1
Q
What is a benefit of fresh frozen biopsy samples over formalin fixed samples?
a. They allow for functional staining of samples
b. They can be used for electron microscopy
c. They provide better look at tissue architecture
A
They allow for functional staining of samples
2
Q
Cervical ventroflexion is a nonspecific sign of weakness in cats. What is the incidence of this among cats with immune mediated polyneuropathy?
a. 87%
b. 34%
c. 11%
d. 50%
A
c. 11%
3
Q
What change on gait, listed below, is a sign of early limb weakness
a. Overflexion of distal joints
b. Scuffing of dorsal digits
c. Increased stride length
A
a. Overflexion of distal joints
4
Q
Which of these clinical signs distinguishes myopathies from neuropathies?
a. Muscle Atrophy
b. Muscle Hypertrophy
c. Generalized Weakness
d. Generalized Ataxia
A
b. Muscle Hypertrophy
5
Q
What is the serum halflife of creatine kinase in dogs, that makes it a good biomarker of myopathies?
a. 2.5 hours
b. 5.4 hours
c. 11.5 hours
A
a. 2.5 hours
6
Q
What portions of the neurologic examination help you best differentiate between a patient with spinal cord disease and a patient with neuromuscular disease?
a. Paw placing and the cranial nerve exam.
b. Paw placing and limb reflex testing.
c. Limb reflex testing and the cranial nerve exam.
A
b. Paw placing and limb reflex testing
7
Q
F waves are best utilized to diagnose which of the following canine neuromuscular diseases?
a. Tetanus
b. Polyradiculoneuritis
c. Distal denervating neuropathy
A
b. Polyradiculoneuritis
8
Q
What is true about Cushing’s myotonia?
a. This disease causes type 1 muscle atrophy and distal appendicular muscle hypertrophy.
b. This disease causes a pseudomyotonia on EMG analysis.
c. This disease results in thoracic limb stiffness and pelvic limb flaccidity.
A
b.
This disease causes a pseudomyotonia on EMG analysis
9
Q
What are the three categories of neuromuscular or peripheral nervous system disease:
a. Disease of the neuromuscular junction
b. Disease of the peripheral nerve
c. Disease of the peripheral muscle
d. All of the above
A
d. All of the above
10
Q
What electrophysiologic exam finding is observed with a demyelinating neuropathy?
a. Increased M wave amplitudes.
b. Decreased motor nerve conduction velocities.
c. Lack of polyphasia on motor nerve conduction velocity testing.
A
b. Decreased motor nerve conduction velocities.
11
Q
Which serum marker has the best sensitivity and specificity to support a diagnosis of Neospora myositis in dogs?
a. Alanine aminotransferase
b. Aspartate aminotransferase
c. Creatine kinase
d. Alkaline phosphatase
A
c.
Creatine kinase
12
Q
Which protozoal myopathies affect the cat and the dog commonly?
a. Cryptococcus in cats and in dogs
b. Neospora in cats and in dogs
c. Toxoplasma in cats and Neospora in dogs
d. Toxoplasma in dogs and Neospora in cats
A
c. Toxoplasma in cats and Neospora in dogs
13
Q
Why is neck ventro-flexion a common sign of neuro-muscular weakness in cats?
a. Cats’ nuchal ligament attaches on C3
b. Cervical muscles in cats are weaker than thoracic and lumbar muscles
c. Cats lack a nuchal ligament
d. Cats’ nuchal ligament attaches on C4
A
c. Cats lack a nuchal ligament
14
Q
Which metabolite can be increased in the urine and support a diagnosis of lipid storage myopathy?
a. Carnitine
b. Tetrasaccharide
c. Creatine
d. Tricarboxylic acid
A
a. Carnitine
15
Q
Which diseases can lead to a decremental muscle response after repetitive nerve stimulation?
a. Myasthenia gravis, polymyositis
b. Myasthenia gravis, polymyositis, severe polyneuropathies
c. Polymyositis, severe polyneuropathies
d. Myasthenia gravis, severe polyneuropathies
A
b. Myasthenia gravis, polymyositis, severe polyneuropathies
16
Q
Angular atrophy of type i and 2 myofibers is the hall mark of?
a. Muscle disuse
b. Masticatory muscle myositis
c. Denervation
d. Muscular dystrophy
A
c. Denervation
17
Q
Chronicity of disease is associated with?
a. Fiber type grouping
b. Large group atrophy
c. Pyknotic nuclear clumps
d. All of the above
A
d. All of the above
18
Q
Which of the following appear dark stained on ATPase with preincubation at pH 4.3?
a. Type 2B myofibers
b. Type 2M myofibers
c. Type 2A myofibers
A
b. Type 2M myofibers
19
Q
Which of the following is a specific mitochondrial stain?
a. Succinic dehydrogenase
b. Alkaline phosphatase
c. Acid phosphatase
d. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide-tetrazolium reductase (NAD)
A
a. Succinic dehydrogenase
20
Q
Staphylococcus protein A highlights which leukocyte population?
a. Macrophages
b. Plasma cells
c. Eosinophils
d. T lymphocytes
A
c. Eosinophils
21
Q
Which histochemical muscle fiber type is restricted to the muscles of mastication?
a. Type 2A
b. Type 1
c. Type 2M
d. Type 2C
A
c. Type 2M
22
Q
Regenerating clusters are a histological marker for what?
a. Distal polyneuropathy
b. End-stage axonal degeneration
c. Axonal regeneration
d. Remyelination
A
c. Axonal regeneration
23
Q
Necklace fibers are a hallmark of which muscle disease?
a. Central core myopathy
b. X-linked Myotubular myopathy
c. Nemaline rod myopathy
d. Dystrophin deficient muscular dystrophy
A
b. X-linked Myotubular myopathy
24
Q
Which one of the following histochemical reactions is mitochondrial specific?
a. Cytochrome C Oxidase
b. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
c. Esterase
d. Reduced Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide tetrazolium reductase (NADH-TR)
A
a. Cytochrome C Oxidase
25
Which of the following is NOT true about congenital myopathies?
a. Weakness and hypotonia are presenting clinical signs
b. Creatine kinase (CK) activity is usually markedly elevated
c. Genetic etiology
d. Defined by pathological features in the muscle biopsies (rods, cores, central nuclei)
b. Creatine kinase (CK) activity is usually markedly elevated
26
Normal muscle appears homogeneously hypoechoic on ultrasound
True
False
False
27
Which of the following is generally the preferred imaging modality for myopathic disease?
a. MRI
b. Computed tomography
c. Radiography
d. Ultrasound
a. MRI
28
In type 2M masticatory muscle myositis in dogs which of the following muscles is NOT affected
a. Pterygoid
b. Digastricus
c. Masseter
d. Temporalis
b. Digastricus
29
PET CT imaging with 18-FDG radiotracer will preferentially highlight.
a. Increased metabolic activity in soft tissues
b. Increased metabolic activity/remodeling in bony tissues
c. Chronic bone lesions
a. Increased metabolic activity in soft tissues
30
The Dixon technique utilizes which phenomenon to provide contrast between tissues?
a. Different processional frequencies
b. Different proton densities
c. Different T1 relaxation
d. Different T2 relaxation
b. Different proton densities
31
Tick paralysis has been associated with:
a. Otobius megnini
b. Dermacentor
c. Ixodes
d. B and C are correct
d.
USA Dermacentor
AU. Ixodes
32
Repetitive nerve stimulation consists of:
a. Trains of stimulation at various frequencies
b. A recovery time of 1 minute is allowed between each frequency
c. Pseudofacilitation can be observed in normal individuals at high frequencies
d. All of the above are correct
d. All of the above are correct
33
Differentials for botulism include:
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypomagnesemia
c. Tick myotonia
d. Hypermagnesemia
d. Hypermagnesemia
34
Facilitation in repetitive nerve stimulation is characterized by:
a. CMAP No increased in amplitude, area under the curve unchanged
b. CMAP Increased amplitude, area under the curve unchanged
c. CMAP Decreased in amplitude, decreased area under the curve
d. CMAP Increased amplitude, increased area under the curve
d. CMAP Increased amplitude, increased area under the curve
35
In pseudofacilitation:
a. More myofibers are recruited increasing area under the curve
b. CMAP amplitude is higher compared to baseline CMAP amplitude
c. Area under the curve changes according to number of myofibers recruited
d. More myofibers are recruited increasing the amplitude
b.
CMAP amplitude is higher compared to baseline CMAP amplitude
36
Which of the following is not true about congenital myasthenic syndromes?
a. Are genetic diseases and affect young animals at approximately 6-8 weeks of age
b. Megaesophagus is not as frequent as in acquired myasthenia gravis
c. Is associated with acetylcholine receptor antibodies
d. Specific mutations have been reported in Jack Russell terriers, smooth fox terriers and springer spaniels
c. Is associated with acetylcholine receptor antibodies
37
Electrodiagnostic testing including EMG and NCV is useful in the diagnosis of generalized or focal neuromuscular disease for all but which of the following reasons?
a.
Helps to define the distribution and severity of disease
b.
Provides important information about axons and myelin.
c.
Is too much of a risk as it involves general anesthesia
d.
Can aid in the determination of which muscle and nerve to biopsy
c. Is too much of a risk as it involves general anesthesia
38
Muscle and nerve biopsies should be sent to a laboratory with expertise in diagnosing neuromuscular diseases for all but one of the following reasons.
a.
Nothing specific can be learned from special immunohistochemical staining of frozen muscle biopsy sections so not necessary.
b.
Pathologic findings in a muscle biopsy can lead to identification of a candidate gene(s) for further genetic testing.
c.
Pathologic changes in muscle biopsies can look similar with various muscle and nerve diseases and an accurate differential diagnosis should be provided to the clinician
d.
Enzyme based stains and reactions on frozen muscle biopsy sections can provide valuable information leading to a diagnosis.
a.
Nothing specific can be learned from special immunohistochemical staining of frozen muscle biopsy sections so not necessary.
39
Which one of the following muscles is not part of the masticatory muscle group?
a. Frontalis
b. Temporalis
c. Masseter
d. Pterygoid
a. Frontalis
40
If an acetylcholine receptor antibody titer of 0.3 nmol/l (reference <0.6 nmol/l) is reported in a dog with clinical signs of acquired MG, how should this be interpreted?
a. Retest in about 3 weeks if early in the course of the disease as the titer could be rising
b. This is a negative antibody titer and rules out acquired myasthenia gravis
c. The antibody titer is not specific for MG so really can’t interpret this
d. Suggests a diagnosis of polymyositis
a. Retest in about 3 weeks if early in the course of the disease as the titer could be rising
41
A decremental response is defined as a ___ or greater decrease in amplitude between the first and ___ CMAP in a train.
a. 5%, and 3rd, 4th or 5th
b. 5% and 6th, 7th or 8th
c. 10% and 3rd,4th or 5th
d. 10% and 6th, 7th or 8th
c. 10% and 3rd,4th or 5th
42
Sensory NCV studies are important because…
a.
they are quite sensitive, thus able to detect mild or early disease
b.
they can differentiate neuropathies that are strictly motor or sensory from those that involve both pathways
c.
they can be performed on several sensory and/or mixed nerves to determine the extent of neuromuscular disease in a given patient
d.
all of the above
d. all of the above
43
EMG findings can often be normal in which of these disorders?
a. sensory neuropathies
b. primary demyelinating neuropathies
c. acute neuropathies
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
44
In severely affected patients, which parameters may need to be adjusted to record potentials (CMAP or SNAP)? Circle all that apply.
a. high frequency filter
b. sweep speed
c. sensitivity
d. stimulus intensity
e. low frequency filter
b. sweep speed
c. sensitivity
d. stimulus intensity
45
When interpreting F-ratio results, a number below the reference range for a given stimulation site indicates,
a. more severe change of function distally
b. no difference in function along the nerve
c. ventral horn cell dysfunction
d. more severe change in function proximally
a. more severe change of function distally
46
What frequency characterizes orthostatic tremors in dogs?
a. 1 to 5Hz
b. 5-10Hz
c. >10Hz (i.e. fast)
d. 1Hz (i.e. slow)
c. >10Hz (i.e. fast)
47
Myotonic discharges are a specific finding on electrodiagnosis. test. What is no correct?
a. They are spontaneous repetitive muscle fibers firing.
b. They sound like a "dive bomber"
c. These discahrge wax and wane in both amplitude and frequency.
d. Increased muscle fiber excitability
e. Only in Genetic disorders like myotonic dystrophy
e. Only in Genetic disorders like myotonic dystrophy, they are seem in metabolic myopathies too
48
Fibrilation potentials they are abnormal, spontaneous electrical discharge of a single muscle fiber detected in EMG. Common finding in:
a. Denervation
b. sound of the "rain in the roof"
c. nerve damage but not denervation
d. Denervation, nerve damage, and in certain myopathies
d. Denervation, nerve damage, and in certain myopathies and sound "rain in the roof"
49
With which disease(s) are fibrillation potentials and positive sharp waves encountered?
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Myopathies and denervating diseases
c. Denervating diseases
d. Myopathies
b. Myopathies and denervating diseases
50
Which category(ies) of disease(s) can electrodiagnostic techniques explore?
a. Neuropathic, myopathic, junctionopathies
b. Neuropathic, myopathic, junctionopathies and CNS diseases
c. Neuropathic
d. Myopathic
b. Neuropathic, myopathic, junctionopathies and CNS diseases
51
Which electrodiagnostic technique best assess the function of the sciatic nerve roots in cases with lumbo-sacral stenosis?
a. Distal latency following tibial nerve stimulation
b. Distal latency following peroneal nerve stimulation
c. Cord dorsum potential following tibial nerve stimulation
d. Somatosensory evoked potential at the head following tibial nerve stimulation
c. Cord dorsum potential following tibial nerve stimulation
52
Which type of abnormal electrical activity tends to be recorded with EMG during chronic neuropathies?
a. Complex repetitive discharges
b. Fibrillation potentials
c. Positive sharp waves
d. Myotonic discharges
a. Complex repetitive discharges
53
What defines a conduction block? Note: CMAP = compound muscle action potential
a. A decrease in the amplitude of the proximal CMAP of more than 50 percent in comparison with the distal CMAP, without temporal dispersion
b. A decrease in the amplitude of the proximal CMAP of more than 30 percent in comparison with the distal CMAP, without temporal dispersion
c. A decrease in the amplitude of the distal CMAP of more than 50 percent in comparison with the proximal CMAP, without temporal dispersion
d. A decrease in the amplitude of the distal CMAP of more than 30 percent in comparison with the proximal CMAP, without temporal dispersion
a. A decrease in the amplitude of the proximal CMAP of more than 50 percent in comparison with the distal CMAP, without temporal dispersion
53
What type of peripheral nerve disease leads to a reduction of more than 2/3 of the expected compound muscle action potentials’ amplitude?
a. Mixed neuropathy
b. Axonal neuropathy
c. Demyelinating neuropathy
b.
Axonal neuropathy
54
Which type of abnormal repetitive muscle fiber electrical activity has an abrupt end?
a. Myotonia
b. Myokymia
c. Fasciculation
d. Complex repetitive discharges
d. Complex repetitive discharges
55
What type of peripheral nerve disease leads to a conduction velocity reduction of more than 30% of the normal values?
a. Mixed neuropathy
b. Axonal neuropathy
c. Demyelinating neuropathy
c. Demyelinating neuropathy
56
What is the name of the desynchronisation of the components of a compound muscle action potential due to different rates of conduction of each synchronously evoked component?
a. Conduction block
b. Physiological temporal dispersion
c. Temporal dispersion
c. Temporal dispersion
57
Which is an example of a single nucleotide polymorphism?
a. An insertion of a short interspersed nuclear element (SINE) within an exon
b. A change in the genetic sequence from a G to an A
c.
Multiple copies of a portion of a gene that occur next to each other
d. A change of a genetic sequence from a CAA to a CAAAAA
e. The movement of a portion of one chromosome to another chromosome
b. A change in the genetic sequence from a G to an A
58
Which best describes an exon?
a. A region of the genome without any known genes
b. The portion of a gene that regulates splicing
c. The portion of a gene containing protein-coding instructions
d. A regulatory region that binds gene promoters or enhancers
e. A region upstream of a gene that regulates its transcription
c. The portion of a gene containing protein-coding instructions
59
If a mutation is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and both parents are carriers, what is the chance that an offspring will have the disease?
a. 33%
b. 67%
c. 10%
d. 25%
e. 50%
d. 25%
60
Which of the following is an example of genetic pleiotropy?
a. A concept whereby one gene can play multiple roles throughout the body, affecting, for example, both heart and kidney function
b. A concept whereby multiple genetic mutations plus environmental contributions are required to cause disease
c. A concept whereby an animal with two copies of an autosomal recessive mutation does not exhibit the disease
d. An instance where two copies of a mutation are required to cause disease
e. An instance where only one copy of a mutation is required to cause disease
a. A concept whereby one gene can play multiple roles throughout the body, affecting, for example, both heart and kidney function
61
An important limitation of the candidate gene approach to identifying genetic mutations is
a. Tagged regions of the genome may harbor no genes
b. This approach relies on a priori knowledge of gene function, which may be incomplete
c. Disentangling the correct variant can be difficult without sophisticated bioinformatics approaches
d. Identified genes may not survive Bonferroni correction for multiple testing
e. Often with this approach, the entire gene cannot be sequenced
b. This approach relies on a priori knowledge of gene function, which may be incomplete
62
Which two genetic muscle disorders in horses present with normal serum creatine kinase and abnormal muscle fasciculations and contractions?
a. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP) and Polysaccharide storage myopathy type 1 (PSSM1)
b. Glycogen branching enzyme deficiency (GBED) and Myosin heavy chain myopathy (MYHM)
c. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP) and Myotonia Congenita
d. Myotonia congenita and Myosin heavy chain myopathy (MYHM)
c. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP) and Myotonia Congenita
63
Which genetic muscle disease in horses is characterized by the rapid onset of muscle atrophy?
a. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)
b. Polysaccharide storage myopathy type 1 (PSSM1)
c. Malignant hyperthermia (MH)
d. Myosin heavy chain myopathy (MYHM)
d. Myosin heavy chain myopathy (MYHM)
64
A genetic mutation in what gene causes type 1 polysaccharide storage myopathy?
a. Phosphofructokinase (PFKM)
b. Myophosphorylase (PYGM)
c. Glycogen branching enzyme (GBE1)
d. Glycogen synthase 1 (GYS1)
d. Glycogen synthase 1 (GYS1)
65
Which genetic muscle disease in horses is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?
a. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)
b. Malignant hyperthermia (MH)
c. Glycogen branching enzyme deficiency (GBED)
d. Polysaccharide storage myopathy type 1 (PSSM1)
c. Glycogen branching enzyme deficiency (GBED)
66
Which genetic muscle disorders in horses present with elevated serum creatine kinase activity?
a. Glycogen branching enzyme deficiency (GBED), Polysaccharide storage myopathy type 1 (PSSM1), Myosin heavy chain myopathy (MYHM)
b. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP), Myotonia Congenita, Malignant hyperthermia (MH)
c. Myotonia congenita, Myosin heavy chain myopathy (MYHM), Glycogen branching enzyme deficiency (GBED)
d. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP), Polysaccharide storage myopathy type 1 (PSSM1), Malignant hyperthermia (MH)
a. Glycogen branching enzyme deficiency (GBED), Polysaccharide storage myopathy type 1 (PSSM1), Myosin heavy chain myopathy (MYHM)
67
When counseling and owner or their breeder about possible breeding of close relatives of dog affected with an inherited neuro-muscular disease which one statement is most true.
a. A carrier dog for the mutation should never be bred under any circumstances.
b. An affected dog for autosomal dominant disease can be bred as long as a fee generations later they are replaced by a dog who carries the mutation and therefore is unaffected.
c. Quality dogs that are carriers of a widespread autosomal recessive neuromuscular disease can be bred in a limited manner and then replaces as long as the other breeder is not a carrier of the disease and both are screen for other common simple mendelian and complex genetic diseases of the breed.
c. Quality dogs that are carriers of a widespread autosomal recessive neuromuscular disease can be bred in a limited manner and then replaces as long as the other breeder is not a carrier of the disease and both are screen for other common simple mendelian and complex genetic diseases of the breed.
68
When doing a genetic test for any companion animal neuromuscular disease with a peer reviewed published mutation which one statement is more correct. It is important to consider and have knowledge of:
a. Whether the breed has an open or closed stub book and whether the mutation is a missense, nonsense or regulatory mutation
b. The mode of inheritance, and whether the mutation is a missense, nonsense or regulatory mutation.
c. The mode of inheritance, and whether the mutation is upstream or downstream of the 5 prime end of the gene.
b. The mode of inheritance, and whether the mutation is a missense, nonsense or regulatory mutation.
69
Which one statement is most correct.
a. Congenital Myasthenic syndromes in dogs are more common than immune mediated acquired Myasthenia Gravis, and only have documented mutations in pre-synaptic, and post-synaptic genes.
b. Congenital Myasthenic syndromes in dogs are more common than immune mediated acquired Myasthenia Gravis, and have documented mutations in pre-synaptic, synaptic, and post-synaptic genes but the genetic test are not yet available.
c. Congenital Myasthenic syndromes in dogs are less common than immune mediated acquired Myasthenia Gravis, and have documented mutations with available genetic tests in pre-synaptic, synaptic, and post-synaptic genes.
d. Congenital Myasthenic syndromes in dogs are less common than immune mediated acquired Myasthenia Gravis, and only have documented mutations in pre-synaptic, and post-synaptic genes with only a pre-synaptic genetic test available at this time.
c. Congenital Myasthenic syndromes in dogs are less common than immune mediated acquired Myasthenia Gravis, and have documented mutations with available genetic tests in pre-synaptic, synaptic, and post-synaptic genes.
70
Which one statement is most correct regarding polyneuropathies in dogs.
a. There are some documented mutations in genes that are the same genes as for Charcot- Marie-Tooth disease in people, and other documented mutations in dogs that are not in genes with a documented mutation in people.
b. All of the documented mutations in genes in dogs are genes with documented mutations a for Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease in people
c. All breeds with a documented mutation for a polyneuropathy have the same one single mutation in one single gent.
a. There are some documented mutations in genes that are the same genes as for Charcot- Marie-Tooth disease in people, and other documented mutations in dogs that are not in genes with a documented mutation in people.
71
There have been well documented mutations with available genetic tests for the following types of Canine Muscular Dystrophies (MD)
a. Autosomal Dominant Duchenne and Becker and Autosomal X-linked Beta-Dystroglyca Deficient, and Autosomal Recessive protein tyrosine phosphatase-like A deficient.
b. X- linked Duchenne and Becker and Autosomal Recessive Beta-Dystroglycan only.
c. Autosomal Dominant Dystrophin deficient, Autosomal recessive Laminin Alpha 2-Deficient, Autosomal recessive Sarcoglycan-Deficient, and X-linked Beta Dystroglycan Deficient.
d. X-linked Dystrophin deficient, Autosomal recessive Laminin Alpha 2-Deficient, Autosomal recessive Sarcoglycan-Deficient, and Autosomal Recessive Alpha-Dystroglycan Deficient.
d. X-linked Dystrophin deficient, Autosomal recessive Laminin Alpha 2-Deficient, Autosomal recessive Sarcoglycan-Deficient, and Autosomal Recessive Alpha-Dystroglycan Deficient.
72
Electromyography of specific muscle groups if abnormal could aid/indicate:
a. Focal muscle disease
b. Neuropathy innervating specific muscle groups
c. Specific spinal cord segments (nerves arising from those segments and innervating specific muscle groups)
d. All true
d. All true
73
High signal on post contrast T2 FLAIR MR images represents
a. Increased T1 signal
b. Increased T2 tissue relaxation times
c. Abrogation of fluid suppression
c. Abrogation of fluid suppression
74
At the same concentration of gadolinium contrst, signal intensity on post contrast T2 FLAIR images increases more than on post contrast T1 weighted images
True
False
TRUE
75
Phage array immunoprecipitation sequencing (PHIPSeq) is a global approach to asses:
a. Autoantibodies
b. DNA polymorphisms
c. RNA expression
a. Autoantibodies
76
Which of the following statements is accurate?
a. Intra- and extradural nerve roots of the cauda equina are affected in cases of polyneuritis equi
b. Cranial nerves can also be affected in polyneuritis equi
c. The sacral to caudal spinal cord segments are primarily affected
d. A and b are correct
d. A and b are correct
77
Which of the following cerebrospinal fluid cytology is most likely associated with polyneuritis equi?
a. Increased protein
b. Lymphocytic pleocytosis
c. No cytological abnormalities
d. Mixed lymphocytic, neutrophilic, pleocytosis with increased protein. Comment: granulomatous
d. Mixed lymphocytic, neutrophilic, pleocytosis with increased protein. Comment: granulomatous
78
In repetitive nerve stimulation, facilitation is characterized by:
a. Unchanged amplitude
b. Increased amplitude
c. Increased area under the curve
d. Options b and c are correct
d. Options b and c are correct
79
Examples of abnormal spontaneous EMG activity include:
a. Insertion activity
b. Motor unit action potential
c. End plate spikes
d. Fibrillation potentials
d. Fibrillation potentials
80
The most useful electrodiagnostics to study a junctionopathy include:
a. EMG
b. Single fiber EMG
c. Repetitive nerve stimulation
d. Options b and c are correct
d. Options b and c are correct
81
Examples of normal spontaneous EMG activity include:
a. Insertion activity
b. End plate spikes
c. Motor unit action potential
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
82
83
My o my
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