Lung Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following would be the most likely benefit provided by parenteral glucocorticoids in a 30-year-old asthmatic woman who was brought to the emergency department witha severe asthma exacerbation?
The patient’s forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) did not improve upon administration of inhaled albuterol, and the attending physician decided to administer parenteral triamcinolone.

A

Increased bronchial responsiveness to albuterol
Systemic corticosteroids are given in cases of severe asthma exacerbation for two main reasons: • They improve the responsiveness of β2 receptors. • They inhibit many phases of the inflammatory responses. The antiinflammatory activity of corticosteroids is delayed for 4 to 6 hours after administration. However, the restoration of responsiveness to endogenous catecholamines, as well as to exogenous β2 agonists, occurs within 1 hour of glucocorticoid administration in severe chronic asthmatics. This restoration is therefore the main potential bene t of intravenous administration of corticosteroids to a patient with severe asthma exacerbation under treatment with β2 agonists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A patient with congestive heart failure is treated with furosemide, which can cause metabolic alkalosis.
Acetazolamide is added to counteract this alkalosis.Which molecular action mediates the therapeutic effect of acetazolamide?

A

Why does furosemide cause metabolic alkalosis?
Loop diuretics:
Increase Na⁺ delivery to distal nephron
Increase H⁺ secretion
Increase HCO₃⁻ retention
➡️ Metabolic alkalosis

What is acetazolamide?
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
Site of action: 👉 Proximal tubule
کربنیک انهیدراز این واکنش را تسریع می‌کند:
CO₂ + H₂O ⇌ H₂CO₃ ⇌ H⁺ + HCO₃⁻
این واکنش:
داخل سلول توبولی
و داخل لومن توبول
انجام می‌شود.
با مهار کربنیک انهیدراز:
تشکیل اسیدکربنیک کم می‌شود
ترشح H⁺ کم می‌شود
بازجذب بی‌کربنات کم می‌شود
بی‌کربنات در ادرار دفع می‌شود
➡️ اسیدوز متابولیک
و دقیقاً به همین دلیل برای اصلاح آلکالوز استفاده می‌شود
Inhibition of carbonic acid dehydration in the tubular lumen
This directly:
Prevents HCO₃⁻ reabsorption
Lowers serum bicarbonate
Corrects metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following molecular actions
would most likely mediate the therapeutic effect of
acetazolamide which was added to counteract the potential metabolic alkalosis induced by
furosemide in a 60-y.o. woman with recently diagnosed congestive heart failure?

A

Inhibition of carbonic acid dehydration in the tubular lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which description is true when fever is beyond limits and thermoregulation has failed?

A

Hyperthermia

Fever, high fever, pyrexia and hyperpyrexia is a fever without failing of thermoregulation,” and only when the question specifies “fever is beyond limits and thermoregulation has failed” is hyperthermia the correct description.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following statements are correct regarding acute rheumatic fever?

I. Treat all patients who have acute rheumatic fever with benzathine penicillin
II. Most common major manifestation is subcutaneous nodules
III. Aspirin is not effective for arthritis
IV. Prolonged P‑R interval is minor

A

Correct answer: I, IV.
In every patient with acute rheumatic fever (ARF), eradication of group A streptococcal pharyngitis is indicated, even if the throat culture is now negative; guidelines recommend a single IM dose of benzathine benzylpenicillin or an equivalent oral regimen, followed by long‑term secondary prophylaxis (e.g., an injection every 3–4 weeks) to prevent recurrences. Thus, the statement “Treat all patients who have acute rheumatic fever with benzathine penicillin” is correct.

According to the revised Jones criteria, a prolonged PR interval on ECG is one of the minor manifestations of ARF, grouped with fever, arthralgia, and elevated ESR/CRP, whereas major manifestations are carditis, migratory polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, and subcutaneous nodules. Therefore, the statement “Prolonged P‑R interval is minor manifestation” is exactly what the guideline tables show.

In ARF, the most common major manifestation is migratory polyarthritis, followed by carditis; the cutaneous manifestations subcutaneous nodules and erythema marginatum are much less frequent (subcutaneous nodules usually <10% of cases). Hence the statement “Most common major manifestation is subcutaneous nodules” contradicts the actual epidemiology of ARF and is incorrect.

Arthritis in ARF typically shows a dramatic response to high‑dose NSAIDs (classically salicylates/aspirin, now often naproxen or ibuprofen), with fever and joint pain resolving within 24–72 hours. Guidelines still describe aspirin or other NSAIDs as effective symptomatic therapy for rheumatic arthritis, although some recommend naproxen/ibuprofen first line and aspirin second line due to safety concerns. Therefore, the statement “Aspirin is not effective for arthritis” is clearly false.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which one is a predisposing factor for pulmonary embolism?
Options:
●COPD
●ARDS
●Cerebrovascular event
●Diabetes mellitus
●Arrhythmia

A

Correct keyed answer: Cerebrovascular event.
امبولی ریه یعنی انسداد ناگهانی یکی از شریان‌های ریوی به‌وسیلهٔ یک آمبولوس (معمولاً لختهٔ خون) که از جای دیگری در بدن، اغلب از DVT در وریدهای عمقی ساق یا لگن، کَنده شده و به ریه رسیده است؛ این انسداد جریان خون ریوی را کم می‌کند، نسبت V/Q را به‌هم می‌زند، فشار شریان ریوی را بالا می‌برد و می‌تواند باعث نارسایی حاد بطن راست و مرگ ناگهانی شود.
Pulmonary embolism is an acute obstruction of a pulmonary artery by an embolus (usually a blood clot) that has formed elsewhere in the body, most often a DVT in the deep veins of the legs or pelvis, and then traveled to the lungs; this blockage reduces pulmonary blood flow, disrupts the V/Q ratio, increases pulmonary artery pressure, and may cause acute right‑ventricular failure and sudden death.

بیماران دچار سکتهٔ مغزی (cerebrovascular event) معمولاً دچار فلج اندام‌ها و بی‌حرکتی طولانی‌مدت می‌شوند؛ این وضعیت مستقیماً یکی از اضلاع Virchow triad یعنی stasis of blood flow را فعال می‌کند و ریسک DVT و در ادامه pulmonary embolism را به‌شدت بالا می‌برد، به‌طوری‌که در گایدلاین‌ها سکتهٔ مغزی به‌طور کلاسیک در لیست ریسک‌فاکتورهای VTE و در توصیه به ترومبوپروفیلاکسی آمده است.
Patients with a cerebrovascular event (stroke) typically have limb paresis and prolonged immobility; this directly activates one component of Virchow’s triad, stasis of blood flow, markedly increasing the risk of DVT and subsequent pulmonary embolism, which is why stroke is a classic listed risk factor for VTE and an indication for pharmacologic thromboprophylaxis in guidelines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following can a physician use to decide on the treatment for lung cancer?

A

The stage and histologic type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is not a component of sepsis management?

A

Mechanical Ventilation

/fluid resuscitation
/source control
/Antibiotics
/Vasopressors /

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which one is a characteristic sign of COPD?

A

Barrel chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A cough has three sequential phases:

A

Inspiratory phase
Compressive phase
Expulsive phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A cough has three sequential phases:
Inspiratory phase
Compressive phase
Expulsive phase

A

What happens in the inspiratory phase?
A deep inspiration occurs:
Inspiratory muscles contract
Glottis is open
Lung volume increases
در فاز دَمی:
عضلات دمی منقبض می‌شوند
گلوت باز است
حجم ریه افزایش می‌یابد

During the compressive phase:
Glottis closes
Expiratory muscles contract
Intrathoracic pressure rises sharply
This pressure buildup is essential for an effective cough.
در فاز فشاری (Compressive):
گلوت بسته می‌شود
عضلات بازدمی منقبض می‌شوند
فشار داخل قفسه سینه به‌شدت بالا می‌رود
این افزایش فشار برای سرفهٔ مؤثر ضروری است.

Because if the glottis were open:
Air would escape
Pressure would not build up
Cough would be weak

What happens in the expulsive phase?
Glottis suddenly opens
High-pressure air is expelled
Mucus and particles are cleared

در فاز پرتابی:
گلوت ناگهانی باز می‌شود
هوا با فشار زیاد خارج می‌شود
ترشحات و ذرات دفع می‌شوند

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following molecular actions on bronchial smooth muscle most likely contributed to the bronchodilating effect of theophylline in a 55‑year‑old man with COPD admitted for an acute exacerbation?
”Medications on admission:
inhaled ipratropium and oral theophylline.
Options:
□Activation of β2 adrenoceptors
□Stimulation of nitric oxide (NO) release
□Inhibition of phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4)
□Activation of adenosine receptors
□Inhibition of catecholamine releaseCorrect

A

answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4).

Theophylline is a methylxanthine that non‑selectively inhibits phosphodiesterases (especially PDE3 and PDE4); PDE inhibition slows the breakdown of cAMP in airway smooth‑muscle cells, leading to increased cAMP, activation of PKA, altered phosphorylation of myosin and calcium channels, decreased intracellular calcium, and relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle. In the airways, PDE4 is the key cAMP‑degrading isoenzyme, so inhibition of PDE4 (by theophylline or selective drugs like roflumilast) is a classic exam mechanism for bronchodilation in COPD and asthma.

برای هر سؤال امتحانی دربارهٔ تئوفیلین این سه محور را در ذهن داشته باش:
۱) Inhibition of PDE3/4 → ↑cAMP → bronchodilation (مکانیسم اصلی در عضلهٔ صاف).
۲) Adenosine receptor antagonism (جزء مهم در عوارض قلبی–CNS و کمی در bronchodilation، ولی همیشه به‌صورت «antagonist»، نه activation).
۳) Stimulation of catecholamine release و اثرات anti‑inflammatory (HDAC activation) در دوزهای پایین. هر گزینه‌ای که خلاف این سه محور باشد، مثل «activation of adenosine receptors» یا «inhibition of catecholamine release»، تقریباً حتماً دام سؤال است

For any exam question on theophylline, keep these three pillars in mind:Inhibition of PDE3/4 → ↑cAMP → bronchodilation (the main effect in airway smooth muscle).Adenosine receptor antagonism (important for cardiac/CNS side‑effects and some bronchodilation, but always as an antagonist, never activation).Stimulation of catecholamine release and anti‑inflammatory effects (HDAC activation) at lower doses. Any option contradicting these, such as “activation of adenosine receptors” or “inhibition of catecholamine release,” is almost certainly a trap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a traffic accident with chest trauma.
He has shortness of breath, central cyanosis, and an SpO₂ of 80%.
On chest auscultation, breath sounds are markedly decreased in the right hemithorax.
He is hypotensive (BP 70/40 mmHg) and his arterial blood gas shows a lactate level of 6 mmol/L.
What are the most likely clinical diagnosis and the type of hypoxia in this patient?

A

Chest trauma + unilateral absent breath sounds + hypotension = obstructive shock (tension pneumothorax) → hypoxic hypoxia

Key clues:
Chest trauma
Unilateral decreased breath sounds
Severe hypotension
Signs of shock (high lactate)
This strongly suggests a tension pneumothorax, which causes:
Compression of lung
Reduced venous return
Decreased cardiac output
➡️ This is obstructive shock.

SpO₂ = 80% + central cyanosis
→ Oxygen is not adequately entering the blood
The primary problem is impaired ventilation of the lung.
That defines hypoxic hypoxia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

🧠 ULTRA-HIGH-YIELD MEMORY LINE
Ventilation problem → Hypoxic
Circulation problem → Stagnant
Hemoglobin problem → Anemic
Cellular metabolism problem → Histotoxic

A

🔑 10-SECOND EXAM ALGORITHM
1️⃣ Is PaO₂ / SpO₂ low?
→ YES → Hypoxic hypoxia
2️⃣ PaO₂ normal but low flow?
→ Stagnant hypoxia
3️⃣ Hb problem?
→ Anemic hypoxia
4️⃣ Oxygen present but cells fail?
→ Histotoxic hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A 65-year-old man with a 40 pack-year smoking history presents with progressive dyspnea, persistent cough, and unintentional weight loss over 3 months.
On examination, he has left-sided ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis, and reports proximal muscle weakness that improves with repeated use.
Chest imaging shows a large central hilar mass with mediastinal widening and lymphadenopathy.
Biopsy reveals small round hyperchromatic cells with scant cytoplasm, high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, frequent mitoses, and immunohistochemistry positive for chromogranin, synaptophysin, and CD56.
Which of the following features are characteristic of the patient’s most likely diagnosis?
مردی ۶۵ ساله با سابقه سیگار ۴۰ پاک-سال با تنگی نفس پیشرونده، سرفه مداوم و کاهش وزن ناخواسته مراجعه می‌کند.
در معاینه پتوز، میوز و آنهیدروز سمت چپ دارد و از ضعف عضلانی که با استفاده مکرر بهتر می‌شود شکایت دارد.
تصویربرداری قفسه سینه توده بزرگ مرکزی در ناف ریه با گشادشدن مدیاستن و لنفادنوپاتی را نشان می‌دهد.
بیوپسی شامل سلول‌های کوچک با سیتوپلاسم کم، نسبت هسته به سیتوپلاسم بالا، میتوزهای زیاد است و IHC برای chromogranin، synaptophysin و CD56 مثبت است.

A

Question:
“Which of the following features are characteristic of the patient’s most likely diagnosis? (Choose as many as required)”Clinical vignette: 65‑year‑old man, 40 pack‑year smoking history, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, left‑sided ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis (Horner syndrome), episodic muscle weakness (paraneoplastic), large hilar mass with mediastinal nodes; biopsy: sheets of small round hyperchromatic cells with scant cytoplasm, high N/C ratio, numerous mitoses; IHC positive for chromogranin, synaptophysin, CD56.
Options:
It is characterized by high mitotic activity and early metastasis.
Surgery is the first‑line treatment for patients with limited‑stage disease.
The tumor is strongly associated with smoking.
The prognosis is generally favorable due to its high responsiveness to chemotherapy and radiation.
They tend to grow near the central airways of the lungs.
Correct answers (multiple):
It is characterized by high mitotic activity and early metastasis.
The tumor is strongly associated with smoking.
They tend to grow near the central airways of the lungs.
Most likely diagnosis: Small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC).

For exam purposes, link these three features to SCLC:Central, smoking‑related, neuroendocrine: central hilar mass in a heavy smoker, neuroendocrine markers (chromogranin, synaptophysin, CD56), often with paraneoplastic syndromes (SIADH, Cushing, Lambert–Eaton).“Small but deadly”: small cells with numerous mitoses, necrosis, early widespread metastasis, and poor prognosis.Chemo‑sensitive but rarely curable: responds dramatically to chemoradiation yet relapses quickly; thus any option claiming “good / favorable prognosis” or “surgery is first‑line” is almost certainly wrong.

NSCLC stands for Non‑Small Cell Lung Cancer; it is a broad term for all primary epithelial lung cancers that are not small‑cell. The three main subtypes are adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and large cell carcinoma, together accounting for about 85% of lung cancers; compared with SCLC, they usually grow more slowly with somewhat better prognosis, and early‑stage disease is often managed primarily with surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A diagnosis of pediatric acute bacterial sinusitis, which shows no signs and symptoms of complications, should be based on:

A

A detailed clinical history and physical examination

A diagnosis of pediatric acute bacterial sinusitis, which shows no signs and symptoms of complications, should be based on a detailed clinical history and physical examination.
Laboratory investigations and imaging studies are not indicated in case of uncomplicated acute bacterial sinusitis in children. These further investigations are used to diagnose the complications of sinusitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

27-year-old refugee man complains of a cough for the past month. The cough is productive of several tablespoons of blood streaked sputum every day. The sputum is not foul-smelling. He lost 10 kgs and he is not eating regularly. On the physical examination; he has a fever of 39℃, coarse rales are heard in the apex of the lung. The acid-fast stain of the sputum showed acid-fast rods. Culture of the sputum does not show growth at 7 days; but buff-colored colonies appear at 21 days. Which of the following pathogens is most likely to be the cause of this infection?

A

The case indicates M. tuberculosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is the most common risk factor for acute otitis media in children?

A

Preceding upper respiratory tract infection

The most common risk factor for acute otitis media in children is a preceding upper respiratory tract infection. These are also risk factors for acute otitis media in children, however not as common as a preceding upper respiratory tract infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following may be a clinical consequence of chest wall disorders?

A

Restrictive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

clinical manifestation of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Obstructive lung disease in smoking young adults
Liver failure in infancy
Bronchiectasis in young adults
Jaundice and cholestasis in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which one of the following features regarding supraglottic and glottic larynx carcinoma are correct? (Choose as many as required)

A

Glottic carcinomas are mostly diagnosed at an earlier stage than the supraglottic ones .
Glottic carcinomas are symptomatic earlier than the supraglottic ones.
Sore throat, dysphagia and hemoptysis can be the accompanying symptoms for both.
Voice changes in glottic carcinomas are expected to be seen earlier than the supraglottic ones because of the closeness to the vocal cords.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following macroscopic features most likely favor the diagnosis of bronchiectasis? (Choose as many as required)

A

●The bronchi/ bronchioles can be followed up to the pleural surface.
●Dilated bronchi in cystic appearance on the cut surface
Bronchiectasis is a disorder in which destruction of smooth muscle and elastic tissue by chronic necrotizing infections leads to permanent dilation of bronchi and bronchioles. Bronchiectasis usually affects the lower lobes bilaterally. The airways are dilated, sometimes up to four times normal size. Characteristically, the bronchi and bronchioles are so dilated that they can be followed almost to the pleural surfaces. By contrast, in the normal lung, the bronchioles cannot be followed by eye beyond a point 2 to 3 cm from the pleural surfaces. On the cut surface of the lung, the dilated bronchi appear cystic and are filled with mucopurulent secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

chronic cough vs acute cough.

A

chronic cough=
♡COPD ♡Asthma ♡Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis♡Bronchiectasis

Bacterial pneumonia is a cause of acute cough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following risk factors are correct for asthma etiopathogenesis? (Cho ose as many as required)

A

●Occupation●Obesity●Atopy/♡A hereditary disorder marked by the tendency to develop localized immediate hypersensitivity reactions to allergens such as pollen, food etc and is manifested by hay fever, asthma, or similar allergic conditions; generally considered to be caused by the interaction of environmental and genetic factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which of the following may have infection in the absence of fever? (Choose as many as required)
●Patients receiving glucocorticoid therapy #Steroids suppressمهار می‌کنند.: Cytokine synthesis Prostaglandins Hypothalamic response ●Newborns#Neonates have: Immature immune system Poor thermoregulation Infections often present with hypothermia or normal temperature ●Elderly patients#Aging → immunosenescence → reduced cytokine response → blunted fever ●Patients with renal failure#Uremia → immune dysfunction → altered febrile response. ●Patients with liver failure#Liver failure → impaired acute phase response and cytokine metabolism. ●Patients receiving anti-TNF alpha therapy *Fever requires: Functional immune cells Cytokine production (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-α) Prostaglandin E₂ production in hypothalamus If any part of this pathway is impaired → no fever.
26
Which of the following signs/symptoms are related to pulmonary embolism? (Choose as many as required)
☆Homan's sign☆Tachycardia☆Cyanosis☆Shock
27
Which of the following statements regarding respiratory function tests are correct? (Choose as many as required) ●*This tests whether you understand: Volumes vs flows Obstructive vs restrictive Muscle strength vs lung parenchyma DLCO physiology
✅ 1. Maximal expiratory pressure is decreased in neuromuscular diseases — CORRECT MEP measures expiratory muscle strength (abdominals + intercostals). In neuromuscular diseases (ALS, myasthenia, muscular dystrophy): Muscles are weak Pressure generation is reduced ✅ 2. FVC is decreased in restrictive lung diseases — CORRECT Restrictive diseases = ↓ lung compliance or expansion → Total lung volume ↓ → Forced vital capacity ↓ Examples: Pulmonary fibrosis Chest wall disease Neuromuscular disease ✅ 3. FEV1/FVC is decreased in obstructive lung diseases — CORRECT Obstructive disease = airflow limitation → FEV1 drops much more than FVC → Ratio decreases (<70%) Examples: COPD Asthma ✅ 4. DLCO is decreased in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis — CORRECT IPF: Thickened alveolar-capillary membrane Increased diffusion distance → ↓ CO diffusion → ↓ DLCO ❌ 5. DLCO is increased in emphysema — WRONG Emphysema: Destruction of alveolar walls ↓ Surface area for gas exchange ↓ Capillary bed → DLCO DECREASES DLCO increases only when: Surface area ↑ (e.g. polycythemia, pulmonary hemorrhage) One-line exam rules (حفظی) Restriction → FVC ↓ Obstruction → FEV1/FVC ↓ Parenchymal disease → DLCO ↓ Muscle disease → pressures ↓, DLCO normal
28
First: what is atelectasis? English Atelectasis = collapse of alveoli due to failure of lung expansion or loss of air. There are three major mechanistic types: Obstructive (resorptive) Compressive Cicatricial (contraction)
آتلکتازی یعنی فروریختن آلوئول‌ها به‌علت باز نشدن ریه یا از دست رفتن هوا. سه نوع اصلی دارد: انسدادی فشاری اسکاری / انقباضی (cicatricial) Inside the airway → obstructive Outside pressure → compressive Scar → cicatricial
29
Type 1: Obstructive (resorptive) atelectasis English Cause: airway obstruction Mechanism: Air cannot enter Existing air is absorbed Alveoli collapse Classic causes: Mucus plug Tumor Foreign body
Mucus plug → OBSTRUCTIVE atelectasis Inside the airway → obstructive Outside pressure → compressive Scar → cicatricial
30
Type 2: Compressive atelectasis English Cause: external pressure on lung Mechanism: Lung is physically compressed Alveoli cannot expand Classic causes: Pleural effusion Pneumothorax Hemothorax
Pleural effusion → compressive atelectasis Inside the airway → obstructive Outside pressure → compressive Scar → cicatricial
31
Type 3: Cicatricial (contraction) atelectasis English Cause: fibrosis and scarring Mechanism: Lung tissue is pulled and contracted Alveoli cannot expand permanently Classic causes: Tuberculosis sequelae Radiation Chronic interstitial lung disease
Tuberculous sequelae – cicatricial atelectasis Irradiation – cicatricial atelectasis Inside the airway → obstructive Outside pressure → compressive Scar → cicatricial
32
pH < 7.35 → Acidosis pH > 7.45 → Alkalosis Which value explains the pH change? pCO₂ ↑ → respiratory acidosis HCO₃⁻ ↓ → metabolic acidosis
🔹 pH English Normal pH = 7.35 – 7.45 🔹 pCO₂ (respiratory component) English Normal pCO₂ = 35 – 45 mmHg ↑ pCO₂ (>45) → Respiratory acidosis ↓ pCO₂ (<35) → Respiratory alkalosis 🔹 HCO₃⁻ (metabolic component) English Normal HCO₃⁻ = 22 – 26 mEq/L ↓ HCO₃⁻ (<22) → Metabolic acidosis ↑ HCO₃⁻ (>26) → Metabolic alkalosis 🔹 pO₂ (oxygenation – bonus) English Normal pO₂ = 80 – 100 mmHg
33
34
Fluoroquinolones can appear in both lists because PAE and PALE are two different phenomena and fluoroquinolones are capable of producing both:
A long post‑antibiotic effect (PAE): bacteria remain suppressed for hours even after drug levels fall below the MIC. A post‑antibiotic leukocyte enhancement (PALE): after exposure to the drug, bacteria become easier for neutrophils/macrophages to phagocytose and kill, so host immunity prolongs the effect even further.
35
Which histological type of lung cancer is peripherally located and have subtypes such as acinar, papillary, solid, and lepidic?
Adenocarcinoma ♧There are two types of peripherally located lung carcinomas: adenocarcinoma and large cell carcinoma. Adenocarcinoma has histologic subtypes as acinar, lepidic, papillary, micropapillary, solid.
36
Which of the following location is the most common area for epistaxis?Epistaxis = nosebleed.
Anteroinferior septum Most common epistaxis area is Kiesselbach’s plexus ( also known as Little's area ). This area is located anteroinferior septum. This area is an anastomosis of 5 arteries: anterior ethmoidal artery, posterior ethmoidal artery, sphenopalatine artery, greater palatine artery, and the septal branch of the superior labial artery. Kiesselbach’s plexus: Is superficial Has thin mucosa Contains a dense arterial anastomosis Is exposed to dry air, trauma (nose picking), inflammation So it bleeds easily. It is an anastomosis of 5 arteries: Anterior ethmoidal artery Posterior ethmoidal artery Sphenopalatine artery Greater palatine artery Septal branch of superior labial artery
37
Which of the following characteristics are more likely to be associated with chronic bronchitis (Choose as many as required)?
Chronic bronchitis = BLUE BLOATER English Hypoxemia → cyanosis CO₂ retention Productive cough Edema (cor pulmonale) Overweight #Overweight or obesity Crackles and wheezing Peripheral edema Cyanosis Chronic bronchitis is a long‑term inflammatory disease of the bronchi defined clinically as a productive cough with sputum on most days for at least 3 months per year, for 2 consecutive years, after excluding other causes. It is usually caused by chronic inhalation of irritants—especially cigarette smoke—which leads to mucus‑gland enlargement, goblet‑cell hyperplasia, and airway narrowing, and it represents one major phenotype of COPD (the classic “blue bloater”). Emphysema = PINK PUFFER English Hyperventilation Cachexia Barrel chest Decreased breath sounds Pink skin Emphysema is a chronic lung disease in which the air spaces beyond the terminal bronchioles (the alveoli and acini) become abnormally and permanently enlarged, and their walls are destroyed, without significant fibrosis. This loss of alveolar walls removes a huge area for gas exchange and destroys the elastic fibers that normally help small airways stay open during expiration, so the lungs become over‑inflated and it becomes progressively harder to breathe out.
38
Select the correct statement related to the preferred therapy for the treatment of asthma and COPD.
Administer sympathomimetic drugs to stimulate beta-2 ARs or anticholinergic drugs that decrease parasympathetic activity. ■Both asthma and COPD cause: Airway narrowing Increased bronchial smooth muscle tone So treatment must: Relax bronchial smooth muscle Reduce bronchoconstriction Two direct ways: 1#Stimulate β₂ receptors → bronchodilation 2#Block parasympathetic (muscarinic) tone → bronchodilation ✅ Sympathomimetics (β₂ agonists) OR anticholinergics English This is the shared first-line bronchodilator strategy: β₂ agonists → relax smooth muscle Anticholinergics → block vagal bronchoconstriction Used in: Asthma ✅ COPD ✅ If the question says “asthma AND COPD” → think BRONCHODILATORS Specifically: β₂ agonists Anticholinergics
39
pulmonary embolism (PE)
●Pulmonary hypertension occurs in severe PE cases ●Trauma is a risk factor for PE development ●PE is usually a recurrent disease ●Hereditary risk factors should be assessed especially in young PE cases with no other risk
40
Which of the following is not a criteria used to describe a solitary pulmonary nodule?
SPN is a radiologic definition, not a diagnosis. Definition: Single lesion ≤ 3 cm Rounded opacity Completely surrounded by lung parenchyma No atelectasis, no lymphadenopathy, no pleural effusion ●Should not be associated with atelectasis ●Should be less than 3 cm in diameter ●Should be single ●Should be intraparenchymal
41
Which of the following are among the features of squamous cell lung carcinoma (Choose as many as required)?
Tend to grow large airways of the lungs Association with smoking Symptoms often occur early due to obstruction in the airways Tumor is characterized by the presence of keratinization and/or intercellular bridges Small cell lung carcinomas tend to grow near the central airways of the lungs and tend to metastasize early. There is a high association with smoking. Tumor cells comprised of cells with finely granular nuclear chromatin which are known as salt and pepper chromatin. Adenocarcinomas tend to grow in periphery of the lungs therefore the first symptoms with these tumors may only include unintentional weight loss or shortness of breath. They show glandular differentiation or mucin production by the tumor cells. Squamous cell carcinomas tend to grow in large airways therefore symptoms often occur early due to obstruction in the airways that can lead to a cough or coughing up blood. Tumor is characterized by the presence of keratinization and/or intercellular bridges. The tumor also has association with smoking.
42
Which one of the following symptom means pain on swallowing
Odynophagia Odynophagia (pain on swallowing) Dysphagia (difficulty in swallowing) Dysphonia (Hoarseness) (difficulty with voice) Dyspnea (difficulty in breathing) Sore Throat (pain, scratchiness or irritation of the throat) Trismus (limitation in mouth opening)
43
Which type of acid-base disorder can occur in a patient with septic shock who has no ventilation/oxygenation disorder?Septic shock causes: Severe hypotension Systemic vasodilation Microcirculatory failure Tissue hypoperfusion → Cells switch to anaerobic metabolism → Lactate production increases
Types of lactic acidosis Type A Tissue hypoxia / hypoperfusion Type B Drugs, liver disease, malignancy Type D Short bowel, bacterial overgrowth Lactic acid ↑ → H⁺ ↑ → HCO₃⁻ consumed → Metabolic acidosis
44
Which of the following is not in line with the guiding principles of antibiotic use? سؤال می‌پرسد: 👉 کدام گزینه برخلاف اصول صحیح مصرف آنتی‌بیوتیک است؟
English – Core principles Treat infection, not colonization Obtain cultures before antibiotics if possible Start empiric therapy based on likely pathogens De-escalate to narrowest spectrum Avoid unnecessary antibiotics Asymptomatic bacteriuria = bacteria in urine without symptoms General rule: ❌ DO NOT treat Exceptions: ✔ Pregnancy ✔ Before urologic procedures with mucosal bleeding
45
For an endocrine‑gland–hormone pairing question, human growth hormone (HGH, growth hormone, somatotropin) pairs with the anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis), specifically the somatotroph cells.
pineal gland-----melatonin
46
Which of the following are among the changes observed in the bronchi and bronchioles in chronic bronchitis (Choose as many as required)?
■Squamous cell metaplasia ■Hyperplasia of the bronchial mucous glands and smooth muscles ■Chronic inflammation and edema of the airways ■Destruction of cilia ■Bronchial wall thickening and development of fibrosis Hyperplasia of the bronchial mucous glands and smooth muscles (the major change), chronic inflammation and edema of the airways, destruction of cilia, squamous cell metaplasia, bronchial wall thickening and development of fibrosis are the changes that are observed in chronic bronchitis. Destruction of the alveolar walls is observed in emphysema.
47
A 25-year-old female comes to the ED after a fall from height. HR = 105/min BP = 109/79 mmHg She is awake and repeatedly asking you to call her boyfriend. Question: Which statement best defines her condition?
She is in class II shock
48
Which of the following is a feature of restrictive pulmonary disease? Restrictive disease = problem with lung expansion → lungs are stiff → total lung volumes ↓ Key idea: The lung cannot fill properly.
🔹 FVC (Forced Vital Capacity) English FVC = total air exhaled after full inspiration In restrictive disease → lung volume ↓ → FVC ↓ 🔹 FEV1 (Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second) English FEV1 may be: normal or decreased (because total volume is reduced) But it is not increased. 🔹 FEV1/FVC ratio English Both FEV1 and FVC ↓ But FVC ↓ more → Ratio is normal or increased → typically > 0.8
49
Obstructive lung disease = problem with airflow out of the lungs → air gets trapped → expiration is difficult Key sentence: The lung fills, but cannot empty properly.
Like COPD Asthma Bronchiectasis Emphysema 🔹 FEV1 (خیلی مهم) English FEV1 = air exhaled in first second In obstructive disease → narrowed airways → FEV1 ↓↓↓ (markedly decreased) 🔹 FVC English FVC = total exhaled air In obstructive disease: May be normal Or mildly decreased (air trapping) 🔹 FEV1/FVC ratio (نقطهٔ مرگ و زندگی در امتحان) English FEV1 ↓↓↓ FVC ↓ or normal → Ratio decreases ✔ FEV1/FVC < 0.7 (or <70%) ♡Obstructive pattern FEV1 ↓↓↓ FVC normal or ↓ FEV1/FVC ↓ (<0.7)
50
Which of the following cells plays the least role in the pathogenesis of lower respiratory tract diseases?
T helper 2
51
Which of the following factors contribute to the development of respiratory system diseases? (Choose as many as required)
Low income Unemployment Low level of education Tobacco use Income inequality
52
Which statement regarding pulmonary infarction is correct?
Pulmonary infarcts are classically hemorrhagic Pulmonary infarcts are classically hemorrhagic due to dual blood supply and venous congestion.
53
A 55-year-old man presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and a dry cough. He has no history of smoking. Pulmonary function tests show decreased FEV₁, decreased FVC, and an FEV₁/FVC ratio within the normal range. Imaging reveals reduced lung volumes. Which of the following best explains the underlying pathophysiologic mechanism in this patient?
Reduced lung expansion and decreased total lung capacity Restrictive lung diseases are characterized by reduced lung expansion and decreased total lung capacity, leading to proportional reductions in FEV₁ and FVC with a normal or increased FEV₁/FVC ratio.
54
Choose all correct answers regarding childhood upper respiratory infections
The most common etiology of acute rhinosinusitis is a viral infection, and bacterial infection occurs in only 0.5 to 2 percent of episodes The most common risk factor for acute otitis media in children is a preceding upper respiratory tract infection; adenoid hypertrophy , allergy and daycare attendance being some of the other risk factors The goal of treatment of Strep. pyogenes pharyngitis is to prevent acute rheumatic fever, reduce the severity and duration of symptoms, and prevent transmission Majority (40%) of the pediatric pharyngitis cases are viral and are self-limiting, often require only supportive treatment Streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis is very rare in children younger than 2 years,pharyngitis at this age group is mostly viral
55
A 43-year--old male presented to the clinic with complaints of fever, pleuritic-type chest pain and productive cough for the past 2 weeks. The history of the patient reveals that he has been treated for pneumonia multiple times. X-ray and ultrasound of the patient were suggestive of pleural effusion. A CT scan of the chest was performed and it revealed pleural effusions along the mediastinum and thickened pleurae. Tube thoracostomy was performed and the fluid was sent for culture and sensitivity. Gram stain of the pus revealed gram-positive diplococci. Colonies formed green (alpha) hemolysis on blood agar. Growth was inhibited by optochin. Which of the following organism is the most common to cause this pathology?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
56
A 64-year-old man with a long smoking history presents with cough and hemoptysis. Imaging reveals a central hilar lung mass. Histopathological examination shows malignant epithelial cells with keratin pearl formation. Which lung tumor is most likely?
Squamous cell carcinoma 🌏Squamous cell carcinoma is strongly associated with smoking, typically arises in central airways, and shows keratinization and squamous pearls. Adenocarcinoma is usually peripheral. Small cell carcinoma lacks keratinization. Large cell carcinoma is undifferentiated.
57
A 22-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute shortness of breath and wheezing after running outside in cold air. He is given an inhaled drug that provides rapid bronchodilation within minutes. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of this medication?
Activation of β2-adrenergic receptors leading to increased cAMP Short-acting β2 agonists (SABAs, e.g., albuterol) are first-line for acute asthma attacks. They stimulate adenylyl cyclase → ↑cAMP → bronchodilation. Leukotriene antagonists (montelukast) and mast cell stabilizers (cromolyn) are prophylactic, not for acute relief.
58
A 30-year-old man with asthma is prescribed theophylline as an add-on therapy because he cannot afford LABAs. After several weeks, he presents with nausea, palpitations, and a generalized seizure. His blood level of the drug is elevated.Which of the following best explains the adverse effects of theophylline in this patient?
Narrow therapeutic index with adenosine receptor antagonism and PDE inhibition
59
In a patient with progressive dyspnea over the last three years together with cough and sputum production, the auscultation shows prolonged expirium and rhonchi. Which test would you order ?
Spirometry
60
Which of the following diseases are associated with tobacco use? (Choose as many as required)
Lung cancer COPD Coronary artery disease Hair loss Myopia
61
Which of the following diseases is associated with pulmonary endothelial damage?
Pulmonary arterial hypertension
62
Which information is essential to decide on the treatment of lung cancer ?
Histology and stage
63
Which of the following is not an underlying disorder for pulmonary thromboembolism ?
Mitral valve disease 🏛 Polycythemia vera Anti-phospholipid syndrome Active cancer Immobility Polycythemia vera
64
Which of the following condition has the greatest stimulating capacity on the chemoreceptor areas in the respiratory center located in the brainstem?
Increase in H+ concentration
65