LIMITATIONS Flashcards

(129 cards)

1
Q

Operating Pressure Altitude Maximum

A

⭐️41,000 feet

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2
Q

MAXIMUM TAKEOFF/LANDING TAILWIND COMPONENT.⭐️

A

15 knots

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3
Q

RECOMMENDED SEVERE TURBULENCE PENETRATION SPEED
Cruise &. Climb/Descent

A

Cruise TURB N1 setting from cruise page
Climb and descent 280 knots/.76 Mach

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4
Q

Takeoff in moderate/heavy freezing rain or hail is…?

A

prohibited

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5
Q

Rolling takeoffs are strongly
advised when crosswinds exceed ______ knots.

A

20 knots

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6
Q

Sideslip only (zero crab) landings for aircraft equipped with split scimitar
winglets are not recommended with crosswinds in excess of _______ knots.

A

15 knots

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7
Q

Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below _______ AFE.

A

1000 ft

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8
Q

Do not use the autopilot or the autothrottle for approach if the associated ______
_________ is inoperative.

A

Radio Altimeter

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9
Q

Reduced takeoff thrust is not permitted when?

A

🔘antiskid inoperative
🔘runway is contaminated with standing water, ice, slush, or snow
🔘EEC in ALT mode
🔘WINDSHEAR/Strong Xwind

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10
Q

ENGINE OIL QUANTITY. Minimum prior to engine start

A

70%

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11
Q

In flight, do not extend the speed brake lever beyond the _______ _______

A

FLIGHT DETENT

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12
Q

In flight, do not extend the speedbrake lever beyond the ARMED detent with
________________

A

flaps 40 selected.

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13
Q

Do not deploy the speed brakes in flight at radio altitudes less than______ feet.

A

1000

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14
Q

Approach speed may not exceed__________ or landing flap placard speed minus 5 knots, whichever is lower.

A

VREF+15

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15
Q

FLIGHT MANEUVERING LOAD ACCELERATION LIMITS

Flaps up?
Flaps down?

A

Flaps up +2.5g to -1.0g
Flaps down +2.0g to 0.0g

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16
Q

Takeoff/Landing Pressure Altitude
Maximum__________ feet

A

10,000

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17
Q

RUNWAY SLOPE

A

Maximum ± 2%

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18
Q

Maximum Flight Operating Latitude

A

82 degrees north and 82 degrees south, except for some exceptions

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19
Q

VMO

A

Indicated by the upper barber pole on the speed tape

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20
Q

MMO

A

.82 Mach

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21
Q

Maximum gear retraction speed

A

235 knots

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22
Q

Maximum gear extension speed

A

270 knots/.82 Mach

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23
Q

Maximum gear operating/extended speed

A

320 knots/.82 Mach

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24
Q

MINIMUM GROUND TIME AFTER LANDING
If landing weight exceeds the value in the Maximum Quick Turn Around Weight
Limits table, Performance chapter, wait at least:
Steel brakes___ minutes
Carbon brakes ___minutes

A

67
48

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25
T/O X-Wind Component DRY Runway⭐️
⭐️33
26
Landing X-Wind Component DRY Runway⭐️
⭐️37
27
T/O X-Wind Component 🌧WET/DAMP/FROST <1/8 Water/Slush/Snow on Runway⭐️
⭐️25
28
Landing X-Wind Component WET/DAMP/FROST <1/8 Water/Slush/Snow on Runway BA Good (5 ) ⭐️
⭐️37
29
T/O X-Wind Component >1/8 SNOW
20/20
30
Landing X-Wind Component >1/8 SNOW
25/25
31
T/O X-Wind >1/8in Water/Slush
15/15
32
Landing X-Wind >1/8in Water/Slush
17/17
33
T/O X-Wind ICE (Braking action-Poor)
13/13
34
Landing X-Wind ICE (Braking action-Poor)
17/17
35
WINDSHEAR ALERT Takeoff with predictive windshear warning or caution alert annunciated is ________________
not approved.
36
T/F Installation of handle covers on the over wing exits must be verified prior to departure whenever passengers are carried.
True
37
T/F On revenue flights, the escape slide retention bar (girt bar)must be installed during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
True
38
PORTABLE OXYGEN BOTTLES Minimum number of cabin portable oxygen bottles aboard - At least ____ for each assigned flight attendant (one flight attendant for each 50 seats or part thereof).
One
39
Maximum cabin pressure differential____ PSI
9.10
40
Maximum differential pressure for takeoff and landing _____ PSI
.125 PSI
41
When engine bleeds are on (either one or both), do not operate air conditioning packs in _______ for takeoff, approach, and landing.
High
42
OPERATING DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE Above 37,000 feet ______PSI
8.35 ± .1
43
28,000 through 37,000 feet_______ ± .1 PSI
7.8
44
Below 28,000 feet _______ ± .1 PSI
7.45
45
DUCT PRESSURE Maximum cooling _____ PSI Note: A duct pressure difference of more than _____ PSI may indicate a mechanical malfunction. If a duct pressure split is observed after bleeds are configured for flight, and the lowest indication is approximately _____ PSI or less, contact maintenance.
20-25 >8 18
46
DUCT PRESSURE FOR TWO PACK OPERATION FROM ONE BLEED SOURCE Minimum ______ PSI (700/800/900/9ER) Do not operate more than ______ pack from one engine. (MAX) On the ground do not operate more than______pack from one engine
20-25 One pack (NG) All times (ie. Don’t operate two packs from one bleed source) One pack (MAX) Ground only
47
ICING CONDITIONS WHEN:
Outside air temperature ⭐️10°C or below and • Visible moisture in any form is present (i.e., clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals), or • While operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where snow, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines or freeze on the engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.
48
ENGINE ANTI-ICE • Must be ON during all ground operations, including after landing, when icing conditions exist or are anticipated. • Must be ON during all flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is _________ • Must be ON prior to and during descent in all icing conditions, including temperatures below -40°C SAT. • Engine ignition must be selected to _______ prior to and during engine anti-ice operation.
Below -40°C SAT. CONT
49
WING ANTI-ICE • Use wing anti-ice during all ground operations between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, unless the aircraft is or will be protected by the application of ________ or ___________ • Do not operate wing anti-ice on the ground when the OAT is __________
Type II or Type IV fluid. above 10°C
50
During takeoff do not use wing anti-ice until after the __________________ CAUTION: Use of wing anti-ice above approximately ___________ may cause bleed trip off and possible loss of cabin pressure.
first thrust reduction. FL 350
51
Window heat must be on ______ minutes before takeoff.
10
52
When must the Probe heat must be On?
Prior to T/O
53
On takeoff or missed approach, do not engage autopilot below: ⭐️______ feet AGL
400
54
AUTOLAND – MAXIMUM WINDS Headwind ◘ ____knots Crosswind ◘ ____knots Tailwind (flaps 30 1 and 40) ◘ _____knots
25 15 10 (-900[401-412]) Flaps 30: Field elevation 4000 feet or less – ◘ 10 knots Field elevation 4001-6000 feet – 5 knots Field elevation 6001 feet and above – 0 knots
55
Use of _______ _____ with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.
aileron trim
56
Minimum Altitude for Use of Autopilot on Approach ILS/GLS coupled approaches (no autoland)⭐️
⭐️50 feet AGL
57
Minimum Altitude for Use of Autopilot on Non-precision approaches⭐️
⭐️50 feet below MDA/DA
58
Autopilot must be disconnected before descending below _____ feet AGL without a published MDA or DA.
500
59
Autoland capability may only be used to runways at or below ________ pressure altitude.
8400 feet
60
The ILS autoland capability may only be used with flaps ________ and _______with both ___________ operative.
30 and 40 engines
61
Maximum and minimum glideslope angles for autoland are _____ and _____ respectively
3.25° and 2.5°
62
The autoland system shall not be used for __________ landings
overweight
63
Do not use the autopilot or the autothrottle for approach if the associated _________ ____________ is inoperative.
radio altimeter
64
______________with the First Officer as Pilot Flying are not authorized.
Autolands
65
Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below______ feet AFE.
1000⭐️
66
In all cases other than autoland, the autothrottle must be disconnected no lower than____ feet AGL
50
67
WI-FI SYSTEM WARNING: Do not operate the KA GND TX ENABLE switch in the OVERRIDE position or the WIFI COMM ENABLE / BROADBAND SYSTEM switch in the ON position during deicing, when….
maintenance is being performed in the vicinity of the Wi-Fi radome, [MAX taxiing under a skybridge] or in a hangar due to the presence of radio frequency (RF) energies. Failure to follow this precaution can cause personnel injury.
68
SINGLE ENGINE DRIVE GENERATOR LOAD Maximum
75 KVA – 215 amps
69
BATTERY VOLTAGE FOR APU START
Minimum 23 volts
70
ENGINE IGNITION Ignition must be on for:
• Takeoff • Landing • Engine anti-ice operation • Heavy rain
71
ENGINE OIL PRESSURE Oil pressure must be in ________ _______ for takeoff.
normal range
72
Minimum oil pressure (700/800/900/9ER)? (MAX)?
NG 13 PSI MAX. 17.4 PSI
73
ENGINE OIL TEMPERATURE Minimum starting (MAX)? Minimum takeoff (MAX)?
Minimum starting (MAX) -40°C Minimum takeoff (MAX) 31°C
74
ENGINE OIL TEMPERATURE Maximum?
155°C
75
ENGINE OIL TEMPERATURE Maximum continuous
140°C
76
ENGINE OIL TEMPERATURE Maximum allowable NG? MAX?
NG. 155°C. 45 minutes MAX. 155°C. 15 minutes
77
ENGINE LIMIT DISPLAY MARKINGS Maximum and minimum limits? Cautionary range? Normal operating range?
Red line Amber arc White arc
78
MAXIMUM EGT LIMITS (700/800/900/9ER) Takeoff?
(5 minutes) 950°C
79
Maximum continuous
925°C
80
Maximum Start EGT
725°C
81
MAXIMUM EGT LIMITS (MAX) Takeoff? Maximum continuous? Start?
(10 minutes) 1038°C 1013°C 753°C
82
ENGINE STARTER DUTY CYCLE Normal starter duty cycle: • Multiple consecutive start attempts are permitted. Each start attempt is limited to ______(700/800/900/9ER) ________(MAX) of starter usage. • A minimum of ________ is needed between start attempts.
NG. 2 minutes MAX. 3 minutes 10 seconds
83
Extended engine motoring: • (700/800/900/9ER) Starter usage is limited to ____ minutes for the first ____ extended engine motorings. A minimum of ___ minutes is needed between each attempt. • (700/800/900/9ER) For the third and subsequent extended engine motorings, starter usage is limited to ____ minutes. A minimum of _____ minutes is needed between each attempt.
First two: 15 min first two motorings 2 min between Third and after: 5 min on / 10 min off
84
• (MAX) Starter usage is limited to ____ minutes for all extended engine motorings. A minimum of ___ minutes is needed between the first two extended engine motorings. • (MAX) For the third and subsequent extended engine motorings, a minimum of ____ minutes is needed between each engine motoring.
5 on / 5 off Third and after: 10 min off
85
RPM MAXIMUM N1 & N2 (700/800/900/9ER)? (MAX)?
NG. MAX N1 104.0% 104.3% N2 105.0% 117.5%
86
REVERSE THRUST Limitations (4)
◘ Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is prohibited. -Use for ground operation only. -Backing the airplane with the reverse thrust is prohibited. -Do not attempt go-around after thrust reverser deployment on landing.
87
ENGINE CONTROL (EEC) Both EECs must be either_____ or _____ for takeoff.
ON or ALTN
88
Operation with assumed temperature reduced for takeoff thrust is not permitted with the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) in______ mode.
ALTN
89
APU MAXIMUM ALTITUDE APU bleed and electrical
10,000 feet
90
APU bleed maximum altitude
17,000
91
APU electrical load Max Altitude
41,000 feet
92
ENGINE OIL QUANTITY Minimum prior to engine start
70%
93
Do not engage starter above_____ N2.
20%
94
ENGINE STARTS IN AMBIENT TEMPERATURES BELOW________ Idle engine ________ before changing thrust lever position.
-35°C 2 minutes
95
Tank fuel temperature prior to engine start must not be less than _______ or ________ above the fuel freezing point temperature, whichever is greater.
-43°C 3°C
96
APU STARTER DUTY CYCLE For both ground and in-flight starts, __________ cooling is required after ______ start attempt.
15-minute 3rd
97
APU WARMUP (700/800/900/9ER) Operate APU ________ before using APU bleed air. (MAX) Operate APU______ before using APU bleed air.
1 minute 2 minutes
98
APU SHUTDOWN Wait a minimum of ________ for APU shutdown cycle to complete, then turn battery switch to OFF.
120 seconds
99
ENGINE FIRE EXTINGUISHER BOTTLE PRESSURE
800 PSI at 70°F
100
FLAP EXTENSION ALTITUDE Maximum⭐️
⭐️20,000 feet
101
Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is:
prohibited
102
In flight, do not extend the speed brake lever beyond the …
FLIGHT DETENT
103
In flight, do not extend the speedbrake lever beyond the ARMED detent with flaps ____ selected
40
104
Do not deploy the speed brakes in flight at radio altitudes less than ______ feet.
1000
105
When extending or retracting flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, allow _________ after releasing the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch before moving the switch again to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch. After a complete extend/retract cycle (i.e., 0 to 15 and back to 0) allow ________ cooling before attempting another extension.
15 seconds 5 minutes
106
AIRSPEED TO EXTEND FLAPS WITH ALTERNATE SYSTEM Maximum
230 knots
107
MACH TRIM FAIL (BOTH CHANNELS) Maximum speed
280 knots/.82 Mach
108
The maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude displays for RVSM operations is _____ feet.
200
109
Field Elevation Max Difference Between Captain and First Officer Max Difference Between Captain or First Officer and Field Elevation (feet) Sea level to 5000? 5001 – 10,000?
Cpt/FO. FE 50 75 60 75
110
Do not operate weather radar during _____, within _____ feet of a fuel spill, or within _____ feet of people except in test mode.
fueling 50 15
111
The FMCS with dual FMC operations may be used as primary means of navigation for VOR and NDB final approach segments when authorized for use with RNAV substitution via a ….
Company NOTAM or 10-7 page note.
112
RNAV APPROACHES Demonstrated Minimums Autopilot/flight director on: LNAV/VNAV engaged:
0.10 RNP
113
LOCALIZER BACK COURSE APPROACHES Localizer Back Course (LOC-BC) approaches are
not authorized
114
ROUTE 2 Due to the possibility of FMC restarts, do not copy or enter any information into RTE 2. During preflight, ensure that…
no information (including a departure or destination airport) is in RTE 2.
115
TANK CAPACITY – USABLE (700/800/900/9ER) Wing tanks ? Center tank?
8630 lbs. (x2) 28,803 lbs.
116
Main wing tanks must be scheduled to be full if the center wing tank contains more than
1000 pounds of fuel
117
Lateral fuel imbalance between wing tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be _____. Fuel imbalance between main wing tanks for taxi, takeoff, flight, or landing must not exceed _____ pounds.
zero 1000
118
CENTER TANK FUEL PUMPS Intentional dry running of a center tank fuel pump (LOW PRESSURE light illuminated)
is prohibited.
119
EXTENDED RANGE OPERATIONS Fuel Crossfeed Valve Operational Check for Airplanes with a Single Crossfeed Valve Prior to each extended operations (ETOPS) flight, an operational check of the fuel CROSSFEED valve must be performed. This check must be performed by the flight crew prior to each ETOPS flight as part of the__________ procedure for each specific extended range flight. Perform an operational check of the fuel CROSSFEED valve during ______________________ during each extended range operation
pre-flight the last hour of cruise flight
120
CENTER TANK FUEL PUMPS Center tank fuel pumps must not be ON unless
personnel are available on the flight deck to monitor LOW PRESSURE lights
121
Minimum fuel for stationary ground operation of electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps is ______ pounds in the related main tank.
1675
122
HYDRAULIC QUANTITY Maximum? Minimum for dispatch?
105% Above RF
123
TIRE GROUNDSPEED (700/800/900/9ER) Maximum? (MAX) Maximum?
195 knots 204 knots
124
AUTOBRAKES Arming the RTO feature is required on__________, if operable.
all takeoffs
125
Autobrakes are not permitted with _______ inoperative.
antiskid
126
Brake wear indicators should extend beyond_________ (with parking brake set)
the brake flange
127
GROUND PROXIMITY WARNING SYSTEM (GPWS) Do not use the terrain display for:
navigation
128
The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions are prohibited within ______ of takeoff, approach, or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database.
15 NM
129
Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a
TCAS II resolution advisory