Which of the following would be the most likely benefit provided by parenteral glucocorticoids in a 30-year-old asthmatic woman who was brought to the emergency department witha severe asthma exacerbation?
The patient’s forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) did not improve upon administration of inhaled albuterol, and the attending physician decided to administer parenteral triamcinolone.
Increased bronchial responsiveness to albuterol
Systemic corticosteroids are given in cases of severe asthma exacerbation for two main reasons: • They improve the responsiveness of β2 receptors. • They inhibit many phases of the inflammatory responses. The antiinflammatory activity of corticosteroids is delayed for 4 to 6 hours after administration. However, the restoration of responsiveness to endogenous catecholamines, as well as to exogenous β2 agonists, occurs within 1 hour of glucocorticoid administration in severe chronic asthmatics. This restoration is therefore the main potential bene t of intravenous administration of corticosteroids to a patient with severe asthma exacerbation under treatment with β2 agonists.
A patient with congestive heart failure is treated with furosemide, which can cause metabolic alkalosis.
Acetazolamide is added to counteract this alkalosis.Which molecular action mediates the therapeutic effect of acetazolamide?
Why does furosemide cause metabolic alkalosis?
Loop diuretics:
Increase Na⁺ delivery to distal nephron
Increase H⁺ secretion
Increase HCO₃⁻ retention
➡️ Metabolic alkalosis
What is acetazolamide?
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
Site of action: 👉 Proximal tubule
کربنیک انهیدراز این واکنش را تسریع میکند:
CO₂ + H₂O ⇌ H₂CO₃ ⇌ H⁺ + HCO₃⁻
این واکنش:
داخل سلول توبولی
و داخل لومن توبول
انجام میشود.
با مهار کربنیک انهیدراز:
تشکیل اسیدکربنیک کم میشود
ترشح H⁺ کم میشود
بازجذب بیکربنات کم میشود
بیکربنات در ادرار دفع میشود
➡️ اسیدوز متابولیک
و دقیقاً به همین دلیل برای اصلاح آلکالوز استفاده میشود
Inhibition of carbonic acid dehydration in the tubular lumen
This directly:
Prevents HCO₃⁻ reabsorption
Lowers serum bicarbonate
Corrects metabolic alkalosis
Which of the following molecular actions
would most likely mediate the therapeutic effect of
acetazolamide which was added to counteract the potential metabolic alkalosis induced by
furosemide in a 60-y.o. woman with recently diagnosed congestive heart failure?
Inhibition of carbonic acid dehydration in the tubular lumen
Which description is true when fever is beyond limits and thermoregulation has failed?
Hyperthermia
Fever, high fever, pyrexia and hyperpyrexia is a fever without failing of thermoregulation,” and only when the question specifies “fever is beyond limits and thermoregulation has failed” is hyperthermia the correct description.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding acute rheumatic fever?
I. Treat all patients who have acute rheumatic fever with benzathine penicillin
II. Most common major manifestation is subcutaneous nodules
III. Aspirin is not effective for arthritis
IV. Prolonged P‑R interval is minor
Correct answer: I, IV.
In every patient with acute rheumatic fever (ARF), eradication of group A streptococcal pharyngitis is indicated, even if the throat culture is now negative; guidelines recommend a single IM dose of benzathine benzylpenicillin or an equivalent oral regimen, followed by long‑term secondary prophylaxis (e.g., an injection every 3–4 weeks) to prevent recurrences. Thus, the statement “Treat all patients who have acute rheumatic fever with benzathine penicillin” is correct.
According to the revised Jones criteria, a prolonged PR interval on ECG is one of the minor manifestations of ARF, grouped with fever, arthralgia, and elevated ESR/CRP, whereas major manifestations are carditis, migratory polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, and subcutaneous nodules. Therefore, the statement “Prolonged P‑R interval is minor manifestation” is exactly what the guideline tables show.
In ARF, the most common major manifestation is migratory polyarthritis, followed by carditis; the cutaneous manifestations subcutaneous nodules and erythema marginatum are much less frequent (subcutaneous nodules usually <10% of cases). Hence the statement “Most common major manifestation is subcutaneous nodules” contradicts the actual epidemiology of ARF and is incorrect.
Arthritis in ARF typically shows a dramatic response to high‑dose NSAIDs (classically salicylates/aspirin, now often naproxen or ibuprofen), with fever and joint pain resolving within 24–72 hours. Guidelines still describe aspirin or other NSAIDs as effective symptomatic therapy for rheumatic arthritis, although some recommend naproxen/ibuprofen first line and aspirin second line due to safety concerns. Therefore, the statement “Aspirin is not effective for arthritis” is clearly false.
Which one is a predisposing factor for pulmonary embolism?
Options:
●COPD
●ARDS
●Cerebrovascular event
●Diabetes mellitus
●Arrhythmia
Correct keyed answer: Cerebrovascular event.
امبولی ریه یعنی انسداد ناگهانی یکی از شریانهای ریوی بهوسیلهٔ یک آمبولوس (معمولاً لختهٔ خون) که از جای دیگری در بدن، اغلب از DVT در وریدهای عمقی ساق یا لگن، کَنده شده و به ریه رسیده است؛ این انسداد جریان خون ریوی را کم میکند، نسبت V/Q را بههم میزند، فشار شریان ریوی را بالا میبرد و میتواند باعث نارسایی حاد بطن راست و مرگ ناگهانی شود.
Pulmonary embolism is an acute obstruction of a pulmonary artery by an embolus (usually a blood clot) that has formed elsewhere in the body, most often a DVT in the deep veins of the legs or pelvis, and then traveled to the lungs; this blockage reduces pulmonary blood flow, disrupts the V/Q ratio, increases pulmonary artery pressure, and may cause acute right‑ventricular failure and sudden death.
بیماران دچار سکتهٔ مغزی (cerebrovascular event) معمولاً دچار فلج اندامها و بیحرکتی طولانیمدت میشوند؛ این وضعیت مستقیماً یکی از اضلاع Virchow triad یعنی stasis of blood flow را فعال میکند و ریسک DVT و در ادامه pulmonary embolism را بهشدت بالا میبرد، بهطوریکه در گایدلاینها سکتهٔ مغزی بهطور کلاسیک در لیست ریسکفاکتورهای VTE و در توصیه به ترومبوپروفیلاکسی آمده است.
Patients with a cerebrovascular event (stroke) typically have limb paresis and prolonged immobility; this directly activates one component of Virchow’s triad, stasis of blood flow, markedly increasing the risk of DVT and subsequent pulmonary embolism, which is why stroke is a classic listed risk factor for VTE and an indication for pharmacologic thromboprophylaxis in guidelines.
Which of the following can a physician use to decide on the treatment for lung cancer?
The stage and histologic type
Which of the following is not a component of sepsis management?
Mechanical Ventilation
/fluid resuscitation
/source control
/Antibiotics
/Vasopressors /
Which one is a characteristic sign of COPD?
Barrel chest
A cough has three sequential phases:
Inspiratory phase
Compressive phase
Expulsive phase
A cough has three sequential phases:
Inspiratory phase
Compressive phase
Expulsive phase
What happens in the inspiratory phase?
A deep inspiration occurs:
Inspiratory muscles contract
Glottis is open
Lung volume increases
در فاز دَمی:
عضلات دمی منقبض میشوند
گلوت باز است
حجم ریه افزایش مییابد
During the compressive phase:
Glottis closes
Expiratory muscles contract
Intrathoracic pressure rises sharply
This pressure buildup is essential for an effective cough.
در فاز فشاری (Compressive):
گلوت بسته میشود
عضلات بازدمی منقبض میشوند
فشار داخل قفسه سینه بهشدت بالا میرود
این افزایش فشار برای سرفهٔ مؤثر ضروری است.
Because if the glottis were open:
Air would escape
Pressure would not build up
Cough would be weak
What happens in the expulsive phase?
Glottis suddenly opens
High-pressure air is expelled
Mucus and particles are cleared
در فاز پرتابی:
گلوت ناگهانی باز میشود
هوا با فشار زیاد خارج میشود
ترشحات و ذرات دفع میشوند
Which of the following molecular actions on bronchial smooth muscle most likely contributed to the bronchodilating effect of theophylline in a 55‑year‑old man with COPD admitted for an acute exacerbation?
”Medications on admission:
inhaled ipratropium and oral theophylline.
Options:
□Activation of β2 adrenoceptors
□Stimulation of nitric oxide (NO) release
□Inhibition of phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4)
□Activation of adenosine receptors
□Inhibition of catecholamine releaseCorrect
answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4).
Theophylline is a methylxanthine that non‑selectively inhibits phosphodiesterases (especially PDE3 and PDE4); PDE inhibition slows the breakdown of cAMP in airway smooth‑muscle cells, leading to increased cAMP, activation of PKA, altered phosphorylation of myosin and calcium channels, decreased intracellular calcium, and relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle. In the airways, PDE4 is the key cAMP‑degrading isoenzyme, so inhibition of PDE4 (by theophylline or selective drugs like roflumilast) is a classic exam mechanism for bronchodilation in COPD and asthma.
برای هر سؤال امتحانی دربارهٔ تئوفیلین این سه محور را در ذهن داشته باش:
۱) Inhibition of PDE3/4 → ↑cAMP → bronchodilation (مکانیسم اصلی در عضلهٔ صاف).
۲) Adenosine receptor antagonism (جزء مهم در عوارض قلبی–CNS و کمی در bronchodilation، ولی همیشه بهصورت «antagonist»، نه activation).
۳) Stimulation of catecholamine release و اثرات anti‑inflammatory (HDAC activation) در دوزهای پایین. هر گزینهای که خلاف این سه محور باشد، مثل «activation of adenosine receptors» یا «inhibition of catecholamine release»، تقریباً حتماً دام سؤال است
For any exam question on theophylline, keep these three pillars in mind:Inhibition of PDE3/4 → ↑cAMP → bronchodilation (the main effect in airway smooth muscle).Adenosine receptor antagonism (important for cardiac/CNS side‑effects and some bronchodilation, but always as an antagonist, never activation).Stimulation of catecholamine release and anti‑inflammatory effects (HDAC activation) at lower doses. Any option contradicting these, such as “activation of adenosine receptors” or “inhibition of catecholamine release,” is almost certainly a trap.
A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a traffic accident with chest trauma.
He has shortness of breath, central cyanosis, and an SpO₂ of 80%.
On chest auscultation, breath sounds are markedly decreased in the right hemithorax.
He is hypotensive (BP 70/40 mmHg) and his arterial blood gas shows a lactate level of 6 mmol/L.
What are the most likely clinical diagnosis and the type of hypoxia in this patient?
Chest trauma + unilateral absent breath sounds + hypotension = obstructive shock (tension pneumothorax) → hypoxic hypoxia
Key clues:
Chest trauma
Unilateral decreased breath sounds
Severe hypotension
Signs of shock (high lactate)
This strongly suggests a tension pneumothorax, which causes:
Compression of lung
Reduced venous return
Decreased cardiac output
➡️ This is obstructive shock.
SpO₂ = 80% + central cyanosis
→ Oxygen is not adequately entering the blood
The primary problem is impaired ventilation of the lung.
That defines hypoxic hypoxia.
🧠 ULTRA-HIGH-YIELD MEMORY LINE
Ventilation problem → Hypoxic
Circulation problem → Stagnant
Hemoglobin problem → Anemic
Cellular metabolism problem → Histotoxic
🔑 10-SECOND EXAM ALGORITHM
1️⃣ Is PaO₂ / SpO₂ low?
→ YES → Hypoxic hypoxia
2️⃣ PaO₂ normal but low flow?
→ Stagnant hypoxia
3️⃣ Hb problem?
→ Anemic hypoxia
4️⃣ Oxygen present but cells fail?
→ Histotoxic hypoxia
A 65-year-old man with a 40 pack-year smoking history presents with progressive dyspnea, persistent cough, and unintentional weight loss over 3 months.
On examination, he has left-sided ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis, and reports proximal muscle weakness that improves with repeated use.
Chest imaging shows a large central hilar mass with mediastinal widening and lymphadenopathy.
Biopsy reveals small round hyperchromatic cells with scant cytoplasm, high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, frequent mitoses, and immunohistochemistry positive for chromogranin, synaptophysin, and CD56.
Which of the following features are characteristic of the patient’s most likely diagnosis?
مردی ۶۵ ساله با سابقه سیگار ۴۰ پاک-سال با تنگی نفس پیشرونده، سرفه مداوم و کاهش وزن ناخواسته مراجعه میکند.
در معاینه پتوز، میوز و آنهیدروز سمت چپ دارد و از ضعف عضلانی که با استفاده مکرر بهتر میشود شکایت دارد.
تصویربرداری قفسه سینه توده بزرگ مرکزی در ناف ریه با گشادشدن مدیاستن و لنفادنوپاتی را نشان میدهد.
بیوپسی شامل سلولهای کوچک با سیتوپلاسم کم، نسبت هسته به سیتوپلاسم بالا، میتوزهای زیاد است و IHC برای chromogranin، synaptophysin و CD56 مثبت است.
Question:
“Which of the following features are characteristic of the patient’s most likely diagnosis? (Choose as many as required)”Clinical vignette: 65‑year‑old man, 40 pack‑year smoking history, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, left‑sided ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis (Horner syndrome), episodic muscle weakness (paraneoplastic), large hilar mass with mediastinal nodes; biopsy: sheets of small round hyperchromatic cells with scant cytoplasm, high N/C ratio, numerous mitoses; IHC positive for chromogranin, synaptophysin, CD56.
Options:
It is characterized by high mitotic activity and early metastasis.
Surgery is the first‑line treatment for patients with limited‑stage disease.
The tumor is strongly associated with smoking.
The prognosis is generally favorable due to its high responsiveness to chemotherapy and radiation.
They tend to grow near the central airways of the lungs.
Correct answers (multiple):
It is characterized by high mitotic activity and early metastasis.
The tumor is strongly associated with smoking.
They tend to grow near the central airways of the lungs.
Most likely diagnosis: Small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC).
For exam purposes, link these three features to SCLC:Central, smoking‑related, neuroendocrine: central hilar mass in a heavy smoker, neuroendocrine markers (chromogranin, synaptophysin, CD56), often with paraneoplastic syndromes (SIADH, Cushing, Lambert–Eaton).“Small but deadly”: small cells with numerous mitoses, necrosis, early widespread metastasis, and poor prognosis.Chemo‑sensitive but rarely curable: responds dramatically to chemoradiation yet relapses quickly; thus any option claiming “good / favorable prognosis” or “surgery is first‑line” is almost certainly wrong.
NSCLC stands for Non‑Small Cell Lung Cancer; it is a broad term for all primary epithelial lung cancers that are not small‑cell. The three main subtypes are adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and large cell carcinoma, together accounting for about 85% of lung cancers; compared with SCLC, they usually grow more slowly with somewhat better prognosis, and early‑stage disease is often managed primarily with surgery.
A diagnosis of pediatric acute bacterial sinusitis, which shows no signs and symptoms of complications, should be based on:
A detailed clinical history and physical examination
A diagnosis of pediatric acute bacterial sinusitis, which shows no signs and symptoms of complications, should be based on a detailed clinical history and physical examination.
Laboratory investigations and imaging studies are not indicated in case of uncomplicated acute bacterial sinusitis in children. These further investigations are used to diagnose the complications of sinusitis.
27-year-old refugee man complains of a cough for the past month. The cough is productive of several tablespoons of blood streaked sputum every day. The sputum is not foul-smelling. He lost 10 kgs and he is not eating regularly. On the physical examination; he has a fever of 39℃, coarse rales are heard in the apex of the lung. The acid-fast stain of the sputum showed acid-fast rods. Culture of the sputum does not show growth at 7 days; but buff-colored colonies appear at 21 days. Which of the following pathogens is most likely to be the cause of this infection?
The case indicates M. tuberculosis.
Which of the following is the most common risk factor for acute otitis media in children?
Preceding upper respiratory tract infection
The most common risk factor for acute otitis media in children is a preceding upper respiratory tract infection. These are also risk factors for acute otitis media in children, however not as common as a preceding upper respiratory tract infection.
Which of the following may be a clinical consequence of chest wall disorders?
Restrictive lung disease
clinical manifestation of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
Obstructive lung disease in smoking young adults
Liver failure in infancy
Bronchiectasis in young adults
Jaundice and cholestasis in infants
Which one of the following features regarding supraglottic and glottic larynx carcinoma are correct? (Choose as many as required)
Glottic carcinomas are mostly diagnosed at an earlier stage than the supraglottic ones .
Glottic carcinomas are symptomatic earlier than the supraglottic ones.
Sore throat, dysphagia and hemoptysis can be the accompanying symptoms for both.
Voice changes in glottic carcinomas are expected to be seen earlier than the supraglottic ones because of the closeness to the vocal cords.
Which of the following macroscopic features most likely favor the diagnosis of bronchiectasis? (Choose as many as required)
●The bronchi/ bronchioles can be followed up to the pleural surface.
●Dilated bronchi in cystic appearance on the cut surface
Bronchiectasis is a disorder in which destruction of smooth muscle and elastic tissue by chronic necrotizing infections leads to permanent dilation of bronchi and bronchioles. Bronchiectasis usually affects the lower lobes bilaterally. The airways are dilated, sometimes up to four times normal size. Characteristically, the bronchi and bronchioles are so dilated that they can be followed almost to the pleural surfaces. By contrast, in the normal lung, the bronchioles cannot be followed by eye beyond a point 2 to 3 cm from the pleural surfaces. On the cut surface of the lung, the dilated bronchi appear cystic and are filled with mucopurulent secretions
chronic cough vs acute cough.
chronic cough=
♡COPD ♡Asthma ♡Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis♡Bronchiectasis
Bacterial pneumonia is a cause of acute cough.
Which of the following risk factors are correct for asthma etiopathogenesis? (Cho ose as many as required)
●Occupation●Obesity●Atopy/♡A hereditary disorder marked by the tendency to develop localized immediate hypersensitivity reactions to allergens such as pollen, food etc and is manifested by hay fever, asthma, or similar allergic conditions; generally considered to be caused by the interaction of environmental and genetic factors.