the neoclassical model has three main actors
the household
the firm
the government
households decide how much to work, consume, save, and hold as money
firms decide how much to hire and invest
output is produced
all markets have to fit together in equilibrium
Consumption function
What deos it mean?
Exogenous variables in the Neoclassical Model
inputs to the model
Endogenous variables in the neoclasincal model
In a model, equations are what determine the endogenous variables.
So what matters is:
how many unknown endogenous variables you are solving for
how many independent equations you have to solve them
You want those numbers to match.
8 endogenous variables = 8 equations for 8 unknowns
An equilibrium is the …
combination of outcomes where everyone is doing the best they can, firms and households are behaving optimally, and all markets are consistent with one another.
competitive equilibrium is the point where
What does Ricardian Equivalence mean here?
Why does Ricardian Equivalence let us ignore taxes and debt in the model?
What does “the household behaves as though the government balances its budget each period” really mean?
What does it mean that the household wants to smooth consumption over time?
What does the 1st partial derivative of the consumption function mean?
MPC
How does desired consumption today change when current disposable income changes, holding future disposable income and the real interest rate fixed?
Why is the 1st partial derivative of consumption between 1 and 0?
If you have more income today, you usually want to consume more today.
Because households usually do not spend all of an extra dollar of income. They consume part of it and save part of it. That is why this derivative is usually between 0 and 1. This is the marginal propensity to consume (MPC).
How do we derive the first partial derivative of the consumption function?
What does this mean?
of the consumption function
If expected future disposable income goes up a little, while current disposable income and the real interest rate stay the same, current desired consumption goes up.
If you expect to be richer tomorrow, you feel more comfortable consuming more today.
Why? Because households want to smooth consumption across time. If future income is high relative to current income, households may borrow and consume more today.
So this derivative is also positive.
Why is the second derivative also between 0 and 1?
households want to smooth consumption across time
if future income is high relative to current income, households may borrow and consume more today
if you expect 1 more unit of income tomorrow, you probably will not increase today’s consumption by more than 1. If you did, you would borrow too much and have trouble repaying it tomorrow.
This is why the derivative should also be between 0 and 1.
How do we get the 2nd partial derivative of consumption?
What does the 3rd partial derivative of consumption mea?
If the real interest rate goes up a little, while current and future disposable income stay the same, current desired consumption goes down.
A higher real interest rate makes saving more attractive
Therfore this derivative is negative
For the consumption equation, the underlying first-order-condition idea is:
the household is choosing how much to consume today versus how much to save today and consume tomorrow.
choose consumption today and tomorrow optimally, balancing the benefit of consuming now against the benefit of saving and consuming more later.
That is why the consumption function depends on current income, future income, and the real interest rate. The derivatives are just the signs of how optimal consumption responds when each of those changes.