For a type 1 improper integral (0 to infinity or -infinity to 0), when will the integral diverge?
when the limit doesn’t exist
Assuming g(x) is greater than f(x) what do we know about convergence and divergence?
if g(x) converges, then so do f(x) if f(x) diverges, so does g(x)
For a type 1 improper integral (-infinity to infinity), when will the integral converge?
when both integrals (-infinity to 0 and 0 to infinity) exist
For a type 1 improper integral (0 to infinity or -infinity to 0), when will the integral converge?
when the limit exists