1
Q
Manoeuvring Speed
A
184 KIAS
2
Q
Maximum Flap Extension / Extended Speed
A
Approach - 202 KIAS
Full Down - 158 KIAS
3
Q
Maximum Landing Gear Operating Speed
A
Extension - 184 KIAS
Retraction - 166 KIAS
4
Q
Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed
A
184 KIAS
5
Q
Air Minimum Control Speed
A
Flaps Up - 94 KIAS
Flaps Down - 93 KIAS
6
Q
Maximum Operating Speed
A
Sea Level to 21000 ft - 263 KIAS
21000 to 35000 ft - 263-194 KIAS (0.58 Mach)
7
Q
One-Engine Inoperative Best Rate-of-Climb Speed (Blue Line)
A
125 KIAS
8
Q
Emergency Descent Speed
A
184 KIAS
9
Q
Maximum Range Glide
A
135 KIAS
10
Q
Flight Load Factor Limits
A
Flaps Up: +3.1 / -1.24
Flaps Down: +2.0 / -0
11
Q
Stall Speeds
A
Vso, Flaps Down, Idle Power: 81
Vs1, Flaps Approach, Idle Power: 89
Vs1, Flaps Up, Idle Power: 96
ISS LSC Marker changes with flap position
12
Q
Generator Limits
A
In-Flight: Maximum Generator Load
SL to 34000ft: 100%
Above 34000ft: 95%
Ground N1: Maximum Generator Load
62-70%: 75%
70-100%: 100%
13
Q
Max Cabin Differential
A
6.6 psi
14
Q
Propeller Rotational Speed Limits
A
Transients: 1870 RPM
Reverse: 1650 RPM
All Other Conditions: 1700 RPM
Minimum Idle (unfeathered): 1050 RPM
15
Q
Propellor Rotational Overspeed Limits
A
Sustained prop rotation over 1700 RPM indicate failure of primary governor.
Flight may be continued at prop overspeeds up to 1768 RPM provided torque is limited to 96%.
16
Q
Usable Fuel
A
Total: 3611 lbs (2040L)
Each Main Tank: 1273 lbs (719L)
Each Aux Tank: 533 lbs (301L)
Max Imbalance: 300 lbs
17
Q
Max OAT Limits
A
SL to 25000ft: ISA +37
Above 25000ft: ISA +31
18
Q
Landing Gear Cycle Limits
Tyre Speed Rotational Limit
A
Cycles (1 up - 1 down) limited to one every five minutes for six cycles, followed by 15 minute cool-down.
139 KIAS
19
Q
Minimum Ambient Temperature For Deicing Boot Operation
Minimum Airspeed For Sustained Icing Flight
Windshield Anti-Icing Max Effectiveness Speed
A
-40 Degrees Celsius
140 KIAS
226 KIAS and below
20
Q
Engine Anti-Ice Operation
A
ON for operations +5C or below when flight free of visible moisture cannot be assured.
OFF for takeoff operations above +10C.
21
Q
Autopilot Minimum Use Heights
A
Minimum engage height (AGL):
- after takeoff is 400ft
- during cruise is 1000ft
- during approach is 79ft
- during steep approach is 160ft
22
Q
Maximum Coupled Intercept Angles
A
Nav and Localiser: less than 90 degrees
Back Course: 70 degrees
23
Q
Three Things Limiting Max Takeoff Weight
A
- Maximum takeoff weight that achieves takeoff climb requirements
- Maximum tyre speed
- Takeoff field length
24
Q
Two Things Limiting Maximum Landing Weight
A
- Maximum landing weight to achieve climb requirements
- Normal landing distance - flaps down
25
Maximum weight in baggage compartment?
550 pounds without jump seats
510 pounds with jump seats
26
Maximum ambient temperature to use brake deice?
15 Degrees Celsius
27
Maximum Demonstrated Crosswind?
Maximum Tailwind Component (limiting)?
20 knots
10 knots
28
Minimum Recommended Battery Volts prior to applying external power?
Absolute minimum battery volts prior to applying external power?
23 volts
20 volts
29
ITT Limits
Idle: 750
Maximum Reverse: 760
Cruise Climb: 785
Takeoff: 820
Maximum Continuous: 820
Maximum Cruise: 820
Transient: 850 limited to 20 seconds
Start: 1000 limited to 5 seconds
30
Maximum Prop Limits
Idle: 1050 minimum
Cruise: 1500
Maximum Reverse: 1650
Takeoff: 1700
Maximum Continuous: 1700
Inadvertent: 1735 / 7 minutes
Transient: 1870 / 20 seconds
31
Maximum N1 Limits
Idle Minimum: 62%
Takeoff: 104%
Maximum Continuous: 104%
Transient: 104%
32
Maximum Torque Limits
Takeoff and Maximum Continuous: 100%
Inadvertent: 102% / 7 minutes
Transient: 156% / 20 seconds
33
Maximum Torque Below 1000 RPM
Torque-limited to 62%
34
If Oil Falls To 60 PSI In-Flight
Under emergency conditions to complete a flight, run reduced power level not to exceed 62% torque
35
How many standby fuel pumps required for takeoff?
One, crossfeed of fuel will not be available from the side of the inoperative standby fuel pump
36
Fuel Gauges in Yellow Arc
Indicates less than 265 pounds of fuel in each wing system
37
Sustained Propellor RPM Over 1700 Indicates?
Failure of the primary governor
38
Flight Continuation With A Propellor Overspeed
Flight may be continued at propellor overspeeds up to 1768 RPM, provided torque is limited to 96%. Sustained propellor overspeeds faster than 1768 RPM indicate failure of both the primary and secondary governor, such overspeeds not approved.
39
Electrical System Description
28-volt DC, single-loop, triple-fed system with a negative ground
40
Battery Power Connects To Which Three Buses
Battery bus, centre bus and the triple-fed bus
41
What Protects The Five Electrical Buses
Current sensors, limiters, diodes and relays. Load-shedding accomplished by isolating a faulty bus from those that are still functional, thereby preventing a failure of the entire electrical system
42
Which Relays Close When The Battery Switch Is Placed To On?
Battery relay and battery bus tie relay
43
Describe Automatic Load Shedding
Automatically shedding generator busses as necessary to reduce excess loads
44
What is on the Dual Fed Bus?
L Engine Fire Ext, R Engine Fire Ext, Cabin Entry Lights
45
Explain the Function of the Generator Control Unit
- Voltage Regulation
- Overvoltage / over-excitation protection
- Paralleling / load sharing (within 10%)
- Reverse current protection
- Cross-Gen start current limiting
- Isolates failed / off gen from its bus
46
What over-excitation protection is available?
The starter-gen will be de-energised if generator bus voltage is greater than 28.25 VDC and the output current differential between starter-gen’s is greater than 15% for 5 seconds
47
Starter-Generator Overvoltage Limit
If the affected starter-generator output voltage rises above 32.5VDC, it will be removed from the bus and the unaffected starter-gen will automatically be reconnected.
48
Explain Cross-Starting Protection System
Prevents the on-line starter-gen from providing excess current to the starter-gen being used as a starter
49
Function of the Generator Bus-Tie Switch
Three switch positions
- MAN CLOSED: manually closes the generator bus-tie relays through the bus-tie control PCB, also illuminates green MAN TIES CLOSE annunciator. The battery then powers the generator buses.
- NORM: allows automatic closure of the left and right bus tie relays when either generator or external power comes on line. If the battery is the only power source on line, both generator bus ties open to isolate the left and right generator buses from the battery. Equipment that remains operations operational during battery only operations has a white ring around the control switch.
- OPEN: both the left and right bus tie relays open to isolate both generator buses from the centre bus.
50
Function of Bus-Sense Switch?
It controls the over-current sensing function of Bus-Tie system
51
What does the Bat Bus switch do?
What equipment is located on the Battery Bus?
The EMER OFF disconnects the Battery from the Battery Bus.
Avionics, Battery Switch/Relay, Ground Comm, Dual-Fed Bus.
52
Does the Ground Power Unit need to be operating to illuminate the external power annunciator light?
What does a flashing Ext Pwr light mean?
When will GPU power be locked out?
No.
Plugged in but not producing 28 volts.
If voltage exceeds 31V.
53
What bus is powered by external power?
External power is routed through the external power relay to the centre bus
54
How does the avionics power switch work?
Why would you pull the Avionics Master CB?
When the avionics master switch is placed in the ON position, voltage is removed from each coil and the contacts are closed to supply power to the avionics power circuit breakers.
To bypass the Avionics Master Switch and provide avionics power if that switch has failed.
55
Do the taxi and landing lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted?
No
56
Explain fuel flow from the wing tank to engine
From the wing to nacelle to Elec Standby Boost Pump to FW shutoff to Eng Boost Pump to Filter to Heater to Hi Press Pump to FCU
57
During crossfeed, what position should the standby pumps be in?
Both pumps should be off
58
What happens when you select crossfeed?
The auto fuel transfer module energises the standby pump on the feeding side
59
When does auto ignition energise?
When armed it energises when torque is below 17%
60
How many governors are involved in controlling propeller RPM?
Three
The primary governor
The over speed governor
The fuel topping governor
61
Explain the fuel control unit
Works as governor to supply fuel required to maintain selected engine speed. Eng Boost pump provides head pressure for High Speed pump to prevent cavitation. Pump Unloading Valve responds to condition lever to load/unload fuel pressure.
62
When will the auto feather system arm?
When both power levers are above 88% N1; both Torque above 17%; torque manifold oil pressure below value for 17% torque, and, torque continues to drop below 10%; prop feathers
63
What is the autofeather test procedure?
Power levers to 22% torque
Autofeather switch: test
Both AUTOFEATHER ARM lights
Retard power levers one at a time, at 17% torque, ARM light on good side goes out
At 10% torque, low prop cycles in and out of feather, light blinks.
After both sides, both power levers to idle and check neither feathers.
ARM system for takeoff.
64
Prop sync max authority
20 RPM
65
Starter Limits
30 seconds on, 5 minutes off, 30 seconds on, 5 minutes off, 30 seconds on, 30 minutes off.
66
Explain Fire Engine Test
DET checks the continuity of the detection loop
EXT checks the continuity of wiring to the squib and cartridge circuit
67
What pressure is the bleed air regulated to and what is it used for?
Passes through 18 psi regulator which incorporates a relief valve set at 21 psi in case of regulator failure.
Supplies pneumatic pressure to surface de-icers, door seal, bleed air failure warning system and the cabin window defrost system, and to provide forcing flow and pressure for the vacuum ejector.
68
Wing Deice Light Remaining Illuminated
If both switches do not actuate to the normally closed position the WING DEICE annunciator light will remain illuminated. Indicates that the end of the deice cycle has not been reached and the deice boots have not pulled down properly, which may impair ice shedding at the next deicing attempt.
69
How are deicing boots deflated?
Bleed air from the engine is routed through an ejector that employs a Venturi effect to product vacuum for deflation of the de-icer boots
70
What does the single position of the deice switch do?
One complete cycle of deicer operation automatically follows as the distributor valve opens to inflate the deicer boots. After an inflation period of 6 seconds for the wings and 4 seconds for the horizontal stabiliser, a timer relay switches the distributor valve to the OFF or VACUUM position for deflation of the deicer boots.
71
What does the manual position of the deice switch do?
All the boots will inflate and will continue to hold in the inflated position as long as the switch is held in position. Upon release of the switch, the distributor valve returns to the OFF position and the deicer boots remain deflated until the switch is actuated again.
72
How is the engine inlet lip heated?
A scoop in the LH exhaust stack diverts a portion of the hot exhaust gases downward through a flex hose into the hollow lip encircling each engine air inlet and are exhausted out the RH exhaust stack.
73
Explain the components of the inertial separation anti-ice system
An inertial separation system, consisting of two electrically actuated movable vanes, is built into each engine air inlet to prevent moisture particles from entering the engine inlet plenum during
freezing conditions. When icing conditions are encountered, the forward ice vane is lowered into the inlet airstream and the aft ice vane is retracted.
74
Explain the principle of operation of the ice vanes
Repositioning the vanes will cause the velocity of incoming air to increase so that heavy ice laden air will be directed overboard through the lower aft cowling, while lighter incoming air will turn abruptly to enter the engine plenum around the trailing edge of the extended forward vane and the curved fixed vane.
75
How are the ice vanes normally driven?
The system is normally driven by the primary motor.
In the event the primary motor malfunctions, system power is provided through selection of the secondary motor.
76
When should the inertial separators be deployed?
When flying in visible moisture and the temperature is +5°C or below.
77
What is the maximum speed that windshield heat will remain effective?
226 KIAS
78
Explain the propeller deice operation
Raises the deicer boot surface temperature to reduce bond between ice and boot, allowing centrifugal force and airflow to sling ice from the prop.
When AUTO switch is activated, power to deicer boots is cycled in 90-second phases; first 90-second phase heats all deicer boots on the RH prop; second phase heats all the deicer boots on the LH prop.
A backup manual prop deicer system is provided. When MANUAL switch is activated, power is applied to all heating elements on both props. Manual override switch is momentary type and must be held until ice dislodges.
Prop ammeter won't indicate load in manual mode; load meters will indicate approximately a .05% increase in load when the manual prop deicer is used.
79
How does the AC system work?
A compressor plus one condenser and two evaporators are utilized to cycle the refrigerant from a gas to a liquid state to provide cooling of the passenger compartment and flight compartment. The compressor is equipped with an electric clutch and is installed in the accessory gear box section of the RH engine. The aft evaporator and blower are located under the center aisle floorboards in line with the sixth cabin window.
The condensing coil and blower assembly, located in the nose, removes excess heat from the high temperature, high pressure gaseous refrigerant being discharged from the compressor, allowing the refrigerant to condense to the liquid state.
To protect the AC system from damage: overpressure and underpressure switches deactivate the system in the event operating pressures exceed the maximum or minimum safe operating limits. The reset switch for an underpressure or overpressure condition is located on the LH side wall inside the nose wheel well.
80
How is bleed air distributed throughout the aircraft?
Conditioned bleed air, cooled by the heat exchangers in the wing leading edge structure, is distributed through insulated ducting to the mixing plenum in the RH side of the flight compartment. This warm air is then distributed through insulated ducting to floor outlets.
81
What happens if the bleed air gets too hot?
If conditioned bleed air in the main duct aft of the mixing plenum exceeds 300°F, an annunciator placarded DUCT OVERTEMP illuminates when the over temperature switch closes.
82
How can you get ambient air into the cabin
Ambient air can be supplied to the cabin through the evaporator door located adjacent to the mixing plenum. A solenoid latch on the door can be de-energized when the cabin pressure control switch is set to DUMP, allowing ambient air to enter the mixing plenum.
83
How is air directed to the defrost vents?
Conditioned bleed air is distributed through insulated ducting to outlets located forward of the instrument panel for heating and windshield defrost. Push-pull cables allow the pilot and copilot to control butterfly valves that regulate the amount of conditioned bleed air flow from the outlets.
Conditioned bleed air for windshield defrost is controlled by a push-pull control cable located on the pilot’s inboard subpanel.
84
What is the purpose of the bypass valves?
The bypass valves, located downstream of the wing heat exchangers, direct bleed air into the heat exchangers or allow bleed air to bypass them.
85
What prevents duct overheat?
If duct temperature reaches 350°F, a thermoswitch in the overheated duct closes, energizing the electric heat control relay located under the center aisle floorboards in line with the forward partition. The forward and aft heater power relays and the solenoid control switch are de-energized, and power is removed from the heater elements.
86
How is the air-conditioning condenser cooled?
When the nose landing gear down-lock switch is closed, a ground circuit is completed and energizes the coil of the condenser blower relay. Power is then supplied to the condenser blower and the blower moves air across the condenser and out the vents in the nose. When the airplane is in flight and the down-lock switch is not closed (the landing gear is up), the condenser is cooled by the flow of ram air that enters through the inlet in the nose.
87
What is the function of the pressurization controller?
The sole function of the pressurization controller is to control the outflow valve which opens or closes proportionally to the degree of vacuum being provided by the controller.
The outflow of pressurized cabin air is controlled by the outflow valve and safety valve, a cabin pressure controller, and preset and safety solenoids.
Outflow and safety valves sense atmospheric pressure through vents that protrude through the aft pressure bulkhead.
88
What is the function of the test position on the cabin pressure control switch?
When the airplane is on the ground with the squat switch in the down position, the cabin pressure control switch can be set to the TEST position to de-energize the preset and safety solenoids and allow the pressure control system to function as though the airplane were in flight.
89
How can outside air be used to ventilate the cabin?
Ambient air can enter the cabin when the cabin pressure differential is minimal and the evaporator door solenoid latch is opened (de-energized) by setting the cabin pressure control switch to DUMP. Ambient air is then allowed to flow into the fresh air inlet, through the solenoid controlled door, and into the forward evaporator plenum.
90
When will the gear horn sound?
The horn will sound when the plane is on the ground and the gear handle NOT down. In flight, it will sound when the flaps are UP or set to APPROACH and a power lever is below 86% N1 or if the flaps are set greater than APPROACH and the landing gear is not down.
91
How does the landing gear operate?
The actuators are powered by a hydraulic system consisting primarily of the actuator located in each wheel well, a hydraulic power pack (containing a pump, motor, reservoir, and selector valve) located in the LH wing, an accumulator, and hydraulic plumbing routed from the power pack to each landing gear actuator for a normal extend mode, an emergency extend mode, and a normal retract mode. The landing gear is retracted and extended by individual actuators and drag brace assemblies connected to each landing gear. When the control handle is moved to the UP position, power is supplied to the pump motor and to the gear-up solenoid to allow system fluid under pressure to flow to the retract side of the system.
92
What holds the landing gear in the up position?
The landing gear is held in the retracted position by hydraulic pressure maintained in the retract plumbing system. A pressure switch in the power pack will activate the pump motor should the system pressure drop to the low pressure limit.
93
Explain the braking system
The airplane is equipped with four hydraulically operated brake assemblies. Avoid setting the parking brake when the brakes are hot from severe usage, or when moisture conditions and freezing temperatures could form ice locks.
94
Where is the hydraulic reservoir located?
The hydraulic system reservoir and accumulator are located in the left inboard center section of the wing. The accumulator pressure should be maintained at 800 ± 50 psi.
95
What is the tire pressure?
Inflate the main-wheel tires to between 80 and 87 psi unloaded and 88 and 92 psi loaded.
The nose wheel tire should be inflated to between 55 and 60 psi.
96
Explain the split-flap protection
Provided by an asymmetrical flap switch system; this switch is rigged to shut off the flap motor for any out-of-phase condition of three to six degrees between flaps.
97
How do the flaps operate?
The flaps, two on each wing, are driven by an electric motor through a gearbox mounted on the forward side of the rear spar. The gearbox drives four flexible drive shafts connected to jackscrews at each flap. Flap travel from 0% (full up) to 100% (full down; 35°) is registered in percentage on an electric indicator on top of the pedestal near the flap control lever.
98
Explain the rudder boost system
When the difference in engine torques exceeds a preset level, the electric servo is activated and deflects the rudder, which assists pilot effort. The servo contribution is proportional to the engine torque differential.
99
The stall warning system consists of what components?
The stall warning system consists of the following major components: the lift computer, the aural warning system, a stall warning self-test switch, LH landing gear squat switch, the lift transducer, a heat panel for the transducer and a stall warning heat control relay.
Activation level of warning tone changed by flap position.
100
Max Zero Fuel Weight
12500 lbs
101
Steep Approach Max Angle
5.5 degrees
King Air 350
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