Class G - ground to 8500 ft
13
Q
What is a prohibited area?
A
Airspace within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
14
Q
What is a restricted area?
A
Airspace within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with specified conditions.
In restricted airspace, aircraft movements are reduced to those with certain specified permissions.
E.g. airspace around military installations, high-density flying operations at an air show or other large public event.
15
Q
Danger Area
A
Airspace within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.
E.g. civil flying training areas and gliding and parachuting areas.
16
Q
If the PIC of an aircraft finds that the aircraft has entered a prohibited or restricted area what steps must they take?
A
− immediately have the aircraft flown to a position where it is not over the area; and
− when the aircraft reaches a position where it is not over the area, report the circumstances to air traffic control; and
− land at such aerodrome as is designated by air traffic control and, for that purpose, obey any instructions given by air traffic control as to the movement of the aircraft.
17
Q
What airspace classes are controlled aerodromes located in?
A
Class C and Class D
18
Q
What services do aerodromes in Class C airspace have?
A
Approach control service – arrival and departure service from a controlled aerodrome provided within a Terminal Control Area (TMA)
Aerodrome control service – controls landing and take-off clearances and surface movements.
19
Q
What is a Terminal Control Area (TMA)?
A
A control area normally at the confluence of Air Traffic Service routes around major aerodromes where air traffic services are provided by Approach and Departures control.
A Terminal Control Unit (TCU) provides the Air Traffic Service within the TMA.
20
Q
What must a PIC do at a controlled aerodrome?
A
- maintain a lookout for other aerodrome traffic to avoid a collision;
- maintain a continuous watch on the radio frequency for the aerodrome control service; and
- obtain clearance by radio, or visual signals, prior to carrying out any taxiing, landing or take-off operations.
21
Q
What class of airspace are uncontrolled aerodromes found in?
A
Class G
22
Q
How do pilots advise of their intentions at an uncontrolled aerodrome?
A
Using the Common Terminal Advisory Frequency (CTAF)
23
Q
What rules shall a PIC abide by at an uncontrolled aerodrome?
A
- maintain a look out for other aerodrome traffic to avoid collision; and
- ensure that the aircraft does not cause a danger to other aircraft in the vicinity of the aerodrome; and
- conform with, or avoid, the circuit pattern; and
- when approaching the aerodrome to land, join the circuit pattern for the direction in which landing is to be undertaken on the upwind, crosswind or downwind leg; and
- after joining the circuit pattern for a landing or after taking off make all turns to the left unless stated otherwise.
- to the extent practicable, land and take off into the wind; and
- before landing, descend in a straight line starting at least 500 metres from the threshold of the landing runway and at a distance common to the ordinary course of navigation for the aircraft type; and
- after take off, maintain the same track from the take off until the aircraft is 500 feet above the terrain unless a change to the track is necessary for terrain avoidance.
- The PIC of an aircraft must not take the aircraft off from, or land the aircraft on, a part of a non controlled aerodrome outside the landing area of the aerodrome.
24
Q
What are the separation minima for an uncontrolled aerodrome?
A
An aircraft must not commence take off until a preceding departing aircraft (using the same runway) has:
- crossed the upwind end of the runway or
- commenced a turn or
- become airborne and passed a point 1800 metres from the proposed lift off point (for runways longer than 1800 metres)
- if both aircraft have a Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW) less than 2000KG, become airborne and passed a point 600M from the proposed lift off point.
An aircraft must not commence take off until:
- A preceding landing aircraft using the same runway, has vacated and is taxiing away from the runway.
- A preceding aircraft, using another runway has crossed or stopped short of the take-off aircraft’s runway.
25
What convention established the ICAO?
The Convention on International Civil Aviation, Chicago 1944
26
When did ICAO become a permanent entity?
1947
27
How many contracting states does ICAO have?
Approx. 191
28
What are the current strategic objectives of ICAO?
- Enhance global civil aviation safety
- Increase the capacity and improve the efficiency of the global civil aviation system
- Enhance global civil aviation security and facilitation. This Strategic Objective reflects the need for ICAO’s leadership in aviation security, facilitation and related border security matters
- Foster the development of a sound and economically-viable civil aviation system
- Minimise the adverse environmental effects of civil aviation activities.
29
What was the first international convention for aerial navigation?
The Paris Convention for the Regulation of Aerial Navigation 1919.
This established the International Commission for Air Navigation (the precursor to ICAO)
30
Which convention addresses the liability of air carriers?
Warsaw Convention 1929
31
Which convention addresses damage caused by aircraft to third parties?
Rome Convention 1933
32
What is addressed by the Rome Convention 1952?
Damage to third parties on the ground
33
What is addressed by the Tokyo Convention 1963?
Offences committed onboard aircraft
34
Which convention addresses the suppression of unlawful seizure of aircraft?
Hijack Convention, The Hague 1970
35
Other than establishing ICAO, what are the other four significant agreements within the Chicago Convention 1944?
− The Final Act – standardisation of practice in aerial navigation and the transfer of title to aircraft
− The Interim Agreement on International Civil Aviation – established the PICAO
− The International Air Services Transit Agreement – The Two Freedoms of the air
− The International Air Transport Agreement – The Five Freedoms (including the original two freedoms)
36
What is the structure of ICAO?
An Assembly comprising representatives from all contracting states.
A Council of 36 members elected by and reporting to the Assembly
Standing Committees
Air Navigation Commission
37
What does the Air Navigation Commission do?
Develops Standards and Recommended Practices (SARP) and Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS)
Advises the Council and recommends modifications to technical annexes. Also establishes technical sub-committees
38
How many people make up the Air Navigation Commission?
19
39
Which convention and articles outline the composition and duties of the Air Navigation Commission
Articles 56 and 57 of the Chicago Convention 1944
40
Who provides technical and administrative assistance to the Council?
The Bureau of the ICAO Secretariat, overseen by a Secretary-General
41
What does the Committee on Joint Support of Air Navigation Services do?
Negotiates joint financing arrangement for countries that are unable to afford to pay for facilities and services and for navigation facilities and services that are required in international territories such as over oceans.
42
What is Article 6 of the Chicago Convention 1944?
“No scheduled international air service may be operated over or into the territory of a contracting state, except with the special permission or other authorization of that State.”
43
What are the five freedoms of the air?
1. The privilege to transit sovereign territory without landing.
2. The privilege to land on sovereign territory for non-traffic purposes. Examples of non-traffic purposes are refuelling, taking on provisions and emergency or weather related.
3. The privilege to disembark passengers, mail and cargo taken on in the home territory of the State (country) in which the aircraft is registered.
4. The privilege to board passengers, mail and cargo destined for the home territory of any other State (country) in which the aircraft is registered.
5. The privilege to board passengers, mail and cargo destined for, or coming from, the territory of any other State (country) in which the aircraft is not registered.
44
What issues do multilateral and bilateral agreements deal with?
- Market access
- Seating capacity
- Tariffs
- Licensing of airlines
- Airline ownership and Control
- Customs
- Tax
45
How many annexes to the Chicago Convention 1944 are there?
18
46
How are Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) viewed?
The uniform application by Contracting States of the specifications contained in the International Standards is recognised as necessary for the safety and regularity of international air navigation while the uniform application of recommended practices is regarded as desirable in the interest of safety, regularity or efficiency of international air navigation.
47
What kinds of materials are considered Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS)?
Operating procedures regarded as not yet having attained a sufficient degree of maturity for adoption as International Standards and Recommended Practices, as well as material of a more permanent character that is considered too detailed for incorporation in an Annex or is susceptible to frequent amendment.
e.g.
- Doc 4444 - Air Traffic Management
- Aeronautical Telecommunications (some elements)
- ICAO Abbreviations and Codes
- Aircraft Operations
48
What is the purpose of technical manuals?
To provide guidance and information in addition to the International Standards, Recommended Practices and PANS, the implementation of which they are designed to facilitate.
49
What does Article 38 of the Chicago Convention 1944 require?
That, where a State finds it impracticable to comply in all respects with a standard, or to bring its own regulations or practices into full accord with a standard, notification be given to ICAO.
Such notification is referred to as a “difference” and is published by ICAO in Supplements to each Annex.
50
Where can Australian 'differences' be found and what information is published?
Airservices Australia details differences to ICAO SARPS via the Airservices website.
In addition, Airservices publishes an AIP Supplement, reviewed annually, which not only details differences to SARPs but also details significant differences to,
1. PANS involving ICAO Doc 4444 (Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Air Traffic Services) and
2. Doc 8168 (Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft Operations).
51
True or False. The rules for a particular country are overridden by the ICAO rules?
False. Where the rules for a particular country differ from those of the ICAO, it is that country's rules which are paramount.
52
What is contained in Annex 2 of the Chicago Convention?
The Rules of the Air
53
What is a PIC?
Pilot in Command
54
What are the responsibilities of the PIC?
The PIC is responsible for the aircraft’s compliance with the Rules of the Air whether the aircraft is on the ground or airborne and whether the PIC is at the controls or not.
The PIC is responsible for:
- the start, continuation, diversion and end of a flight
- the operation and safety of the aircraft during the flight
- the safety of persons and cargo carried on the aircraft
- the conduct and safety of members of the crew on the aircraft.
- the operation and safety of the aircraft
- the safety of persons and cargo on the aircraft
- the conduct and safety of members of the crew.
55
What authority does the PIC have?
The PIC has final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft while he or she is in command and for the maintenance of discipline by all persons on board.
The PIC:
- has the final authority over all aspects of the flight
- may depart from the rules to avoid immediate danger
- can remove, detain, place under arrest and/or restrain any person who endangers the flight
- has the power to restrict or limit any activities that may be reasonably expected to affect the safety of air navigation.
56
What are the PICs responsibilities prior to flight?
An aircraft shall not commence a flight unless evidence has been furnished to the PIC and that the pilot has taken such action as necessary to ensure that:
- the instruments and equipment required for the particular type of operation to be undertaken are installed in the aircraft and are functioning properly;
- the gross weight of the aircraft does not exceed the limitations imposed and is such that flight performance in accordance with the standards specified by the Civil Aviation Authority for the type of operation to be undertaken is possible under the prevailing conditions; and
- any directions of Civil Aviation Authority with respect to the loading of the aircraft have been complied with;
- the fuel supplies are sufficient for the particular flight;
- the required operating and other crew members are on board and in a fit state to perform their duties;
- the air traffic control instructions have been complied with;
- the aircraft is safe for flight in all respects; and
- the latest editions of the aeronautical maps, charts and other aeronautical information and instructions that are applicable:
--- to the route to be flown; and
--- to any alternative route that may be flown on that flight; are carried in the aircraft and are readily accessible to the flight crew.
57
What rules apply to the use of intoxicating substances by pilots, passengers and Air Traffic Controllers?
1. A person shall not, while in a state of intoxication, enter any aircraft.
2. A crew member or ATC shall not be in a state induced by “any alcoholic liquor, drug, pharmaceutical or medicinal preparation or any other substance” whereby their capacity to act is impaired.
3. A person shall not act as, or perform any duties or functions preparatory to acting as, a member of the operating crew of an aircraft if the person has, during the period of 8 hours immediately preceding the departure of the aircraft consumed any alcoholic liquor.
4. A person who is on board an aircraft as a member of the operating crew, or as a person carried in the aircraft for the purpose of acting as a member of the operating crew, shall not consume any alcoholic liquor.
58
What Air Traffic Service specific regulations are there regarding the use of intoxicating substances?
1. A person shall not, while acting in any capacity in either air traffic control or Flight Service, be in a state in which, by reason of his or her having consumed, used, or absorbed any alcoholic liquor, drug, pharmaceutical or medicinal preparation or other substance, his or her capacity to act is impaired.
2. A person shall not act in any capacity in either ATC or Flight Service if the person has, during the period of 8 hours immediately preceding the commencement of the period of duty in which he or she so acts, consumed any alcoholic liquor.
3. A person who is on duty in either air traffic control or Flight Service shall not consume any alcoholic liquor.
59
What are the standard units of measurement?
Distances used in navigation -Nautical miles
Short distances - Metres
Altitudes, elevations and heights - Feet
Horizontal speed, including wind speed - Knots
Vertical speed - Feet per minute
Wind direction for runway operations - Degrees magnetic
Wind direction for other operations - Degrees true
Altimeter setting - Hectopascals
Temperature - Degrees Celsius
Weight (mass) - Tonnes or kilograms
Time - Hours and minutes
60
How accurate a time reference must pilots keep during flight?
within + or - 30 seconds
61
When must aircraft display navigation lights and anti-collision lights?
In flight and in the manoeuvring area?
62
What do navigation lights consist of?
- an unobstructed red light projected above and below the horizontal plane through an angle from dead ahead to 110 degree port; and
- an unobstructed green light projected above and below the horizontal plane through an angle from dead ahead to 110 degree starboard; and
- an unobstructed white light projecting above and below the horizontal plane rearward through an angle of 140 degree, equally distributed on the port and starboard sides.
Navigation lights shall be steady lights
63
What do anti-collision lights consist of?
- a flashing red light visible in all directions within 30 degrees above and 30 degrees below the horizontal plane of the aeroplane
- an additional flashing white light visible in all directions and
- possibly an additional flashing red rear light.
64
What actions must the PIC and operator take in regards to lights at night and in conditions of poor visibility?
1. Must comply with the rules requiring lights to be displayed in relation to the aircraft;
2. Must not allow other lights to be displayed that are likely to be mistaken for the lights required to be displayed.
65
From sunset to sunrise (or any other prescribed period) which lights shall aircraft in flight display?
Anti-collision lights intended to attract attention to the aircraft;
Navigation lights intended to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights.
66
What steps must be taken by the PIC if lights fail?
Notify Air Traffic Control immediately.
If this is not possible, land the aircraft as soon as it can be landed without danger.
67
What is the Rule for Converging Headings?
When two aircraft are on converging headings at approximately the same height, the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way.
68
What are the exceptions to the rule of converging headings?
Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons;
Airships shall give way to gliders and balloons;
Gliders shall give way to balloons;
Power-driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft that are seen to be towing other aircraft or objects.
69
What action shall aircraft approaching one another head on take?
Alter their heading to the right?
70
What are the rules of overtaking?
An aircraft overtaking another shall alter its heading to the right until entirely past and clear.
An overtaking aircraft is one that is defined as approaching from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than 70º with the plane of symmetry of the lead aircraft. (i.e. unable to see the forward navigation lights).
An aircraft shall not over-take another by diving or climbing.
71
What are the rules of landing and approach?
An aircraft in flight, or operating on the ground or water, shall give way to other aircraft landing or on final approach to land.
When two or more heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing, aircraft at the greater height shall give way to aircraft at the lesser height. The latter shall not take advantage of this rule to cut-in in front of another that is on final approach to land, or overtake that aircraft. The PIC of an aircraft must give way to another aircraft that is compelled to land.
An aircraft that is about to take-off shall not attempt to do so until there is no apparent risk of collision with other aircraft.
72
What rules must be adhered to when operating near other aircraft?
An aircraft must not be flown so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.
An aircraft must not be operated on the ground in such a manner as to create a hazard to itself or to another aircraft.
An aircraft that is required to keep out of the way of another aircraft shall avoid passing over or under the other, or crossing ahead of it, unless passing well clear
An aircraft that has the right of way shall maintain its heading and speed, but nothing shall relieve the pilot in command of an aircraft from the responsibility of taking such action as will best avert collision.
73
Does the flight crew have a responsibility to see and avoid aircraft?
When weather conditions permit, the flight crew of an aircraft must, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under the IFR or the VFR, maintain vigilance so as to see, and avoid, other aircraft.
74
If the pilot does not hold either a Command Instrument Rating or a night VFR rating, when are they prohibited from departing?
1. Before first light or after last light
2. Unless the Expected Time of Arrival for the destination is at least 10 minutes before last light allowing for any required holding.
75
In the absence of clearance from ATC, when shall VFR flights not land or enter the traffic zone or pattern at a controlled aerodrome?
When the ceiling is less than 450m (1500 ft) OR when the ground visibility is less than 5km
76
Are VFR flights permitted to operate in Class A airspace or above 20,000ft?
No
77
In what conditions may VFR flights be conducted?
Visual Meteorological Conditions.
- Provided that, when operating at or below 2000ft above ground or water, the pilot is able to navigate by visual reference to the ground or water
- At subsonic speeds
- In accordance with speed restrictions.
78
What VMC requirements apply to Class G airspace?
Aircraft must remain 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically away from a cloud.
Above 10000ft, visibility must be 8000m
Below 10000ft, visibility must be 5000m
79
Where shall a VFR flight not be flown (except as necessary for take-off or landing, or by permission from the appropriate authority)?
Over the congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
Elsewhere, at a height less than 150 m (500 ft) above the ground or water.
80
Who disseminates the QNH to Air Traffic Control?
The Bureau of Meteorology.
81
In order of priority, what should the pilot use to conduct a pre-flight altimeter check?
1. Tarmac
2. Threshold
3. Airfield Reference Point Elevation
82
Where the first check indicates an altimeter is unserviceable, how many further checks may a pilot undertake?
One further check at another location on the same airfield.
83
At what threshold is an IFR altimeter considered unserviceable?
Error in excess of + or - 75 ft
84
At what threshold is a VFR altimeter considered unserviceable?
> 100 ft
85
When can a QNH be considered accurate?
If provided by Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS), Tower or an automatic remote-reporting aerodrome sensor.
86
Can Area QNH be used for a pre-flight altimeter check?
No
87
Where should site elevation be derived?
From aerodrome survey data published by the Air Navigation Service Provider or supplied by the aerodrome owner.
88
Above which altitude is the standard International Standard Atmospheric Pressure used instead of QNH?
Normally above 10000ft
89
What is the International Standard Atmospheric Pressure?
1013.2 hPa
90
What is the altitude where the change from QNH to 1013.2 hPa known as?
The transition altitude
91
When cruising in the standard pressure region, what should the altimeter reference be?
1013.2 hPa
92
What should the altimeter reference be when cruising at or below the Transition Altitude?
The current Local QNH of a station along the route within 100NM of the aircraft
The current Area Forecast QNH if the current Local QNH is not known.
93
What is the region of air used to separate aircraft using QNH and those using 1013.2 as a reference known as?
The Transition Layer
94
Is cruising permitted in the Transition Layer?
No
95
When during flight should the altimeter reference be changed from QNH to 1013.2 hPa?
In the Standard Pressure Region during a climb, after passing 10000ft but prior to levelling off.
96
When during flight should the altimeter reference be changed from 1013.2 to QNH?
On descent prior to entering the transition layer
97
How long is an Area QNH forecast valid?
3 hours
98
What required points of accuracy can lead to Area QNHs being subdivided?
1. Area QNH forecasts are to bewithin ±5hPa of the actual QNH at any low-level point (below 1,000ft AMSL) within or on, the boundary of the appropriate area during the period of validity of the forecasts.
2. Area QNH must not differ from an adjoining Area QNH by more than 5hPa.
99
When and to whom does ATS provide Area QNH to?
All flights cruising at or below the transition altitude on receipt of their departure report.
100
Why must FL110 must not be used for cruising when the Area QNH is less than 1013hPa?
To retain a minimum buffer of 1000ft above the transition altitude
101
At what Area QNHs respectively, are FL115 and FL120 not to be used?
FL115 - below 997hPa
FL120 - below 980hPa
102
What does WEEO stand for and mean?
West Even East Odds
To avoid the potential for collision when flying WEST the aircraft will fly at EVEN altitudes. When flying EAST aircraft will fly at ODD altitudes.
103
At which set levels will VFR flights operate?
at x000ft + 500 ft.
104
When may pilots request a level not conforming to the table of cruising levels?
When it is determined by the PIC to be essential to the safety of the flight and its occupants. In such circumstances, the phrase “DUE OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENT” must be included with the level change request.
105
When will ATC assign cruising levels not conforming to the table of cruising levels?
When traffic or other operational circumstances require.
106
What levels do IFR aircraft fly at?
The rounded x000 ft level.
107
Where are minimum safe altitudes (MSA) specified?
For sectors surrounding a navigation aid.
108
What obstacle clearance is provided by an MSA?
1000ft
109
What clearance is provided by Lowest Safe Altitudes (LSALT)?
1000ft
BAK
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