Question 12:
Members operating at elevator incidents and emergencies must take certain precautions to ensure the operation is conducted as safely as possible. Which elevator SOP outlined below is correct?
A: When passengers are removed from a car between floors, they should be taken up and out of the car if practical.
B: When performing emergency removal procedures shutting power is essential and one member should be dispatched to the elevator machinery room to shut off power to the stalled car.
C: Primary and secondary removal procedures are simple approaches and may be performed without turning off the elevator power.
D: Upon completion of the operation restore power to the stalled car
A Explanation:
B. When performing emergency removal procedures shutting power is essential and TWO MEMBERS should be dispatched to the elevator machinery room to shut off power to the stalled car.
C. PRIMARY REMOVAL procedures are simple approaches and may be performed without turning off the elevator power.
WHENEVER SECONDARY OR EMERGENCY POWER REMOVAL PROCEDURES ARE USED, POWER REMOVAL IS ESSENTIAL.
D. Upon completion of the operation DO NOT restore power to the stalled car.
TB Elevators 3.3, 3.5.1, 3.5.2 B
Question 17:
Engine 256 was in quarters and received a verbal for a person in cardiac arrest on the block. Which of the following actions taken by the company was INCORRECT?
A: They advised the dispatcher of the verbal alarm by selecting the verbal button on the PC/ATS.
B: They advised the dispatcher of the nature of the incident via telephone.
C: They advised the dispatcher of the location of the incident they were responding to via telephone.
D: They advised the dispatcher via apparatus radio that additional assistance was required.
A
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
A IS INCORRECT 2.2.4 – There is no verbal button on the PC/ATS – Units receiving a verbal alarm while in quarters must notify the dispatcher as soon as possible via telephone or apparatus radio indicating.
B – 2.2.4A1
C – 2.2.4A2
D – 2.2.4A3
Question 23:
Two-in two-out is a federally recognized safety standard set forth by OSHA. Which of the following components of this policy listed below is incorrect?
A: No member shall enter, leave or operate in an IDLH atmosphere unless the members teams-up with at least one other member and remains within visual or voice contact with that member.
B: If a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action is necessary to prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member.
C: In all cases of such individual action, the company officer of the member performing the rescue shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations.
D: A known life hazard is defined as follows: a victim can be seen or heard by the rescuer; or a member has information from a credible source or person at the scene indicating the location of the life hazard.
Explanation:
C. In all cases of such individual action, the INCIDENT COMMANDER shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations.
MMID 1.2, 1.3, 1.4 C
ECC Thomson was instructing other members of his company on proper pressures and friction loss in hoselines. In which choice was a correct comment made?
A: The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 1 ¾” hose is 30 psi.
B:2 ½” hose is the most versatile type of hose in the FDNY and can be used as an attack line at a fire or emergency or as a supply line in a number of situations. The friction loss in each length is 5 psi.
C: 2” lightweight hose is red, with green stripes, and is only used as the lead (nozzle) length on the attack line from a standpipe system in residential buildings. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2” hose is 10 psi.
D: 2 ½” lightweight hose is white, with red stripes, and is used as an attack line when using a standpipe system. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2 ½” hose is 10 psi.
Explanation:
B
A) The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 1 ¾” hose is 20 PSI.
C) 2” lightweight hose is GREEN, with RED STRIPES, and is only used as the lead (nozzle) length on the attack line from a standpipe system in residential buildings. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2” hose is 10 psi.
D) 2 ½” lightweight hose is white, with red stripes, and is used as an attack line when using a standpipe system. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2 ½” hose is 5 PSI.
Note: Notice the trend - in general, the smaller the hose diameter, the larger the friction loss.
Question 27:
After the start of the tour, in order to be in-service as a CFR-D unit for CFR-D responses, what is the correct minimum staffing of CFR-D certified personnel?
A:2 firefighters
B: 2 members (2 firefighters or 1 firefighter & 1 officer)
C: 3 firefighters
D: 3 members (3 firefighters or 2 firefighters & 1 officer)
Explanation:
Note: While CFR-D Units must begin each tour with two certified firefighters, in the event that during a tour the minimum staffing reduces to 1 firefighter and 1 officer, the company shall remain available for CFR-D responses.
Question 31:
Ladder 100 arrives at the Rock for an extrication drill. The instructor is discussing safe operating procedures in the vicinity of airbags. He makes the following statements, but was incorrect in which one?
A: Airbag systems are equipped with an energy storage feature that enables them to deploy even when the battery has been destroyed in an accident.
B: Members should observe a 10” safe operating distance from driver airbags.
C: Newer systems include the use of dual stage inflators which basically means that just because an airbag has deployed, it does not mean there cannot be a second deployment.
D: Airbags can be deployed either electronically or mechanically. Disconnecting the battery will start the drain time, which varies, for both types of airbags.
D. Airbags can be deployed either electronically or mechanically. Disconnecting the battery will start the drain time, which varies, for AN ELECTRONICALLY ACTIVATED DEVICE, BUT NOT A MECHANICALLY ACTIVATED ONE.
Note “B”: CODE:
Side airbags = 5” (shortest word = shortest distance)
Driver airbags = 10” (middle length word = middle distance)
Passenger airbags = 20” (longest word = longest distance)
Disentanglement & Extrication 2.6
Question 34:
The incorrect procedure when operating at an Iroquois Pipeline (natural gas) incident can be found in which choice?
A: Due to the extreme high pressure found in this pipeline system, during a leak units must use a fog line to assist in dispersal
B: The initial actions of units responding to pipeline boxes are to set up a perimeter and eliminate sources of ignition
C: The primary consideration when operating at an Iroquois Pipeline incident is the evacuation of the area involved
D: Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be performed by a Squad Company or SOC Support Ladder Company
Explanation:
AUC 150
A-Due to the extreme high pressure found in this pipeline system, consideration shall be given to allow escaping gas to naturally disperse into the atmosphere without the the use of fog lines to assist in dispersal. The use of fog lines may actually hinder the dissipation of the gas….sec 7.1.2
B- sec 7.1.1
C- sec 7.2.1
D- sec 7.2.3
Question 5:
Typically at a structural fire, the 2nd arriving engine company will team up with the 1st arriving engine to operate the 1st hoseline. However, there are situations in which the 2nd arriving engine company may stretch and operate a 2nd hoseline. This should only be done when each of the following conditions exist, with the exception of which choice?
A: The 1st arriving engine company must have secured a positive water source. The 2nd arriving engine officer can communicate with the 1st arriving chauffeur to confirm this.
B: The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine chauffeur to confirm this.
C: The hose stretches are sufficiently short, so the 1st arriving company will not require immediate assistance in operating the line once it is charged.
D: There is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard.
Explanation:
B) The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine OFFICER to confirm this. D Note: The Incident Commander (Chief Officer or Acting Chief Officer) may order the second engine in any situation to immediately stretch a second line for any purpose including the need for a backup line or exposure protection.
Eng Ch 4 3.5
Question 6:
Which Engine Company is responsible for positioning near the 1st arriving Ladder Company and providing Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims during a suspected chemical attack in an underground subway?
A: 1st arriving Engine
B: 2nd arriving Engine
C: 3rd arriving Engine
D: 4th arriving Engine
A Explanation:
1st arriving Engine Company
- provide Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims
- Direct persons who are decontaminated to Casualty Collection Points
- Provide estimate of number of victims to IC
- Inform 2nd arriving Ladder Company and IC if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decon area
2nd and 3rd arriving Engine Companies
- ensure that decon facilities are available quickly at remote locations (entrances)
- Perform CFRD duties as needed
ERP add 2 sec 7.1 and 7.2.1
Question 8:
Proper Tower Ladder placement is crucial at a fire operation. All officers should be familiar with the information below except the incorrect statement in which choice?
A: Tower Ladders shall not be placed on sidewalks containing underground vaults.
B: Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus and this can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled toward the building line.
C :The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to an objective is 32 feet.
D: Generally, the boom has enough clearance to reach most 3rd floor windows and above when operating over the crew cab.
Explanation:
B) Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus and this can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled AWAY FROM the building line.
C Note: When the center line of the turntable is 25 feet from a building there will be sufficient room for the bucket to be dropped below the horizontal with the boom perpendicular to the side of the apparatus.
TL Ch 2 2
Question 10:
Each Engine and Ladder Company were issued two Drager PAC 6500 C.O. meters recently. If a meter is damaged or not working properly, the company officer shall place the meter OOS and notify who for a replacement?
A: Haz-Mat 1
B: Haz-Mat Operations Meter Room
C: Administrative Battalion
D: Administrative Division
Explanation:
It used to be the admin battalion. This procedure has been changed since these meters were issued
CO meters will display readings up to 2,000 PPM. When readings exceed 2000 PPM, the CO meter will display “rrr” indicating concentrating too high to measure
Haz-Mat ch 4 add 2 sec 1.3 and 2.7.note
Question 11:
Manhattan fire units respond to a reported manhole emergency in midtown. On arrival, units encounter a concrete slab with access manholes placed in pairs. They would be most correct to identify this as which of the following items?
A: Transformer vault
B: Steam vault
C: Electric Manholes
D: Sewer Manholes
B
Question 21:
The proper maintenance of hose is essential to effective operations. Of the following choices, which one is incorrect?
A : All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 250 psi. The hose must be less than 10 years old.
B: Hose tested must not have any obvious defects. These includes damaged couplings, abrasions, burns, or rot to the hose jacket. If defects are noted, the hose should not be tested and should be placed OOS.
C: During the hose test, the apparatus is hooked up to a hydrant using the inlet opposite the pump panel. In addition, attach a single gate to the pumper outlet, also on the side opposite the pump panel.
D: During the annual hose test, the test pressure is maintained for 5 minutes and the ECC should be mindful that there is no movement of water during the test and the pump may build up heat. If heat is noted, a valve on an unused gate may be partially opened to allow water movement.
Explanation:
A) All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 300 PSI. *Note - this is a change from our old Engine Operations manuals.
Eng Ch 3 Add 3 5.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.5, 5.3.6, 5.4.11
Question 23:
Based on the following CFR assignments, which CFR firefighter is responsible for manually stabilizing the patients spine if trauma is suspected?
A:“A”: Airway
B:“C”: Checker
C: “D”: Defib/Documenter
D: “E” Equipment
A Explanation:
“A” Airway: Manually stabilizing spine (if trauma is suspected) while opening the airway, maintaining the airway, and administering oxygen if needed. In response to cardiac arrest, begins ventilation. Carries o2 bag.
“B” Boss: Officer in charge
“C” Checker: Conducts patient assessment and performs hand-on care. In response to cardiac arrest, checks pulse and begins compressions. Carries trauma bag.
“D” Defib/Documenter: Completes PCR. In response to cardiac arrest, hooks up and operates defibrillator.
“E” Equipment: If CFR unit is 5 FF, the fifth FF shall initially remain with the apparatus and help carry any additional equipment needed.
CFR Chapter 2 2.1
Question 24:
Your unit is operating at a fire on the 32nd floor of a high rise office building. What is the recommended pump discharge pressure?
A: 200psi
B: 260psi
C: 300psi
D: 350psi
C Explanation:
If you picked B, please read the full explanation
C) Floors 1-10 supply 150psi
Then add 50psi for every 10 floors
HROB 4.1.7
***There’s a difference between standpipe pressures for HRMD and HROB.
At a HRMD the correct answer would be 260 (Eng Ops ch 8 add 2)
Please see Eng OPs Ch 8 sec 3.9.11 Note: For fires in High Rise Office Buildings, the chart in FFP—High Rise Office Buildings shall be utilized.
Question 25:
All officers should be familiar with the types of hydrants and other water supply sources in their response areas. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Some Yellow Hydrants on Parkways and Expressways are maintained shut at the curb valve. They must be turned on fully at the curb valve, approximately 17 turns clockwise using a curb valve key, in order to be used.
B: Red Air Cock Hydrants are on 30” diameter or greater mains in strategic locations (high and low points on the water main). These hydrants are painted red and are excellent sources of water for Fire Department use.
C: Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are a twin hydrant arrangement on large mains and shall never be used. The hydrants are painted red and are high pressure hydrants.
D: Wall Hydrants are embedded in the wall of a building and closely resemble a Fire Department Connection (but should be labeled as a hydrant.) They are operated by turning an operating nut (often located above the outlets.)
C
Explanation:
C) Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are a twin hydrant arrangement on large mains for a rapid and ADEQUATE source of water for Satellite Units. The hydrants are painted red and MAY have two 4 ½” outlets.
Eng Ch 3 Add 4 2.3.3 - 2.3.6
Question 28:
Members were discussing the designations of units during a study session. Which designation is CORRECT?
A: Engine 256 is assigned to an Ice Rescue incident. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix W.
B: Engine 244 is assigned to a High-Rise fire as the Systems Control Unit. They were listed on the ticket with the Suffix S.
C: Engine 232 is assigned to a 1075 as a High-Pressure Pumper. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix P.
D: Engine 322 is assigned to a collapse incident as the transport unit. They were listed on the ticket with the prefix E.
D Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
D IS CORRECT – Engine companies are designated by the prefix E. 2.12.1A1
A – Water/Ice Rescue is indicated by the SUFFIX W
B – Systems Control Unit is indicated by the SUFFIX Y
C – High Pressure Pumper is indicated by the SUFFIX P
Question 32:
All officers should have a basic understanding of fire dynamics. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?
A: The horizontal line between the inflow and outflow at a ventilation opening (i.e., at the plane where there is zero pressure difference and thus zero flow in or out of the opening) is known as the neutral plane. The position of the neutral plane can often be observed during a fire, given that the outflow often consists of visible smoke or fire.
B:The neutral plane is another term for thermal interface and may occur inside a fire compartment or at any ventilation opening.
C: Thermal Interface and interface height refer to the separation between the hot upper layer and the cool lower layer within a compartment. It can be used by firefighters to identify how far the hot upper layer has banked down and the possibility of flashover.
D:The neutral plane indicates pressure differences at an opening and may be used by firefighters outside the building to help determine the fire location within a building.
B Explanation:
Neutral plane only at VENTILATION POINT
B) The neutral plane is DIFFERENT from the thermal interface because the neutral plane ONLY occurs at a ventilation opening.
TB FD Ch 2 2.5.4, 2.5.5
Question 37:
Proper aerial ladder placement is important to the overall success of a fire operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A:Place the apparatus 13 feet from the building for a good climbing angle
B:Place the apparatus in the center of the street, if possible
C: For an experienced member, when placing the ladder, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the ladder rail of the top section.
D: For the less experienced member, when placing the ladder, accuracy will be attained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.
AExplanation:
A) Place the apparatus 25 to 35 feet from the building for a good climbing angle.
A Note: Average city sidewalk is 13’ from the building line to the curb and 35’ from curb to curb.
Lad 2 3.1, 3.1.4
Question 39:
First alarm units arrive at a chute fire in a compactor of a high-rise fireproof multiple dwelling. Which operation performed is incorrect?
A: The first engine company to arrive will proceed to one level above the burning material, stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire.
B: The Roof FF of the ladder company operates with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension.
C: The officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor room. They must first locate the electrical shut off and shut power to the unit before operations commence.
D: After the engine company has extinguished the fire, the ladder company may begin overhauling. Before opening the compactor unit access door, they are to be sure the hoseline is shut down and the sprinkler OS&Y is closed.
B Explanation:
B. THE OV FF of the ladder company operates with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension.
THE ROOF FF of the ladder company will generally proceed to the roof to vent.
TB Fires 7 8.2
Question 7:
A member of Ladder 100 is inspecting her PSS at the start of the tour. She notices signs of heat exposure on the bag of the PSS. She would be most correct to place which components of the system out of service?
A: The PSS bag only.
B: The PSS bag and rope only.
C: The PSS bag, rope and EXO only.
D: The PSS bag, rope, EXO, and personal harness.
D Explanation:
If the bag (or any components of PSS) show signs of heat exposure (discoloration, degradation, melting, charring, etc.) the entire system (PSS bag, rope, EXO, and harness) should be placed out of service.
**Variation of this question was asked on 2021 Captains Exam**
TB Rope 4 5.3.3
Question 9:
Engine companies can use a standing body of water as a positive water source when there are no hydrants available, or in situations where more water is required than can be supplied by the hydrant system. When drafting water, units should abide by each of the following, except for which incorrect choice?
A: The apparatus should be operated in Volume Operation and the PPG should be switched to “Revolutions Per Minute (RPM) Mode”. Once switched to RPM Mode, the PPG throttle should be increased to 1,000 RPM.
B: The apparatus priming pump is used to remove air from the drafting hose, which creates a vacuum and pulls water into the system. The prime should last for at least 45 seconds.
C: A positive and steady Master Pressure Gauge reading will indicate a successful draft and a negative reading on the Master Inlet Pressure Gauge is normal. Once a successful draft is achieved, the PPG is returned to PSI Mode for pumping operations.
D: The connection is secured with a rope tied just below the strainer using a clove hitch and binder and lowered until the strainer is at least 22 feet under the water’s surface.
D Explanation:
D) The connection is secured with a rope tied just ABOVE the strainer using a clove hitch and binder and lowered until the strainer is AT LEAST 2 feet under the water’s surface. A pumper can draft water a MAXIMUM distance of roughly 22 feet, though anything over 10 feet reduces the Gallons Per Minute (GPM) capability of the pumper.
B Note: To make this possible, all inlets and outlets not used must be capped and spanner tightened.
Eng Ch 5 3.8
At a private dwelling cellar fire, the IC (Chief or Company Officer) may consider ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown when there will be a delay in applying water from the interior, or whenever fire conditions dictate. Other parameters that must be met when considering this approach include each of the following except?
A: This should only be attempted when you know the location of members operating in the cellar. It must be carefully coordinated with and communicated to all units operating on scene.
B: The primary consideration for members operating on the first floor above a cellar fire is to close the interior cellar door at the top of the stairs.
C: Based on conditions encountered, for the safety of members remaining on the first floor, consider having them operate under the protection of a charged hoseline, secure an area of refuge (ensure a ready means of egress), or having them exit the building.
D: In an emergency such as members trapped by fire in the cellar or endangered by fire because a collapse has occurred, the IC should order the immediate operation of a hoseline into a cellar window.
A Explanation:
A) This should only be attempted when NO members are operating in the cellar. It must be carefully coordinated with and communicated to all units operating on scene. (However, note the exception in Choice D, when you can do this in an “emergency”.)
Note: It is a good practice at PD fires, especially serious cellar fires, to have a precautionary charged hoseline in position near the front of the building for these contingencies.
PD Ch 3 2.6
Question 15:
After reviewing four recent “All Hands” fires, the Deputy Chief found one instance of improper aerial ladder positioning. Which choice shows the incorrect positioning?
A: At a Brownstone fire, the LCC placed the aerial ladder tip 3” from the objective, which was a cornice.
B: In order to rescue two children from a Rowframe fire, the LCC placed the aerial ladder 2” from the objective, which was a window the children were hanging out of.
C: Since she had to place the aerial ladder to the roof of a 7-story Old Law Tenement, which was at a very extreme angle, the LCC allowed the ladder to barely touch the building.
D: At a fire in a Class 2 building, the LCC placed the ladder tip 6” over the window sill.
D Explanation:
D) When positioning a ladder at a window, the placement must allow for unimpeded access and egress at this window. Therefore, the ladder tip should be LESS THAN 6” over the window sill.
The recommended distance of the tip from the objective is 2” to 6”.
In case of rescue, use the 2” positioning so that the ladder will rest against the window sill after weight is put on it.
At a very extreme angle, e.g., placing the ladder to the roof of a seven story building, allow the ladder to barely touch the building.
Lad 2 3.1.5, 3.1.6