March 2018

Question 1

1. Wilsons likely
   a. Baby jaundice 3-6months
   b. Corona radiata T2 early in disease
   c. High ceruloplasmin bound copper
   d. Autosomal dominant
   e. Fatty liver

Answer 1

1. Wilsons likely
   a. Baby jaundice 3-6months too young usually teens
   b. Corona radiata T2 early in disease usually basal ganglia causing parkinsonism
   c. High ceruloplasmin bound copper low ceruloplasmin high copper
   d. Autosomal dominant AR
   e. Fatty liver true, mix with high density copper in liver may be normal on CT

Question 2

2. SLE part of diagnostic criteria
   a. Pericarditis
   b. Peripheral neuropathy
   c. Erosive arthropathy

Answer 2

2. SLE part of diagnostic criteria
   a. Pericarditis true
   b. Peripheral neuropathy CNS
   c. Erosive arthropathy non erosive
   d. MD SOAP BRAIN = criteria for SLE = malar rash, discoid rash, serositis, oral ulcers, arthritis, photosensitivity, blood dyscrasias, renal failure, ANA, immunologic, neurologic

Question 3

3. Xlinked
   a. Adrenoleukodystrophy
   b. Alexanders
   c. Canavan
   d. MLD

Answer 3

3. Xlinked
   a. Adrenoleukodystrophy yes
   b. Alexanders
   c. Canavan
   d. MLD

Question 4

4. FMD doesn’t cause
   a. Tinnitis
   b. PVD
   c. Angina
   d. Renal
   e. Carotid

Answer 4

**LJS - I think PVD least common of those listed. Tinnitus listed on radiopedia, due to carotid/VA involvement. Rest listed in Robbins, PVD is not in either (though some evidence that it occurs - google)

4. FMD doesn’t cause
   a. Tinnitis yes but rare, I think rarest only in case series
   b. PVD yes but rare
   c. Angina yes but rare in case series
   d. Renal
   e. Carotid

Question 5

5. PAN does not affect
   a. Lungs
   b. Kidneys
   c. Mesenteric vessels

Answer 5

5. PAN does not affect
   a. Lungs PAN spares lungs classically, similar to MPA but medium vessels affected
   b. Kidneys
   c. Mesenteric vessels

Question 6

6. SCC tongue which doesn’t cause
   a. Marijuana
   b. Cocaine
   c. HPV
   d. Syphillis
   e. Alcohol

Answer 6

6. SCC tongue which doesn’t cause
   a. Marijuana smoking
   b. Cocaine doesn’t because you snort it, HTN, perforation
   c. HPV yes oral sex
   d. Syphillis rare syphilitic leukoplakia
   e. Alcohol yes

Question 7

7. Not risk factor for RCC
   a. Smoking
   b. Alcohol
   c. Obesity

Answer 7

7. Not risk factor for RCC
   a. Smoking yes
   b. Alcohol no! lower risk
   c. Obesity yes

Question 8

8. Precursor to melanoma
   a. Blue naevus
   b. Dysplastic naevus
   c. Congenital naevus
   d. Basal naevus

Answer 8

8. Precursor to melanoma
   a. Blue naevus
   b. Dysplastic naevus yes
   c. Congenital naevus
   d. Basal naevus

Question 9

9. PML

a. JCV

Answer 9

9. PML

a. JCV yes

Question 10

10. Jaundice in pregnancy, most common cause of liver disease in pregnancy
    a. Cholestasis
    b. Hepatitis
    c. Preeclampsia
    d. HELLP

Answer 10

b. Hepatitis yes most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy

10. Jaundice in pregnancy, most common cause of liver disease in pregnancy
    a. Cholestasis 1 in 1000
    b. Hepatitis yes most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy
    c. Preeclampsia HTN and proteinuria
    d. HELLP rare but bad

Question 11

11. Least true regarding circumvallate
    a. Abruption
    b. IUGR
    c. Painless bleeding
    d. Fetal death
    e. Abnormal tocography

Answer 11

• LW:
  11. Least true regarding circumvallate: favoured answer painless bleeding.

a. Abruption: known association
b. IUGR: known association
c. Painless bleeding: not by itself, association with abruption which causes painful bleeding.
d. Fetal death: usually of no consequence
e. Abnormal tocography

Question 12

12. Least correct
    a. ADEM follow bacterial infection
    b. NMO bilateral optic neuritis
    c. Relapsing remitting MS on MRI plaque doesn’t have axonal degeneration

Answer 12

*LW: favour option A.

12. Least correct
    a. ADEM follow bacterial infection: possible but rare, and most resoruces state viral or post vaccination. ONly case report level of bacterial.

b. NMO bilateral optic neuritis: true
c. Relapsing remitting MS on MRI plaque doesn’t have axonal degeneration: RObbins states Axons are relatively preserved but may be reduced in number. Other resources have stated, they do have axonal degeneration.

Question 13

13. Hirschprungs false
    a. More common in females
    b. Involves whole colon
    c. Bowel obstruction and perforation

Answer 13

a. More common in females more common male

13. Hirschprungs false
    a. More common in females more common male
    b. Involves whole colon
    c. Bowel obstruction and perforation

Question 14

14. PXA
    a. Involves grey matter and overlying meninges
    b. Adults frontal
    c. Child brainstem and cerebellum

Answer 14

14. PXA
    a. Involves grey matter and overlying meninges this dural reaction
    b. Adults frontal temproal
    c. Child brainstem and cerebellum rare

Question 15

15. Which chondroid lesion crosses physes
    a. Chondroblastoma
    b. Periostial chondroma
    c. EnchondromaLeas
    d. CMF
    e. Osteochondroma

Answer 15

15. Which chondroid lesion crosses physes:
    *LW:
    Wheeles states: only three tumors may invade physis: chondroblastoma, GCT, and clear cell chondrosarcoma

a. Chondroblastoma rarely may cross physis: probably the best answer
b. Periostial chondroma: periosteal based lesion, so unlikely to cross the actual physical bar.
c. Enchondroma: very unlikely to occur in the epiphysis, occurring most commonly in diaphysis.
d. CMF: unlikely
e. Osteochondroma: exophytic so false.

Question 16

16. PVNS and GCT (Giant cell tumour of tendon sheath) which is false
    a. PVNS most common knee
    b. GCT most common wrist
    c. PVNS and GCT erode bone
    d. GCT excision likely to recur
    e. PVNS characteristically cause inflammation

Answer 16

e. PVNS characteristically cause inflammation probably this characteristically bleed other answers are all more correct, and is a low grade neoplasm rather than an inflammatory process.
16. PVNS and GCT (Giant cell tumour of tendon sheath) which is false

a. PVNS most common knee: TRUE
b. GCT most common wrist: TRUE
c. PVNS and GCT erode bone: Can do in up to 15%
d. GCT excision likely to recur: TRUE
e. PVNS characteristically cause inflammation probably this characteristically bleed other answers are all more correct

Question 17

17. Post partum diabetes insipidus
    a. Lymphocytic hypophysitis
    b. Sheehans

Answer 17

17. Post partum diabetes insipidus
    a. Lymphocytic hypophysitis yes, loss of posterior pituitary bright spot and DI
    b. Sheehans massive bleed and necrosis

Question 18

18. Most common with tumor marker
    a. YS tumor
    b. Seminoma
    c. Granulosa cell

Answer 18

18. Most common with tumor marker
    a. YS tumor aFP
    b. Seminoma
    c. Granulosa cell

Question 19

19. Most common elderly testicular tumor

a. Lymphoma

Answer 19

19. Most common elderly testicular tumor

a. Lymphoma yes

Question 20

20. Most common eldertly germ cell testicular tumor

a. Spermatocytic seminoma

Answer 20

20. Most common eldertly germ cell testicular tumor

a. Spermatocytic seminoma yes

Question 21

21. Wilms least correct
    a. Bilateral almost always germ line
    b. Unilateral is 50% genetic
    c. Genetic wilms have nephrogenic rests

Answer 21

b. Unilateral is 50% genetic: this is lease correct as approx. 10% is genetic.

21. Wilms least correct
    a. Bilateral almost always germ line

b. Unilateral is 50% genetic: this is lease correct as approx. 10% is genetic.
c. Genetic wilms have nephrogenic rests

Question 22

22. Breast least likely in post menopausal
    a. IDC
    b. LCIS
    c. Fibroadenoma
    d. Phylloides
    e. Papillary

Answer 22

c. Fibroadenoma young

22. Breast least likely in post menopausal
    a. IDC
    b. LCIS
    c. Fibroadenoma young
    d. Phylloides
    e. Papillary

Question 23

23. True regarding juvenile papillomatosis
    a. Most commonly presents as palpable mass
    b. Nipple discharge
    c. Solid lesion on US
    d. No increased risk of breast cancer

Answer 23

23. True regarding juvenile papillomatosis
    a. Most commonly presents as palpable mass: correct

b. Nipple discharge: FALSE - adult papilloma bloody discharge
c. Solid lesion on US: FA:LSE - can have small cysts, pathologically swiss cheese appearance
d. No increased risk of breast cancer: FALSE - increased risk

Question 24

24. Regarding thyroid lesions (which is false)
    a. Iodine deficiency associated papillary
    b. Radiation is associated with papillary
    c. Medullary with MEN worse prognosis than medullary without MEN
    d. Anaplastic kills by invasion
    e. Hashimotos sometimes assoc with hodgkins lymphoma

Answer 24

**LJS - iodine deficiency is ass/w follicular carcinoma (Robbins p 1095)
Hashimotos ass/w marginal zone B cell lymphoma (NHL) and papillary carcinoma
Rest are true

24. Regarding thyroid lesions (which is false)
    a. Iodine deficiency associated papillary: FALSE

b. Radiation is associated with papillary: TRUE
c. Medullary with MEN worse prognosis than medullary without MEN: TRUE
d. Anaplastic kills by invasion: TRUE
e. Hashimotos sometimes assoc with hodgkins lymphoma: FALSE - associated NHL

Question 25

25. More likely Hodgkins than NHL a. Single nodal site b. Extranodal disease c. Small bowel mesentery

Answer 25

25. More likely Hodgkins than NHL a. Single nodal site true b. Extranodal disease NHL

Question 26

26. Complex sclerosing lesion on biopsy a. No further management, benign b. Hookwire and open biopsy c. Hookwire WLE and SNB

Answer 26

26. Complex sclerosing lesion on biopsy a. No further management, benign false b. Hookwire and open biopsy correct c. Hookwire WLE and SNB false SNB only if invasive cancer, radial scar is not cancer, DCIS is not cancer

Question 27

27. DCIS a. Prognosis depends on histological microarchitecture b. High grade worse prognosis

Answer 27

27. DCIS a. Prognosis depends on histological microarchitecture wrong but some what true if comedonecrosis is included, but I think they mean appearance of papillary, micropapillary, cribiform etc. b. High grade worse prognosis correct grading based on comedonecrosis and pleomorphism

Question 28

28. Antibodies to GBM a. Goodpastures b. PAN c. Wegners d. MPA

Answer 28

28. Antibodies to GBM a. Goodpastures true b. PAN c. Wegners d. MPA

Question 29

29. Myeloma false a. IgA b. IgG c. Serum light chains d. BJP

Answer 29

29. Myeloma false a. IgA less common, maybe this answer or the other not recalled one b. IgG most common c. Serum light chains yes d. BJP yes

Question 30

30. Diabetes microangiopathy false a. Glomerulosclerosis b. Macula edema c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Autonomic neuropathy

Answer 30

30. Diabetes microangiopathy false a. Glomerulosclerosis yes b. Macula edema yes c. Peripheral neuropathy yes d. Autonomic neuropathy not sure

Question 31

31. Cortical calcifications in HIV on US which is true a. HIVAN b. CMV c. EBV d. PCP

Answer 31

31. Cortical calcifications in HIV on US which is true a. HIVAN no, enlarged echogenic kidney b. CMV yes, later described also in MAI c. EBV no d. PCP yes, first case series described

Question 32

32. Trophoblastic disease a. PSTT presenting 2 years after normal pregnancy has good prognosis b. Metastatic disease to lungs in GTD is very chemosensitive c. Partial mole no risk of choriocarcinoma

Answer 32

32. Trophoblastic disease a. PSTT presenting 2 years after normal pregnancy has good prognosis I think this is false, usually slow growing but if delayed will be metastatic b. Metastatic disease to lungs in GTD is very chemosensitive true c. Partial mole no risk of choriocarcinoma: *LW - I think this is false as less but possible but 'partial' risk of choriocarcinoma relative to complete [previous answer of: true]

Question 33

33. SPT false a. Solid and cystic components b. Middle aged woman

Answer 33

33. SPT false a. Solid and cystic components true b. Middle aged woman false

Question 34

34. Most likely bilateral a. Mucinous tumor b. Endometrioid tumor c. Brenners d. Dermoid

Answer 34

34. Most likely bilateral a. Mucinous tumor b. Endometrioid tumor yes, most likely bilateral serous > endometrioid/clear cell > dermoid c. Brenners d. Dermoid

Question 35

35. RCC bilateral most likely a. Clearcell b. Papillary c. Medullary d. Collecting duct

Answer 35

35. RCC bilateral most likely a. Clearcell b. Papillary true c. Medullary d. Collecting duct

Question 36

36. RCC best prognosis a. Clear cell b. Papillary c. Chromophobe d. Medullary

Answer 36

36. RCC best prognosis a. Clear cell b. Papillary c. Chromophobe true assoc with BHDS, oncocytic d. Medullary

Question 37

37. Parotid lesion least likely a. SCC b. Actinic cell c. Warthins d. Adenocystic e. Mucoepidermoid

Answer 37

``` *LW: SCC Incidence of parotid lesions: Pleomorphic adenoma - 50% Mucoepidermoid (malignant) - 15% Adenocarcinoma NOS (malignant) - 10% Warthin 5-10% Oncocytoma - 1% Acinic cell carcinoma (malignant) - 5% adenoid cystic carcinoma (malignant) - 5% SCC - 1% ``` 37. Parotid lesion least likely a. SCC either this, does it count mets to parotid node b. Actinic cell or this c. Warthins d. Adenocystic e. Mucoepidermoid

Question 38

38. Spiculated mass true a. Complex sclerosing lesion (this was the best option even though usually its no mass centrally) b. Short spicules in radial scar

Answer 38

38. Spiculated mass true a. Complex sclerosing lesion (this was the best option even though usually its no mass centrally) true b. Short spicules in radial scar

Question 39

39. Least likely present with spiculated mass | a. Medullary breast

Answer 39

39. Least likely present with spiculated mass | a. Medullary breast usually circumscribed

Question 40

40. Coal workers least likely a. Centrilobular emphysema b. Nodules and macules c. PMF lower zone d. Peripheral calcification in node

Answer 40

c. PMF lower zone false 40. Coal workers least likely a. Centrilobular emphysema b. Nodules and macules c. PMF lower zone false d. Peripheral calcification in node

Question 41

41. Silicosis wrong a. Causes TB b. Massive fibrosis upper lobe c. Nodules in lower zones d. Honeycombing

Answer 41

c. Nodules in lower zones false * No hard evidence of UIP association 41. Silicosis wrong a. Causes TB - associated with it b. Massive fibrosis upper lobe c. Nodules in lower zones false d. Honeycombing 10% UIP

Question 42

42. Pleural effusion wrong a. Renal failure haemorrhagic effusion b. Simple effusion in low albumin

Answer 42

42. Pleural effusion wrong a. Renal failure haemorrhagic effusion false, transudate b. Simple effusion in low albumin

Question 43

43. LAM false a. Chylothorax b. PTX c. TS d. Upper zone distribution of cysts

Answer 43

d. Upper zone distribution of cysts no distribution, LCH is upper lobe 43. LAM false a. Chylothorax b. PTX c. TS d. Upper zone distribution of cysts no distribution, LCH is upper lobe

Question 44

44. Renal papillary necrosis (False) a. Analgesia b. Diabetes c. Obtruction d. Sickle cell e. Emboli into segmental vessel

Answer 44

44. Renal papillary necrosis: a. Analgesia: TRUE b. Diabetes: TRUE c. Obtruction: TRUE d. Sickle cell: TRUE e. Emboli into segmental vessel: FALSE ``` POSTCARDS: pyelonephritis, obstruction of the urogenital tract, sickle cell disease, tuberculosis, cirrhosis of the liver, analgesia/alcohol abuse, renal vein thrombosis, diabetes mellitus, systemic vasculitis ```

Question 45

45. Drug associations false a. MTX pneumatocele b. Cylophoshamide and mass c. Phenytoin and pleural effusion

Answer 45

45. Drug associations false a. MTX pneumatocele false b. Cylophoshamide and mass c. Phenytoin and pleural effusion

Question 46

46. Lesion without scar a. Adenoma b. Haemangioma c. FLHCC d. FNH e. Cholangiocarcinoma

Answer 46

46. Lesion without scar a. Adenoma no scar b. Haemangioma c. FLHCC d. FNH e. Cholangiocarcinoma

Question 47

47. CM brain (false) a. Associated DVA b. Haemosiderin rim c. Seizure d. No brain tissue e. Dilated draining vein

Answer 47

47. CM brain a. Associated DVA: true b. Haemosiderin rim: true c. Seizure: true d. No brain tissue in-between: true e. Dilated draining vein: false, this occurs in a dAVF

Question 48

48. Psoriatic arthritis true a. Aortitis b. Synovial inflammation c. Plantar fasciitis

Answer 48

**LJS - Plantar fasciitis - yes, form of enthesitis - statDx agrees. -Aortitis - no (other HLA B27 arthropathies - ank spond, reiters are ass/w aortitis, not psoriatic) StatDx reports aortic insufficiency. -Synovial inflammation - no. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies affect the ligamentous attachments, not the synovium (Robbins) StatDx states generalised synovitis, and is similar to RA - which is synovial inflammation. 48. Psoriatic arthritis true a. Aortitis b. Synovial inflammation also true, but I think this one c. Plantar fasciitis

Question 49

49. Lesion false a. Nodular fasciitis related to trauma b. Variations of myositis ossificans and nodular fasciits locations features

Answer 49

* *LJS - nodular fasciitis also related to trauma * LW agree - preceeeding trauma noted in 10-15% cases. Nodular fascitis: most commonly volar aspect forearm, followed by chest wall and back. Myositis ossificans: metaplstic bone. Commonly follows episode of trauma > 50% cases. Muscles of proximal limbs, eventually painless hard mass. Most peripheral zone well formed mineralised trabeculae, while less ossified centre. 49. Lesion false a. Nodular fasciitis related to trauma b. Variations of myositis ossificans and nodular fasciits locations features

Question 50

50. Lesion in stomach dyspepsia, sessile, 90 degree angle a. Duplication b. GIST c. Lymphoma

Answer 50

**LJS - MALToma complicating H pylori gastritis? 50. Lesion in stomach dyspepsia, sessile, 90 degree angle a. Duplication b. GIST maybe this?? Don’t know c. Lymphoma

Question 51

51. OI a. All have dentogenesis imperfecta b. Type 1 kyphoscoliosis c. Type 2 life d. Type 3 hearing impairment e. Type 4 blue sclera

Answer 51

OI a. All have dentogenesis imperfects: false, Robbins states type one has dentogenesis imperfecta, type 2 DOES NOT, Type 3 and 4 do. b. Type 1 kyphoscoliosis: false, mild so less likely kyphoscoliosis: *LW answer: Type I has kyphoscoliosis: unlikely as near normal stature, with bone deformity minor. c. Type 2 life: false lethal form d. Type 3 hearing impairment: Robbins states hearing imparment. e. Type 4 blue sclera *LW answer: Robbins states type 1, type 2, type 3 (intially at birth then become white) has blue sclera. Type IV has blue sclera: variable RP states type 1 has blue sclera, while type IV sclerae are often light blue in infancy, but the colour intensity varies - the sclerae may lighten to white later in childhood or early adulthood **LJS - all but type 2 have dentinogenesis imperfecta Type 3 hearing impairment - correct. Also has progressive kyphoscoliosis Type 4 - normal sclera

Question 52

52. PSC | a. Associated with IBD

Answer 52

52. PSC | a. Associated with IBD yes

Question 53

53. PBC wrong a. Smooth muscle antibody b. Hyperlipaemia c. Tendon xanthoma d. Scleroderma e. IBD

Answer 53

53. PBC wrong: * Wonder if poor recall, incorrectly recalling anti mitochondrial AB. a. Smooth muscle antibody: FALSE - anti-mitochondrial antibody. b. Hyperlipaemia: TRUE c. Tendon xanthoma: TRUE d. Scleroderma: TRUE e. IBD: uncommon, but uptodate states multiple case reports of PBC and UC, likely sharing similar genetic trait.

Question 54

54. Biliary atresia which is wrong a. Involves intra and extrahepatic bile ducts b. Small GB c. Associated with CHD d. Polysplenia e. TEF

Answer 54

54. Biliary atresia which is wrong a. Involves intra and extrahepatic bile ducts false, extra only b. Small GB c. Associated with CHD d. Polysplenia e. TEF

Question 55

55. Carcinoid most aggressive a. Gastric b. Duodenal c. Ileum d. Appendix e. Rectum

Answer 55

55. Carcinoid most aggressive 90% of ileal gastric and colonic carcinoids have penetrated through muscle wall and nodal spread at diagosis. ILEUM Confirmed as most aggressive. a. Gastric b. Duodenal c. Ileum I think this d. Appendix relatively benign incidental - almost never metastasize. e. Rectum relatively benign - almost never metastasize.

Question 56

56. Cancer causing pseudomyxoma most likely a. Appendix mucocele b. Appendix mucinous tumor c. Gastric signet ring

Answer 56

56. Cancer causing pseudomyxoma most likely a. Appendix mucocele false not all tumor may be LN obstruction b. Appendix mucinous tumor true c. Gastric signet ring true but less common than appendix

Question 57

57. Cervical cancer true a. Invading upper 1/3 vagina bad prognosis b. NET worst prognosis

Answer 57

57. Cervical cancer true a. Invading upper 1/3 vagina bad prognosis false, parametrial bad, lower third bad b. NET worst prognosis true super aggressive

Question 58

58. Epiphyseal true a. Clear cell chondrosarc b. Fibrosarcoma c. NOF d. ABC

Answer 58

58. Epiphyseal true a. Clear cell chondrosarc true b. Fibrosarcoma c. NOF d. ABC

Question 59

59. What doesn’t cause aortic regurg a. Bicuspid b. Endocarditis

Answer 59

59. What doesn’t cause aortic regurg a. Bicuspid true b. Endocarditis

Question 60

60. ?endocarditis extend to annulus to cause pericarditis

Answer 60

Valve ring abscess - vegetations erode into underlying myocardium = abscess 60. ?endocarditis extend to annulus to cause pericarditis

Question 61

61. What complication not associated with AMI a. LV thrombus b. Pericarditis fibrinous c. MR d. Tamponade e. AR

Answer 61

61. What complication not associated with AMI a. LV thrombus yes b. Pericarditis fibrinous yes c. MR yes papillary rupture d. Tamponade yes free wall rupture e. AR no

Question 62

62. DCM (false) a. Alcohol b. Sarcoid c. HTN d. Radiation

Answer 62

62. DCM a. Alcohol TRUE b. Sarcoid TRUE c. HTN TRUE via IHD d. Radiation: FALSE no constrictive pericarditis

Question 63

63. Which is upper oesophageal stenosis a. Zenkers b. Tumor c. Shasker A d. Epiphrenic e. Achalasia

Answer 63

63. Which is upper oesophageal stenosis a. Zenkers true, a distended Zenker sac may compress the anterior oesophagus resulting in stenosis. **LJS - Zenker can cause compression of the oesophageal lumen. Counts as a "stenosis"? Also tumour - SCC in upper oesophagus b. Tumor: possible but more common mid and lower. c. Shasker A: false - lower third d. Epiphrenic: false, lower e. Achalasia: false lower.

Question 64

64. Renal stones a. Medullary sponge b. ADPKD c. ARPKD d. MCDK e. Medullary cystic kidney disease

Answer 64

64. Renal stones a. Medullary sponge true b. ADPKD c. ARPKD d. MCDK e. Medullary cystic kidney disease

Question 65

65. What is not true about radial scar a. Fat in centre replaced by fibrous tissue b. Spiculation long c. Investigate after biopsy d. Ischemia

Answer 65

65. What is not true about radial scar a. Fat in centre replaced by fibrous tissue false black star b. Spiculation long c. Investigate after biopsy d. Ischemia

Question 66

66. Haemophilia B (false) a. Autosomal recessive b. Ballooning epiphysis c. Ankle knee destruction

Answer 66

66. Haemophilia B a. Autosomal recessive false, x linked b. Ballooning epiphysis c. Ankle knee destruction

Question 67

Osteomyelitis terms: - Sequestrum: - Involucrum: - Brodie abscess: - Sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre:

Answer 67

Osteomyelitis terms: - Sequestrum: Dead piece of bone / segmental necrosis. - Involucrum: Reactive new bone deposited as a seeve of living tissue around a segment of devitalised bone. - Brodie abscess: Small intra osseous abscess, involved cortex commonly, and walled by reactive bone. - Sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre: Jaw lesion associated with extensive new bone formation that obscures much of the underlying osseous structures.