Malaria Flashcards

(69 cards)

1
Q

What is the origin of the word “malaria”?

A

From Italian “mal” (bad) + “aria” (air) – referring to the historical belief that the disease was caused by miasma or poisonous vapours from swamps.

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2
Q

Why is malaria called “the most important parasitic disease”?

A

Because it is a scourge of mankind for millennia; in the 20th century alone, an estimated 150–200 million people died from malaria, representing 2–5% of all deaths during that period.

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3
Q

What percentage of the world’s population lives in areas where malaria is transmitted?

A

0.5

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4
Q

What is the global burden of malaria as of 2024?

A

According to the WHO World Malaria Report 2025, there were an estimated 282 million cases and 610,000 deaths globally in 2024 – a slight increase from 2023.

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5
Q

How many malaria cases and deaths have been averted since 2000?

A

Since 2000, malaria control efforts have averted an estimated 2.3 billion cases and 14 million deaths worldwide.

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6
Q

What percentage of global malaria cases and deaths occur in the WHO African Region?

A

94% of cases and 95% of deaths – the African Region continues to bear the overwhelming burden of malaria.

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7
Q

Which country has the highest malaria burden in the world?

A

Nigeria – in 2024, Nigeria recorded an estimated 68.5 million cases (24.3% of global cases) and accounted for 30.3% of all malaria deaths globally, approximately 184,800 deaths.

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8
Q

Which five countries account for almost half of all global malaria cases?

A

Nigeria (24.3%), Democratic Republic of the Congo (12.5%), Uganda (4.7%), Ethiopia (4.4%), and Mozambique (3.6%).

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9
Q

What percentage of malaria deaths in Africa occur in children under five years old?

A

75% of malaria deaths in the WHO African Region occur in children under five years of age.

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10
Q

What Plasmodium species cause human malaria?

A

Five species: P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. malariae, P. ovale, and P. knowlesii.

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11
Q

Which Plasmodium species causes the most severe disease and the majority of deaths?

A

P. falciparum – it accounts for 97% of malaria cases in Africa and is responsible for virtually all severe and complicated malaria.

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12
Q

Which Plasmodium species can cause relapsing malaria due to hypnozoites?

A

P. vivax and P. ovale – these species form dormant liver stage parasites (hypnozoites) that can cause clinical relapse weeks to months after the initial infection.

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13
Q

Which Plasmodium species is associated with quartan malaria and nephropathy?

A

P. malariae – it causes fever every 72 hours (quartan periodicity) and is associated with long-term immune complex-mediated nephrotic syndrome (“quartan malaria nephropathy”).

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14
Q

What is P. knowlesii and why is it clinically important?

A

P. knowlesii is a zoonotic parasite originating from macaque monkeys; it causes daily fever paroxysms (quotidian) and can cause severe disease with high parasite density due to its 24-hour replication cycle.

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15
Q

What are the four main modes of malaria transmission?

A

1) Bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes (primary), 2) Blood transfusion, 3) Organ transplantation, 4) Congenital transmission (mother to foetus).

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16
Q

What are the classic three stages of a malaria paroxysm?

A

Cold stage (rigors, shivering), hot stage (high fever, headache, vomiting), and wet stage (sweating, defervescence, exhaustion).

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17
Q

What is the typical fever periodicity in P. falciparum malaria?

A

Irregular or quotidian (daily) – P. falciparum does not have synchronised schizogony, so fever patterns are often irregular, though may become tertian (every 48 hours) in some infections.

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18
Q

What is the typical fever periodicity in P. vivax and P. ovale?

A

Tertian – fever occurs every 48 hours, corresponding to the completion of the erythrocytic cycle.

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19
Q

What is the typical fever periodicity in P. malariae?

A

Quartan – fever occurs every 72 hours.

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20
Q

What is the difference between stable and unstable malaria?

A

Stable malaria: constant high transmission with high population immunity (hyperendemic/holoendemic areas). Unstable malaria: epidemic-prone, low transmission with little population immunity (hypoendemic/mesoendemic areas).

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21
Q

How is malaria endemicity classified using spleen rates in children 0-9 years?

A

Hypoendemic (<10% spleen rate), Mesoendemic (11-25%), Hyperendemic (26-50%), Holoendemic (>75% – also high spleen rate in adults).

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22
Q

What is PfEMP-1 and its role in pathogenesis?

A

Plasmodium falciparum Erythrocyte Membrane Protein 1 – a variant surface antigen expressed on infected RBCs that mediates cytoadherence to endothelial receptors (ICAM-1, CD36, VCAM-1), leading to sequestration and severe disease.

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23
Q

What is cytoadherence in malaria pathogenesis?

A

The adherence of P. falciparum-infected RBCs to vascular endothelium via PfEMP-1 binding to host receptors (ICAM-1, CD36), causing sequestration of parasites in deep microvasculature – a key factor in cerebral malaria and placental malaria.

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24
Q

What is rosetting in malaria pathogenesis?

A

The adherence of uninfected RBCs to P. falciparum-infected RBCs, forming rosette-like clusters that obstruct microcirculation and contribute to severe malaria pathogenesis.

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25
What is the pathophysiology of malarial anaemia?
Multifactorial: 1) Direct destruction of parasitised RBCs, 2) Dyserythropoiesis (bone marrow suppression), 3) Splenic clearance of both parasitised and uninfected RBCs, 4) Immune-mediated haemolysis, 5) Cytokine-induced suppression (TNF-α, IFN-γ).
26
What causes hypoglycaemia in severe malaria?
Two mechanisms: 1) Increased host glucose consumption (fever, seizures, cytokines), 2) Quinine-induced hyperinsulinaemia (quinine stimulates pancreatic insulin release). Hypoglycaemia is a poor prognostic sign.
27
List the features of complicated (severe) malaria as per WHO criteria.
Cerebral malaria (unrousable coma), Acidosis (metabolic, base deficit >8), Severe anaemia (Hb <5 g/dL or Hct <15%), Renal failure (Cr >265 μmol/L), ARDS, Hypoglycaemia (<2.2 mmol/L), Shock (systolic BP <70 mmHg), DIC, Repeated convulsions (>2 in 24h), Hyperparasitaemia (>10% or >500,000/μL), Jaundice (bilirubin >50 μmol/L with parasitaemia >100,000/μL), Haemoglobinuria ("blackwater fever"), Prostration (inability to sit/stand).
28
What is cerebral malaria and what is its mortality rate?
A severe neurological complication of P. falciparum malaria characterised by unrousable coma (Glasgow Coma Scale <11) with exclusion of other causes. Mortality is 15-20% even with treatment, and survivors may have neurological sequelae (ataxia, hemiparesis, cortical blindness).
29
What is blackwater fever?
A complication of severe P. falciparum malaria – particularly associated with quinine use – characterised by massive intravascular haemolysis, haemoglobinuria (dark red/black urine), and acute renal failure.
30
Name three long-term complications of malaria.
1) Hyperreactive Malarial Splenomegaly (HMS) – massive splenomegaly with high IgM, 2) Quartan malaria nephropathy (immune-complex glomerulonephritis from P. malariae), 3) Burkitt's lymphoma (EBV-associated with chronic P. falciparum infection in African children).
31
List the obstetric complications of malaria in pregnancy.
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), Low birth weight, Preterm delivery, Fetal wastages (miscarriage, stillbirth), Congenital malaria (rare), Maternal anaemia and severe malaria.
32
What are the three main diagnostic methods for malaria?
1) Light microscopy (thin and thick blood films – gold standard), 2) Rapid Diagnostic Tests (RDTs – antigen detection), 3) Molecular methods (PCR – for species identification and research).
33
What is the difference between thick and thin blood films for malaria diagnosis?
Thick film: lysed RBCs, concentrated parasites – more sensitive for detecting low parasitaemia. Thin film: fixed RBCs, allows species identification and quantification of parasitaemia.
34
What antigens do malaria RDTs detect?
Two main antigens: 1) PfHRP2 (P. falciparum histidine-rich protein 2) – highly sensitive but can remain positive for weeks after treatment, 2) pLDH (Plasmodium lactate dehydrogenase) – species-specific, clears rapidly with treatment.
35
What is the single most important rule regarding treatment of malaria?
Do not treat without evidence – clinical diagnosis is unreliable; all suspected cases must have parasitological confirmation (microscopy or RDT) before treatment.
36
What are the five main classes of antimalarial drugs?
1) Quinolines (chloroquine, quinine, mefloquine, lumefantrine), 2) Antifolates (sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine, proguanil), 3) Artemisinin derivatives (artesunate, artemether), 4) 8-Aminoquinolines (primaquine, tafenoquine), 5) Antimicrobials (tetracyclines, clindamycin, doxycycline).
37
List the quinoline antimalarials.
Chloroquine, Quinine, Quinidine, Mefloquine, Amodiaquine, Lumefantrine, Piperaquine, Halofantrine.
38
What is the mechanism of action of chloroquine?
Chloroquine accumulates in the parasite digestive vacuole and inhibits haem polymerase, preventing detoxification of haem into haemozoin. Toxic haem accumulates and kills the parasite. Resistance is mediated by PfCRT mutations that increase drug efflux.
39
What is the mechanism of action of artemisinin derivatives?
Artemisinin drugs are activated by parasite iron to form free radicals that alkylate and damage multiple parasite proteins (including PfATP6, a sarcoplasmic-endoplasmic reticulum calcium ATPase). They have the fastest parasite clearance time of all antimalarials.
40
What is the WHO-recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria?
Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT) – an artemisinin derivative combined with a longer-acting partner drug (e.g., artemether-lumefantrine, artesunate-amodiaquine, artesunate-mefloquine, dihydroartemisinin-piperaquine).
41
What is the rationale for using ACT rather than artemisinin monotherapy?
Artemisinin monotherapy leads to rapid emergence of drug resistance (due to its short half-life). The partner drug clears residual parasites, reducing resistance risk. WHO banned artemisinin monotherapy in 2006.
42
What is the treatment for uncomplicated P. vivax malaria?
Chloroquine (blood stage) PLUS primaquine (to eliminate hypnozoites and prevent relapse). In chloroquine-resistant P. vivax (e.g., Oceania, SE Asia), use ACT followed by primaquine.
43
What is the WHO-recommended treatment for severe malaria in adults and children?
IV artesunate is the drug of choice for severe malaria. Regimen: 2.4 mg/kg at 0, 12, and 24 hours, then daily until patient can tolerate oral therapy, followed by a full course of ACT.
44
What is the IV artesunate dosing regimen for severe malaria?
2.4 mg/kg IV/IM at 0, 12, and 24 hours, then once daily. After 24 hours of IV therapy (minimum 3 doses), transition to oral ACT when patient can tolerate oral medications.
45
What is the alternative treatment if IV artesunate is unavailable for severe malaria?
IV quinine: 20 mg/kg loading dose (max 1.4g) infused over 4 hours, then 10 mg/kg (max 600mg) over 2-4 hours every 8 hours. OR IM artemether: 3.2 mg/kg then 1.6 mg/kg daily. Quinine requires cardiac monitoring due to QT prolongation and hypotension.
46
What is the role of primaquine in malaria treatment?
Primaquine (8-aminoquinoline) kills hypnozoites – the dormant liver stage parasites of P. vivax and P. ovale – preventing relapse. Also has gametocidal activity against P. falciparum, reducing transmission. Contraindicated in G6PD deficiency due to haemolytic anaemia risk.
47
What is the recommended primaquine regimen for radical cure of P. vivax?
0.25-0.5 mg/kg base daily for 14 days (adult dose typically 30 mg base daily). Requires screening for G6PD deficiency before use – severe deficiency is an absolute contraindication.
48
What is tafenoquine?
A single-dose 8-aminoquinoline for radical cure of P. vivax (approved 2018). Advantage over primaquine is single dose (300 mg), but also contraindicated in G6PD deficiency and pregnancy.
49
What are the three patterns of recurrent malaria after treatment?
1) Reinfection (new mosquito inoculation – after weeks to months), 2) Recrudescence (incomplete clearance of blood stage parasites – days to weeks, due to drug resistance or subtherapeutic levels), 3) Relapse (hypnozoite activation in P. vivax/P. ovale – weeks to months).
50
What is the mechanism of action of sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine (SP)?
Antifolate combination: Sulfadoxine inhibits dihydropteroate synthase (DHPS), pyrimethamine inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). Together they block folate synthesis, essential for DNA replication. Used for IPTp and chemoprophylaxis, but resistance is widespread.
51
What are the vector control methods for malaria prevention?
1) Insecticide-treated nets (ITNs) – including long-lasting insecticidal nets (LLINs), 2) Indoor residual spraying (IRS), 3) Larval source management (larviciding, environmental modification), 4) Personal protection (insect repellents, screening).
52
What is the efficacy of insecticide-treated nets (ITNs) in malaria prevention?
Meta-analyses show ITNs reduce childhood all-cause mortality by 18-20%, reduce malaria episodes by 50%, and reduce severe malaria by 45-50% in high-transmission areas.
53
What is seasonal malaria chemoprevention (SMC)?
Administration of full treatment courses of sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine plus amodiaquine at monthly intervals during the high-transmission season (typically 3-4 months) to children aged 3-59 months in the Sahel subregion. By end of 2024, SMC reached 54 million children.
54
What is intermittent preventive treatment in pregnancy (IPTp)?
Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine given at each scheduled antenatal visit after the first trimester (at least 3 doses) to prevent maternal anaemia, low birth weight, and neonatal mortality. Recommended in moderate-to-high transmission areas in Africa.
55
Which malaria vaccines have been endorsed by WHO?
Two vaccines: 1) RTS,S/AS01 (Mosquirix) – endorsed 2021, 2) R21/Matrix-M – endorsed 2023. Both target the circumsporozoite protein (CSP) of P. falciparum.
56
What is the efficacy of RTS,S malaria vaccine?
In phase 3 trials, RTS,S reduced clinical malaria by 39% and severe malaria by 30% in children aged 5-17 months over 4 years. Efficacy wanes over time and varies by transmission intensity.
57
What is the WHO-recommended schedule for the RTS,S malaria vaccine?
4-dose schedule: first dose at 5 months, second at 6 months, third at 7 months, and booster at 18-24 months of age. By end of 2024, the vaccine had been introduced in 17 African countries, protecting over 2.1 million children.
58
What is the efficacy of the R21/Matrix-M vaccine?
Phase 2b trials showed 77% efficacy over 12 months – higher than RTS,S. WHO endorsed R21 in 2023, and it is expected to be more affordable and available in larger quantities (Serum Institute of India plans 200 million doses annually).
59
What is the current status of chemoprophylaxis for travellers?
Recommended for travellers to high-risk areas. Options: Atovaquone-proguanil (Malarone) – daily, start 1-2 days before, continue 7 days after; Doxycycline – daily, continue 4 weeks after; Mefloquine – weekly, start 2 weeks before, continue 4 weeks after.
60
What are the patterns of antimalarial drug resistance?
Resistance is a major threat: Chloroquine resistance (PfCRT mutations) widespread; SP resistance (dhfr/dhps mutations) widespread; Mefloquine resistance in SE Asia; Artemisinin partial resistance (K13 propeller mutations) confirmed in SE Asia, Africa (Rwanda, Uganda, Ethiopia, Eritrea).
61
What is the WHO response to artemisinin partial resistance?
WHO recommends: 1) Triple ACTs (dihydroartemisinin-piperaquine plus mefloquine) in some settings, 2) Monitoring K13 mutations, 3) Strengthening vector control to reduce transmission, 4) Enhanced surveillance and partner drug rotation.
62
What is the economic impact of malaria in endemic countries?
Malaria costs Africa an estimated $12 billion annually in lost GDP. Households spend up to 25% of income on prevention and treatment. The disease is both a cause and consequence of poverty.
63
What is the Global Technical Strategy for Malaria 2016-2030?
WHO's framework with targets: Reduce malaria incidence and mortality by 90% from 2015 baseline by 2030; Eliminate malaria in 35 countries; Prevent re-establishment in malaria-free countries. The 2024 assessment shows progress has stalled, with incidence increasing 8.5% since 2015.
64
What are the major challenges to malaria elimination?
1) Antimalarial drug resistance (artemisinin, SP, chloroquine), 2) Insecticide resistance (pyrethroids, DDT), 3) Invasive vector species (Anopheles stephensi in Africa), 4) Funding shortfall (only $3.9 billion of $9.3 billion needed), 5) Climate change, 6) Humanitarian crises and conflict, 7) Weak health systems.
65
What is Anopheles stephensi and why is it a concern?
An invasive mosquito species originally from South Asia that thrives in urban environments (unlike most African vectors). It has spread to several African countries (Djibouti, Ethiopia, Sudan, Somalia, Nigeria) and threatens to increase urban malaria transmission.
66
What is the current global malaria funding gap?
Global malaria investments in 2024 reached only USD $3.9 billion – less than half of the USD $9.3 billion annual target set by WHO's Global Technical Strategy.
67
What are the key poor prognostic factors in severe malaria?
1) Coma (cerebral malaria), 2) Hyperparasitaemia (>10%), 3) Acidosis (base deficit >8), 4) Renal failure, 5) Hypoglycaemia, 6) Shock, 7) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), 8) Repeated convulsions, 9) Deep coma (Blantyre coma score <2), 10) Elevated plasma PfHRP2.
68
What is the mortality rate of severe malaria with appropriate treatment?
With timely IV artesunate and supportive care, mortality is 8-10% for severe malaria in African children and 15-20% in adults. Cerebral malaria mortality is 15-20% despite optimal treatment.
69
What is the recommended antimalarial for pregnant women in their second and third trimesters?
ACT (artemether-lumefantrine is preferred due to extensive safety data). Quinine plus clindamycin is an alternative. Avoid primaquine (G6PD risk to foetus) and doxycycline (tetracycline effects on foetal bones/teeth).