MBB 1

Question 1

mnemonic for short acting local anesthetics

Answer 1

Poor Ester, she was deCLARED too SHORT to be an ARTIST
Procaine (converted to paba)
Chloroprocaine (v short duration)
articaine (v rapid onset)

Question 2

why do some people experience phantom limb pain?

Answer 2

because the brain has redistributed the cortical region that used to belong to the amputated limb to other parts of the body
the mind still perceives that the limb is present, so stimulation of the body part that has cortex from the phantom limb will also cause sensation on area where limb used to be

Question 3

What part of the body has no nociceptors?

Answer 3

BRAIN

Question 4

what are the 3 types of nociceptors; which is most common?

Answer 4

• polymodal mechanoheat receptors (respond to extreme pressure and temp and allergens) –> MOST COMMON
• mechanonociceptors (alpha delta fibers, pin prick pain)
• silent nociceptors (inflammation)

Question 5

what protein is necessary for differentiation of ventral spinal cord

Answer 5

sonic hedgehog (SHH)

Question 6

how does deep brain stimulation work?

Answer 6

• tries to prevent haphazard firing of subthalamus
• stimulation tries to decrease stimulation of subthalamus or globus pallidus internal to weaken indirect pathway (allows for some compensatory movement)

Question 7

what separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes

Answer 7

lateral fissure (sylvian fissure)

Question 8

emotional processing requires both _______ input and ______ processing

Answer 8

peripheral

central

Question 9

what will happen to the generator potential if you stimulate a nerve ending at two places?

what term describes this

Answer 9

• IT WILL INCREASE

spatial summation

Question 10

what happens if you lose olfactory neurons?

Answer 10

you can make more via basal cells! (decreases as you get older)

Question 11

in weber’s syndrome, what is affected

Answer 11

• occulomotor nucleus, corticospinal and corticobulbar tract –> contralateral body paralysis, contralateral lower facial paralysis, contralateral tongue, ipsilateral oculomotor paralysis (dilated pupil, down and out, droopy eyelid)

Question 12

name three conditions associated with inhibitory interneuron dysfunction in the cortex

Answer 12

• epilepsy, overexcitation of inhibitory interneurons
• hyperacusis, auditory system has lost control of excitation and inhibition,, any soudn is associated with painful stimuli
• schizophrenia- malformation of inhibitory interneurons

Question 13

if you lose your vertical gaze center what happen

if you lose your paramedian pontine reticular formation what happens

if you lose your frontal eye frields what happens?

if you lose your superior colliculus, what happens

if you lose a portion of place code, what happens

Answer 13

• can’t do verticle saccades
• can’t do horizontal saccades
• can do saccades, but will take longer and will be off
• can do saccades, but will take longer and will be off

there is redundancy between left frontal eye fields and supercolliclus

you will have a blindspot/blind sight that corresponds to that location in space (can still do imagined targets, but not fixed targets )

Question 14

what role does the pag and it’s downward structures play in sensation?

Answer 14

• can provide analgesia via stimulation (opioids at any of these levels can do this)
• stimulates raphe nuclei (which is serotonergic) which goes down and stimulates dorsal horn to relieve pain

Question 15

what separates the alar and basal plates

Answer 15

sulcus limitans

Question 16

name the three components of a local anesthetic and what they are important for

Answer 16

lipophilic- potency, duration of action

ester/amide- metabolism, hypersensitivity

hydrophilic- mechanism of action, onset of action

Question 17

what is wallenberg’s/lateral medullary syndrome?

Answer 17

can be due to occlusion of pica as it goes around medulla

will affect spinocerebellar tract –> ataxia
spinal trigeminal ganglion –> ipsilateral facial pain and temp loss
lateral spinothalamic tract –> contralateral body loss of pain and temp

Question 18

what are the five biogenic amines

Answer 18

• dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine, serotonin, histamine

Question 19

for the parasympathetic nervous system:

what are the length of pre and post ganglionic neurons

what does each ganglion release

where do the nerves for this system originate

what does this system regulate

What parts of the body have no parasympathetic innvervation

Answer 19

• pre are long and post are short
• pre and post release acetylcholine
• brain stem (cranial nerve 3,7,9,10) and sacral spine (S2-4)
• rest and digest (slows heart, mucus glands, digestion, urination)
• arms, leg, blood vessels of head and neck, adrenals

Question 20

after a stroke, some patients get severe spontaneous pain to certain areas of the body
describe why and what the term for this is

what can you do to treat it

Answer 20

• damage to somatosensory tracts that deliver pain –> leads to cortico pain neurons going wild
• thalamic pain or central pain syndrome
• mirror visual feedback for repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation

Question 21

describe the anterolateral pathway of bring general visceral afferents back to the spine/brainstem

Answer 21

• general visceral afferents go via splanchnic or spinal nerve back through dorsal root ganglion, decussate, and then go up dorsal column to nucleus solitarius OR synapse on interneurons/motor neurons for reflex

Question 22

what local anesthetic should you use if yo u are intolerant to epinephrine? why?

Answer 22

mepivacaine, has the least vasodilating effect

Question 23

what parts of the ear are affected in sensorineural hearing loss?

Answer 23

inner ear and beyond!

Question 24

what condition is optic neuritis classically associated with?

Answer 24

multiple sclerosis

Question 25

failure of the anterior neural pore to close causes what? failure of the posterior neural pore to close causes what? what can prevent majority of neural tube defects during pregnancy

Answer 25

anencephaly spina bifida folic acid

Question 26

what parts of the brain does the posterior cerebral artery innervate

Answer 26

inferior temporal lobe and occipital lobe

Question 27

describe the pathway for micturation and include the three types of nerves present

Answer 27

sympathetic (L1-3), sensory from hypogastric, keeps bladder relaxed and internal sphincter closed parasympathetic (S2-4), sensory from pelvic nerves, contracts bladder and relaxes internal spincter somatic (S2-4) sensory and motor from pudendal nerve, tonically contracts external sphincter until instruction from pons - bladder distension is senses and goes up to pons which coordinates parasympathetic activation, sympathetic inhibition, and inhbition of the pudendal nerve/external sphinctor

Question 28

what are the two types of neurons involved in the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts

Answer 28

layer V pyramidal neurons betz cells

Question 29

for what kind of stroke is tpA indicated in what window can you administer tpa

Answer 29

ischemic stroke (contraindicated for hemorrhagic stroke) less than 3 hours from onset of symptoms

Question 30

what are the three chambers of the cochlea? what fluid are they filled with?

Answer 30

MTV used to be famous on a grand SCALE ``` scala media (endolymph) scala tympani (perilymph) scala vestibule (perilymph) ```

Question 31

What is the medial geniculate nucleus involved in? what is its input from where is its output what does a lesion here cause?

Answer 31

- audition - inferior colliculus - primary auditory complex - no deficit since projections are bilateral, deficits only if lesion is bilateral

Question 32

what is the difference between pyramidal smile and extrapyramidal/duchenne smiling? where do they converge?

Answer 32

pyramidal- voluntary smiling (motor cortex) extapyramidal/duchenne- involuntary smiling (hypothalamus) reticular formation

Question 33

the strength of long term potentiation or depression is dependent on the time between presynapse activity and post synapse activity; what is this phenomenon called? if the presynaptic activity precedes the post synaptic activity, what will this result in? if the post synaptic activity precedes the pre synaptic activity, what will this result in?

Answer 33

- spike-timing dependent plasticity - long term potentiation - long term depression

Question 34

what is a transient ischemic attack (TIA) what is it strongly associated with what are clinical manifestations?

Answer 34

- a <5 min episode of ischemia that resolves itself - atherosclerosis (aka high indicator that another attack or stroke will occur) - left arm numbness, monoocular blindness, facial numbness, language disturbance, dizziness

Question 35

what is syringomyelia? what deficits would you expect

Answer 35

- condition of ballooning of the central canal in the spinal cord (usually due to chiari malformation) - destruction of ventral white commissure --> bilateral loss of pain and temp

Question 36

the ____ (more,less) myelinated and the ______ (larger/smaller) the diameter of a neuron, the higher the susceptibility of a local anesthetic to cause a block give an example of a neuron like this

Answer 36

less myelinated smaller diameter pain neuron

Question 37

the _______ is the weakest amount of stimulus necessary that can be detected 50% of the time

Answer 37

absolute threshold

Question 38

describe activity dependent/experience dependent learning in the context of long term potentiation and long term depression

Answer 38

- increased use of certain synapses and decreased use of synapses allows the brain to adapt over time long term potentiation- synaptic strength increases when presynaptic and post synaptic neuron fire simultaneously (neurons that fire together wire together) long term depression- synaptic strength decreases when presynaptic and post synaptic neurons fire asynchronously (neurons that fire out of sync lose their link)

Question 39

what is encoding failure what is retrieval failure

Answer 39

- when your ability to consolidate is disrupted, aka by substance abuse or trauma - the memory is stored but you can't retrieve it

Question 40

how much of glucose is used for aerobic respiration, glycogen synthesis, amino acid synthesis, and nadph synthesis

Answer 40

85% aerobic respiration 5% amino acid synthesis 5% glycogen synthesis 5% nadph synthesis

Question 41

describe energy consumption from the prenatal period until adulthood

Answer 41

- prenatal more anaerobic (glycolysis) than aerobic (little oxygen used) - birth to 6 months- less dependence on glucose and more dependence on ketones from fatty breast milk - after 6 months and throughout childhood, will use aerobic respiration af (50% of body consumption of o2 between 4-9) - o2 consumption decreases to 20% in adulthood

Question 42

which semi circular canal resides on which axis and give an example of a motion that would activate the canal

Answer 42

- horizontal canal --> z axis, saying no - anteriorcanal ---> y axis, saying yes - posterior canal --> x axis, cartwheel

Question 43

name the 4 things that neural crest cells differentiate into?

Answer 43

``` MANS melanocytes autonomic ganglia neurosecretory cells sensory ganglia ```

Question 44

what are the three types of ionotropic glutamate receptors; what functions are they involved with? does glutamate bind to metabotropic receptors? which receptor may require a co-agonist? name the co-agonist

Answer 44

AMPA: everywhere, used in most excitatory synapses NMDA: used in learning, memory, synaptic plasticity Kainate: not well understood yes!! 3 classes (don't need to know specifics) NMDA receptor- glycine

Question 45

where on the spinal cord do upper motor neuron axons from the motor cortex go? what does this mean about what lower motor neurons they regulate? where on the spinal cord do upper motor neuron axons from the brain stem go? what does this mean about what lower motor neurons they regulate?

Answer 45

- lateral white matter, regulate lower motor neurons that affect distal structures/fine touch - medial white matter, regulate posture and balance

Question 46

what artery supplies the putamen, caudate and internal capsule? what does it branch off of

Answer 46

lenticulostriate artery middle cerebral artery

Question 47

depression has been associated with increased blood flow to which region of the brain? what can decrease the blood flow?

Answer 47

pre frontal cortex anti-depressants, ssri

Question 48

what is the difference between a noncommunicating hydrocephalus and a communicating hydrocephalus?

Answer 48

non-communicating- due to obstruction of csf flow, so csf accumulates through anterior fontanelle communicating- issue with reabsorption from arachnoid granulations

Question 49

what is tabes dorsalis what deficits would you have

Answer 49

- demyelination of afferent fibers bilaterally in dorsal column - will have bilateral loss of fine touch/proprioception

Question 50

where in the thalamus do body somatosensory neurons synapse? what about head somatosensory neurons? what brodmann's areas do they project do?

Answer 50

VPL VPM Brodmann's 3,1,2

Question 51

what is the medial longitudinal fasciculus? what is it involved in

Answer 51

the tract of nerves from the abducens nucleus to the occulomotor nucleus - voluntary gaze/ medial rectus contraction

Question 52

what is a specific receptor that modulates synaptic plasticity of thalamic cortical nuclei? does this process happen all the time?

Answer 52

- nmda receptor (glutamate) | - only during critical period

Question 53

what would happen to your memory if you lose your hippocampus? what types of memory are unaffected

Answer 53

- can't consolidate declarative long term memory | - working memory and long term nondeclarative memory

Question 54

the cavernous sinus and superior sagittal sinus drain into the ______

Answer 54

transverse sinus

Question 55

what are two ways to convey the intensity of a stimulus

Answer 55

- increase the number or frequency of action potentials (NOT THE SIZE THOUGH) - increase the number of sensory receptors involved/recruited (ex: a small stimulus only stimulates one receptor but a strong stimulus stimulates/recruits multiple sensory receptors)

Question 56

what is bitemporal hemianopsia? what can cause it? what is a sudden severe version of this called?

Answer 56

- loss of temporal visual field bilaterally - anything that compresses optic chiasm, usually pituitary tumor - if sudden growth of tumor or hemorraging of tumor --> pituitary apoplexy

Question 57

What is the pulvinar involved in? what is its input from where is its output what does a lesion here cause?

Answer 57

- higher order visual processing - super and inferior colliculi, lateral and medial geniculate nuclei - attentiona/neglect deficit syndromes

Question 58

the lower the pK, the _____ (slower,faster) the onset of a drug. why?

Answer 58

faster | more of molecules is in unionized/uncharged form, so it can diffuse faster

Question 59

what size motor unit is better for fine touch/detail? what size motor unit is better if you need to generate significant force? what motor unit has the lowest threshold for innervation? what about highest threshold?

Answer 59

- small - large - small - large

Question 60

what role does the nose play in taste?

Answer 60

- large role, odorants from food go up behind palate and into nose, if you have cold or loss of olfaction, food doesn't taste as good

Question 61

If a patient had right abducen nerve palsy, what would happen if you asked the patient to look to the right? what would if you asked them to look to the left?

Answer 61

- if they looked to the right, the left eye would function normally and move to the right but the right eye would not move (esotropia) - if they looked to the left, both eyes would function normally and look to the left

Question 62

what cortex is in the post-central gyrus

Answer 62

somatosensory cortex

Question 63

in medial pontine syndrome, what is affected

Answer 63

- abducens nucleus and corticospinal tract --> ipsilateral lateral rectus paralysis and contralateral body deficits

Question 64

what is the limbic system composed off what is its function?

Answer 64

- components of telecenphalon, diencephalon, and mesencephalon, aka fornix, cingulate gyrus, amygdala, nucleus accumbands, hypothalamus, mammillary body, hippocampus ``` - MLEM Please motivation learning emotion memory pleasure ```

Question 65

how do dry and wet age related macular degeneration differ? which form can be halted or reversed, with what

Answer 65

dry: slow progressive bilateral loss of central vision (most common) wet: complication of dry, oxidative damage to choroid vessels leads to increases vegf and neovascularization that hemorrhages (CAN BE REVERSED OR HALTED, WITH INTRAOCULAR ANTI VEGF))

Question 66

what protein is necessary for differentiation of the dorsal spinal cord and hind brain

Answer 66

bone morphogenic protein (BMP)

Question 67

what protein is necessary for differentiation of neural crest cells and cerebellar granule cells

Answer 67

Wnt

Question 68

describe the stretch/deep tendon reflex

Answer 68

- monosynaptic - feel extension stretch (ex: filling drink) --> 1a and II afferents activated and synapse on alpha motor neurons to flex the same muscle - -> send excitatory synapse to synergistic muscle to help - -> send inhibitory synapse to antagonist muscles

Question 69

what is the place code in reference to vision? for the vestibuloocular reflex, how do you convert place code into rate code?

Answer 69

- the fact that every point along an x y axis of your vision has a specific place in the brain that encodes it - the faster your head moves, the faster and more frequency action potentials are sent to the placecode, which is hard wired to the eom

Question 70

What is the ventral lateral region involved in? what is its input from where is its output what does a lesion here cause?

Answer 70

- modulation of coordinated movement - cerebellum - primary motor cotex - akinesia (loss of voluntary movement)

Question 71

describe the nerve fibers in the pathway for the baroreceptor reflex

Answer 71

- blood pressure increases, which the carotid body sinus detects via stretch; glosopharyngeal afferents are sent and go through petrosal ganglion and synapse in nucleus solitarius, then motor afferents via vagus go through nucleus ambiguous and to heart to decrease hr and relexively sympathetic is inhibited

Question 72

what condition is drusen associated with

Answer 72

age related macular degeneration

Question 73

what area of the brain is associated with comprehension of language? in what lobe is this area?

Answer 73

wernicke's area temporal lobe (think, its in the same lobe as hearing)

Question 74

what are the two main functions of the pons what are other functions

Answer 74

- regulation of breathing (pneumotaxic center) and signal transmission within the brain (ie to or from cerebellum or cerebrum) - balance, hearing, taste, deep sleep

Question 75

what lab value will be elevated during pregnancy if a neural tube defect is present? what two sources can you measure this lab value from?

Answer 75

- alpha feto protein | - maternal serum or amniotic fluid

Question 76

describe symptoms of lower motor neuron syndrome

Answer 76

``` paresis or paralysis hypotonia hyporeflexia atrophy fibrillations or fasciculation flaccidity ```

Question 77

describe the pathway from the putamen being activated to the cerebral cortex (direct pathway)

Answer 77

1) need significant input from multiple inputs to surpass significant threshold in putamen spiny neurons 2) release GABA, which inhibits the globus pallidus internus 3) this disinhibits GABA release from the gp internus to the thalamus 4) now the thalamus can send signal to specific places in the cortex to activate specific motor neurons

Question 78

what is the miller law of 7?

Answer 78

max you can remember is 7 units +/- 2

Question 79

if you want visceral pain to reach consciousness in the brain, what pathway do you take? describe the pathway

Answer 79

dorsal column pathway -enter the dorsal horn and synapse at midline, then travel up the dorsal column (with medial lemniscus) and eventually reach VP of thalamus which then synapses on the cortex

Question 80

which two sections of the spinal cord are enlarged and why?

Answer 80

- cervical (C3-T1) for increased nerve cells and connections to process information from the arms - lumbosacral (L1-S2) for increased nerve cells and connections to process information from the legs

Question 81

in additon to v and t snares fusing, what is a necessary protein that links vesicle release to ca influx?

Answer 81

synaptotagmin

Question 82

what is the mid brain composed of? what does it do?

Answer 82

- tectum (posterior) - cerebral peduncles (tectum and crus cerebri) ``` - VHS TAMpering vision hearing sleep/wake temperature regulation arousal motor control ```

Question 83

give examples of crude touch modalities in general are the axons big and myelenated or small and unmyelenated

Answer 83

pain coarse touch temperature - small and unmyelenated

Question 84

what are optokinetic movements how does this differ from vestibulo-ocular movements

Answer 84

- you are in an object that is moving and you are stabilize your gaze on an object passing by, and then your eye is capable of shifting and stabilizing on the next object (optokinetic nystagmus) - this is movement of the eyes that will stabilize the gaze when your head is bobbing/moving (will move in the opposite direction of your head) (vestibulokinetic nystagus)

Question 85

what is a main difference between bupivicaine and ropivicaine? (2 things)

Answer 85

bupivicaine is significantly more cardiotoxic and can be used post-joint replacement surgeries

Question 86

what is the main difference between nonproliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

Answer 86

- proliferative has neovascularizations/angiogenesis

Question 87

in medial medullary syndrome, what is affected

Answer 87

- hypoglossal nerve and cortico spinal tract --> contralateral body deficits and ipsilateral tongue deviation

Question 88

parkinson's disease is due to neurodegeneration of what? what symptoms do you get a result and why what medication can help treat and why

Answer 88

substantia nigra pars compacta bradykinesia (slow movement), rigidity and stooped posture, resting tremor (hypokinetic tremor) - due to the fact that now you need higher threshold for activation direct pathway and lower threshold for activating indirect pathway L-dopa- dopamine precursor, will create more dopamine to make remaining dopamine pathways stronger

Question 89

what is the difference between anterograde and retrograde amnesia

Answer 89

anterograde- can't form new memories retrograde- can't retrieve old memories

Question 90

what are the three types of GABA receptors

Answer 90

GABA A- everywhere ,implicated in many drugs (benzos, Alcohol, steroids, Anesthetics GABA B- metaBotropic GABA C- in the eye (C is for SEEing)

Question 91

which anesthetic type is metabolized in the liver?

Answer 91

- amides

Question 92

what neuron is responsible for regulating the synapse between ganglion neurons and bipolar cells

Answer 92

amacrine cell

Question 93

describe the pathway of memory input in the hypothalamus name a clinical scenario that often implicates this pathway

Answer 93

- from the hippocampus via the fornix to the mamillary body to the anterior hypothalamus - Korsakoff's from b1 deficiency and drinking --> short term memory loss due to damage to mamillary body

Question 94

what is proprioception? what are the size of the axons

Answer 94

- recognizes our self position and movement | - large and myelinated

Question 95

what is the trace decay theory?

Answer 95

- there is a path to where a memory is stored, and if you don't rehearse the memory, then the path to that memory wil fade but the memory will still be there

Question 96

a stimulus causes a(n) _____ potential if the stimulus is strong enough to reach threshold, it becomes a(n) _____ potential

Answer 96

- receptor/generator | - action

Question 97

what functions does the medulla do?

Answer 97

- regulation of breathing - heart and blood vessel function - digestion - sneezing swallowing

Question 98

what is the most common demographic to get vertigo?

Answer 98

old women

Question 99

name four cns diseases can affect smell and taste

Answer 99

dementia parkinsons multiple sclerosis schizophrenia

Question 100

what kind of receptor are hair cell receptors?

Answer 100

mechanoreceptors

Question 101

what local anesthetic can cause methemoglobinemia? what can you use to treat it?

Answer 101

- prilocaine methylene blue

Question 102

what is the only glial cell in the retina? what does it do

Answer 102

muller cell - keeps parallel array of retinal layers and eats dead neurons

Question 103

what are the two membranes of the cochlea

Answer 103

tectorium and basilar

Question 104

if you have 3rd nerve palsy, what should the affected eye look like?

Answer 104

- dilated, pointing down and out (only 4th and 6th nerve muscles working, aka superior oblique and lateral rectus), droopy eyelid

Question 105

What is the VPL and VPM involved in? what is its input from where is its output what does a lesion here cause?

Answer 105

- somatosensation for head (VPM) and body (VPL) - VPL--> medial lemniscus - VPM --> ventraltrigeminothalamic tract lateral spinothalamic tract (lateral funniculus) - somatosensory cortex - contralateral loss of all somatosensation

Question 106

in humans, the rostral caudal axis is tilted forward due to the _________ made during embryogenesis

Answer 106

cephalic flexure

Question 107

what parts of the brain does the middle cerebral artery innervate

Answer 107

frontal lobe, parietal lobe, and temporal bone

Question 108

where do layer 2 pyramidal neurons go to? where does layer 3 pyramidal neurons go where do layer 5 pyramidal neurons go where do layer 6 neurons go

Answer 108

- go through cortex layers and to other cortices within same hemisphere - go through cortices to cortices within the same and contralateral cortices go to subcortical structures like superior colliculi, brainstem, spinal cord - thalamus

Question 109

what do hair cells have on their surface to detect vibration? what connects them to each other?

Answer 109

stereocilia tip links

Question 110

what part of the hypothalamus is sexually dimorphic

Answer 110

preoptic area

Question 111

what do interneurons do within the 6 layers of the cortex?

Answer 111

- inhibitory, turned on my pyramidal neurons, act locally usually within the same layer

Question 112

What is the anterior nucleus involved in? what is its input from where is its output what does a lesion here cause?

Answer 112

- memory, emotion - mamillothalamic tract - cingulate gyrus - significant memory deficit/amnesia

Question 113

80% of neurons in the cortex are _____ neurons what are layer 4 neurons called

Answer 113

pyramidal/principal neurons - stellate neurons

Question 114

what is the main neurotransmitter for pain? what does it do

Answer 114

SUBSTANCE P (P FOR PAIN) - sensitizes nociceptors - potent vasodilator - releases 5ht from platelets - releases histamine from mast cells

Question 115

what are the two type of muscle spindle receptors? how do they differ?

Answer 115

- Group Ia: rapid adapting, respond to changes in muscle stretch and vibration - Group II: slow adapting; respond to sustained stretch/limb position

Question 116

what are the two major sites of action for norepinehprine and what functions does it facilitate what transports norepi into vesicles what enzymes break it down what type of post synaptic receptors does it bind to?

Answer 116

- periphery- sympathetic nervous system - locus ceruleus- attention and arousal - vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT) - monoamine oxidase and cytosoli catechol o methyltransferase - metabotropic (alpha and beta )

Question 117

neurons from the motor cortex ________ at the caudal medullary pyramid to innervate the contralateral side of the body

Answer 117

decussate

Question 118

what cells provide scaffolding for the nervous system, take up potassium, provide glucose, and can regulate neurotransmitters?

Answer 118

astrocytes

Question 119

What is the ventral anterior region involved in what is its input from where is its output what does a lesion here cause?

Answer 119

- initiation and planning of movement - basal ganglia - premotor cortex - akinesia (loss of voluntary movement)

Question 120

there are three divisions to proprioception, describe them and where they project to

Answer 120

- conscious (learning new motor skills/plasticity)- goes to somatosensory cortex - unconscious (reflex control)- goes to spinal cord - unconscious (reflexes and motor control)- goes to cerebellum

Question 121

what process shares a similar mechanism to long term potentiation but actually does the opposite and can reverse long term potentiation? describe the process

Answer 121

- long term depression - usually involved in low frequency, constant stimuli - activates nmda receptors, but instead of secondary cascade of kinases that brings more ampa receptors to the surface, it activates phosphatases that internalize more ampa receptors

Question 122

name some physical exam findings consistent with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy

Answer 122

- dot blot hemorrhages, microaneurysms, exudates, macular edema

Question 123

CSF is made in the ______ describe the flow of CSF blockage of CSF can lead to _____

Answer 123

- choroid plexus - lateral ventricles --> interventricular foramen --> third ventricle --> cerebral aqueduct --> 4th ventricle (lushka and magendie) --> taper into central canal - hydrocephalus

Question 124

how many nodes of ranvier must a local anesthetic block in order to block the entire axon? what kind of neuron would this be easier to do?

Answer 124

3 nodes small unmyelinated neurons

Question 125

for idiopathic intracranial hypertension: what demographic is most commonly affected what is the largest risk factor name clinical manifestations

Answer 125

- women of childbearing age - obesity/weight gain - headache, visual blackout, pulsatile tinnitus, enlarged blindspot

Question 126

what affect does leptin have in the hypothalamus, and which nuclei have receptors for it? what would happen if you had a leptin receptor deficiency

Answer 126

- will reduce appetite anterior, lateral, paravenricular and arcuate nuclei would gain weight af because your appetite is never supressed

Question 127

huntington's disease to do to a ______ repeat and is due to neurodegeneration of ______ what can you use to treat it and what does it do

Answer 127

CAG striatum to globus pallidus external haloperidol, dopamine antagonist, will help try to decrease threshold of activation for indirect pathway so it can function more

Question 128

describe rachischisis

Answer 128

- neural folds fail to fuse (type of spina bifida)

Question 129

where are the first order neurons of trigeminal afferents present? what is the one exception? where do the neurons go after?

Answer 129

- trigeminal ganglion (outside of cns) - proprioception first order neuron cell bodies are in mesencephalic nucleus in midbrain proprioception neurons --> mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus (midbrain) fine touch/pressure neurons --> main sensory trigeminal nucleus (pons) pain and temperature neurons--> spinal trigeminal nucleus (medulla and spine)

Question 130

what 2 swellings does the prosencephalon eventually form

Answer 130

telencephalon and diencephalon

Question 131

if the convolutions of your cerebral cortex are very small, what is this called? what clinical manifestations is this associated with?

Answer 131

microgyria - mental retardation and physical defects

Question 132

what separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe?

Answer 132

central sulcus

Question 133

medially situated motor neuron pools in the ventral horn innervate ____ muscles and are involved more in ______ laterally situated motor neuron pools in the ventral horn innervate ____ muscles and are involved more in ______

Answer 133

- proximal/trunk - balance/posture - distal limb - fine motor movement

Question 134

where do lower motor neurons originate? where do they synapse?

Answer 134

- brainstem (cranial nerve nuclei) - spinal cord (ventral horn) - directly on skeletal muscle

Question 135

what artery supplies the occipital lobe? if stroke occurs in this artery, why do some patients manage to maintain central vision?

Answer 135

- posterior cerebral artery - small portion of middle cerebral artery supplies portion of occipital lobe responsible for central vision, so some blood supply is maintained in a posterior cerebral artery stroke

Question 136

if you want to test and superior rectus and inferior rectus, where should the patient look

Answer 136

- out and then up and down

Question 137

describe the process by which glutamate is made and recycled

Answer 137

1) glutamine is brought into the presynaptic terminal via System A 2 Transporter (SAT2) 2) glutamine is converted into glutamate and transported into vesicles via Vesicular Glutamate Transporters (VGLUTs) 3) once glutamate is released into the synaptic cleft, it is either taken up by the post synaptic neuron or is taken up by astrocytes via Excitatory Amino Acid Transportors (EAATs) 4) glutamate is converted by into glutamine via glutamine synthetase 5) glutamine leaves the System N transporter 1 (SN1) and the process starts all over

Question 138

anencephaly is due to what? what is missing? is this compatible with life?

Answer 138

failure of the anterior neural pore to close some or all of the cerebral hemispheres nah

Question 139

describe the process of how ischemia leads to neuronal cell death

Answer 139

- ischemia --> decreased o2 use and increased lactic acid - ion pumps fail --> k released into ecm and neurons get depolarized - neurons release glutamate vesicles, which activate nmda receptors --> ca influx --> cell apoptosis triggered

Question 140

what is kluver bucy syndrome what is another disease that is similar and describe what is affected

Answer 140

- damage to amygdala, have sexually inapprorpiate behavior, loss of fear and anger, emotional flattening, hypermetamorphosis, oral tendency (explore things with mouth), can't recognize faces urbache- wiethe disease: bilateral calcification and atrophy of anterior temporal lobes, can't recognize fear or anger

Question 141

why is the cornea clear but the sclera is white what is one function they both do?

Answer 141

both are made of collagen fibers, but cornea's collagen fibers are very organized whereas sclera's are disorganized, which causes it to be white PROTECTION

Question 142

what part of the brain contextualizes your emotion input and response based on what is socially appropriate

Answer 142

pre frontal cortex

Question 143

describe the process in which vesicles are recycled after releasing NT

Answer 143

1) clathrin coats membrane and allows for significant invagination 2) dynamin pinches membrane off to form coated vesicle 3) auxillin and hsc 70 remove clathrin coating, making it ready to accept NT again

Question 144

what is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the cns; what kind of receptor is it; what is the reversal potential? what is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the cns? what kind of receptor is it; what is the reversal potential

Answer 144

- glutamate; non-selective cation ionotropic receptor; reversal at 0 mV - GABA; chloride ionotropic receptor, reversal at -70 mV

Question 145

what are the three main symptoms of horner's syndrome name 5 causes Is it a sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system problem

Answer 145

miosis, anhydrosis( not sweating), and ptosis apical lung tumor, dissected carotid body, tumor in cavernous sinus, stroke sympathetic! (lose it)

Question 146

what area of the brain is associated with the motor component of speech? in what lobe is this area?

Answer 146

broca's area frontal lobe (think, it's in the same area as motor cortex)

Question 147

if a patient has right eye internuclear opthalmoplegia, what would happen if you asked the patient to look to the right? what would if you asked them to look to the left?

Answer 147

- if they looked to the right, right and left eye would function normally and move to the right - if they looked to the left, left eye would move to left, but would be pulsating (nystagmus) and the right eye would not move (exotropia)

Question 148

what is the name of the condition in which the convolutions of the cerebral hemisphere do not form? what clinical manifestations occur

Answer 148

lissencephalia mental retardation, seizures, muscle spasticity, failure to thrive

Question 149

name the term for the stimulation of inhibitory neurons improve the precision of receptive fields as transmission ascends the neuraxis

Answer 149

lateral inhibition

Question 150

what is autonomic dysreflexia?

Answer 150

- condition due to a spinal lesion above T6; any remotely aversive stimulus below the lesion can't get sent up therefore sets off a sympathetic reflex arc, which will leads to vasoconstriction, aka htn, impotence,

Question 151

how is csf reabsorbed

Answer 151

via arachnoid granulations

Question 152

what part of the brain can you stimulate and decrease depressive symptoms? what system is this region of the brain a part of? name other parts of this system that are heavily implicated in emotion

Answer 152

- subcallossal cingulate cortex limbic system - amygdala, hypothalamus mediodorsal nucleus of the thalaus, prefrontal cortex, basal ganglia

Question 153

what is memory consolidation when does it happen?

Answer 153

transfer of immediate or working memory into long term memory via repeated exposure - transfer happens in slow wave sleep and stabilizing happens via REM sleep via synapses

Question 154

what are the effects of local anesthetics on the heart?

Answer 154

- can decreased myocardial excitability and increase refractory period, treating some arrhythmias - can also cause myocardial depression and hypotension and death

Question 155

# define a motor unit what is the typical size

Answer 155

- a motor neuron and the muscle fibers that its axons innervate TRICK QUESTION THEY CAN VARY EXTENSIVELY BASED ON NEED

Question 156

what is the difference between classical conditioning and operant conditioning what happens if you keep using unconditioned response without providing the reward?

Answer 156

- operant: behavior can be modulated based on consequence - classical: you can pair unconditioned stimulus to a conditioned stimulus to illicit a response from the unconditioned stimulus - extinction

Question 157

What type of glial cell covers CNS neurons with myelin? what is its PNS counterpart?

Answer 157

oligodendrocytes schwann cells

Question 158

what happens in capsular hemiplegia?

Answer 158

- lesion to internal capsule caused defects in corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts --> right sided body hemiplegia and right lower face paralysis and right tongue paralysis

Question 159

what type of fibers go between different levels of the brain (ex: from cortex to brainstem)

Answer 159

- projection fibers

Question 160

how many spinal nerves are there? name each section and how many belong to each

Answer 160

31 pairs ``` 8 cervical 12 thoracic 5 lumbar 5 sacral 1 coccygeal ```

Question 161

what is hyperopia

Answer 161

when the lens focuses and image behind the retina (eye is too short)

Question 162

where are meissner corpuscles located? what modality are they are they rapidly or slow adapting do they respond to high or low frequencies? is their receptive field large or small give an example of what they are useful for

Answer 162

- near epidermis - tactile discrimination - rapid - low - small - rapid changing stimuli to skin, ex: movement of ball in hands with juggling, object slipping in hand

Question 163

does the telencephalon and diencephalon come from the alar or basal plates

Answer 163

alar plates

Question 164

what is the suprachiasmatic nucleus in the hypothalamus responsible for?

Answer 164

- circadian rhythm - reproductive cycles - receives direct input from the retina

Question 165

what are gamma motor neurons and what is their purpose

Answer 165

- motor neurons that cause stretch of the intrafusal muscle spindle - keeps muscle spindle taught so that it can tonically sense change in muscle stretch

Question 166

what is responsible for color vision and acuity? What is present abundantly more: rods or cones? which one is more sensitive to light and good for night vision where are cones located

Answer 166

- cones (Color Cones) - rods - rods - fovea

Question 167

what two swellings does the rhombencephalon eventually form

Answer 167

metencephalon and myelencephalon

Question 168

where does the tectospinal tract originate; where does it project to what is it's purpose what type of neurons are in this tract

Answer 168

- superior colliculus to cervical spine - coordinate movement of head/neck with movement of eyes - upper motor neurons

Question 169

for giant cell arteritis: what demographic is commonly affected what are the common clinical manifestations what lab values may be elevated what test should you order? what treatment would you give? do you need a definitive diagnosis to start treatment

Answer 169

- elderly (>50) - scalp tenderness, unilateral vision loss, jaw claudication, weightloss, fever, night sweats - esr and crp - temporal artery biopsy; give high dose steroids immediately, do not wait for biopsy

Question 170

the alar plate eventually becomes ___ nuclei the basal plate eventually becomes _____ nuclei

Answer 170

sensory (dorsal) motor (ventral)

Question 171

what process can the relationship between the AMPA and NMDA receptor explain? explain the relationship

Answer 171

long term potentiation - NMDA receptor usually senses baseline negative potential and binds Mg in order to prevent entry of Na+; when glutamate binds to AMPA, Na rushes into cell and then Mg dissociates once the internal potential becomes more positive; then NMDA will bind glutamate and let Na in; this will also cause more AMPA receptors to be inserted into the membrane

Question 172

if you perform the weber test and the patient lateralizes to the right ear, what two scenarios could cause this?

Answer 172

right sided conductive hearing loss | OR left sided sensorineural hearing loss

Question 173

what part of the spine has lateral horns? which horn, dorsal or ventral, relays sensory information? what about motor information?

Answer 173

- thoracic - sensory- dorsal - motor- ventral "Stupid DMV"

Question 174

neurons from the motor cortex decussate at the caudal ________ to innervate the contralateral side of the body

Answer 174

medullary pyramid

Question 175

what hemisphere of the brain is associated with emotional inflection of speech? what hemisphere is associated with happy emotions, what would happen if you had a lesion/stroke here? what hemisphere is associated with negative emotions?

Answer 175

- right - left, depression - right

Question 176

what is argyl roberston pupil/dorsal midbrain pupil what can cause it

Answer 176

- damage to pre-tectal nucleus causes loss of light reflex in both eyes but doesn't affect pupillary constriction due to accomodation (completely different mechanism) - syphillis, tumor, hydrocephalus

Question 177

what two function does the ciliary ganglion control

Answer 177

- pupillary constriction and accommmodation of lens

Question 178

what are the four mechanoreceptors of tactile discrimination

Answer 178

meissners corpuscle merkel's disc ruffini corpuscle pacinian corpuscle

Question 179

what are the main unconventional neurotransmitters? name two of them what is unconventional about them

Answer 179

- cannabinoids: anandamide, 2AG they aren't prepackaged in vesicles; they can travel backwards and forwards; made from membrane lipids as a result of increase ca influx, can block presynaptic ca channels

Question 180

describe the indirect pathway (from caudate/putamen to thalamus/cortex)

Answer 180

1) putamen/caudate spiny neurons receives significant input from cortex and fires GABA to globus palludius externus 2) globus pallidus externus now cannot inhibit its target, the subthalamic nuceli 3) the subthalamic nuclei send positive signal to the globus pallidus which sends inhibitory signal to thalamus to the keep their respective nuclei that go to the cortex inhibited

Question 181

in adults, can thalamocortical neurons be modified?

Answer 181

no, only intracortical neurons/pathways

Question 182

what are the first targets in the cortex for mitral neurons ? (4)

Answer 182

- amygdala - olfactory tubercle - entorhinal cortex - pyriform cortex

Question 183

describe the function of wide dynamic range neurons and where they are

Answer 183

- in the lamina II of the dorsal horn/substania gelatinosa - when alpha delta pain fiber (fast initial pain), it will synapse on wdr and cause it go up to the brain stem - however there are also inhibitory neurons that can inhibit the alpha delta fiber (like rubbing on your hand, wdr can resond to touch) - HOWEVER, cfibers (which is that longer burning pain) can act on inhibitory interneurons that inhibit the original interneurons

Question 184

can glucose make it across the blood brain barrier

Answer 184

yes through GLUT 1 transporter

Question 185

what is the cranial pathway (2) for bringing general visceral afferents back to he brainstem?

Answer 185

- glossopharyngeal from head neck, abdomen and thorax goes to petrosal ganglion and then to nucleus solitarius - vagus from GI, heart and bladder goes to nodossal ganglion and then to nucleus solitarius

Question 186

describe the pathway from wanting to voluntarily turn your gaze to the right to actually doing it

Answer 186

- front left eye fields cross and synapse at paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF), then synapse at abducens nucleus - for the right eye, then the abducens nerve travels to the lateral rectus - for the left eye, the medial longitudinal fasciculus goes from abducens nucleus to occulomotor nucleus, and then occulomotor nucleus goes to the medial rectus

Question 187

what are the three types of receptors for proprioception

Answer 187

- muscle spindle - Golgi tendon organs - joint receptors

Question 188

define absolute threshold

Answer 188

the weakest amount of stimulus necessary that can be detected 50% of the time

Question 189

what is the pathway for olfaction

Answer 189

- first olfactory receptor cells (neurons) detect the odor, go through cribriform plate to glomerulus inside of olfactory bulb and synapse; then mitral cell synapses with the glomerulus and travels through olfactory tract (periglomerular and tufted cells can synapse on mitral cell to increase specificity - goes to central areas like amygdala, pyriform cortex,, entorhinal cortex, and olfactory tubercle as well as primary olfactory cortex

Question 190

what protein is necessary for both ventral and dorsal spinal cord identity as well as neuronal differentiation in the cns?

Answer 190

retinoic acid

Question 191

where are peptide neurotransmitters made? where are small neurotransmitters made? which type of neurotransmitters is usually docked at the membrane and can be released with only one action potential?

Answer 191

- peptide: made in cell body with vesicles - small: precursors made in cell body and final form made in the terminal small nt's (constantly used and released, peptide nt's need more than one ap)

Question 192

how can the hypothalamus be divided?

Answer 192

anterior, thalamus, posterior medial periventricular, medial, lateral

Question 193

What is the lateral geniculate nucleus involved in? what is its input from where is its output what does a lesion here cause?

Answer 193

- vision - optic nerve - primary visual cortex - contralateral homynomous hemianopsia (contralateral half visual field lost in both eyes)

Question 194

describe the vistibular reflex pathways

Answer 194

1) input from vestibulocochlear nerve goes to the vestibular nuclei; sends some projects to the eye 2) vestibular nuclei sends projects down lateral vestibulospinal tract (goes to every level of spine for posture) medial vestibulospinal tract (goes to cervical spine to control compensatory head movements based on body position)

Question 195

what is the difference between saccade and pursuit and vergence what are they all

Answer 195

ways to shift gaze - saccade is a quick movement of your eyes to a fixed target (200 msec delay) - pursuit is a slower movement of watching a moving target (ex: a plane) - vergence is adjusting axis for each eye based on the different distances of the target from the person

Question 196

describes the pathophysiology of an adies tonic pupil what condition is it similar to? how do they differ? what can cause this?

Answer 196

- damage to ciliary nerve which carries both accommodating and pupillary constricting fibers; fibers regrow abnormally, and now you get no light reflex and sustained accommodating near reflex - argyl robertson pupil/dorsal midbrain pupil, difference because adies tonic pupil is usually unilateral and has a sustained near response - diabetes, autoimmune conditions, idiopathic

Question 197

does the back have dense receptor regions or less dense receptor regions do they have large or small receptive fields? why

Answer 197

- less dense receptor regions - large receptive fields doesn't need fine detail stimuli on a regular basis

Question 198

what is presbycusis? is it sensorineural or conductive?

Answer 198

age related hearing loss sensorineural (lose hair cells as you age?)

Question 199

what neurons have the fastest onset? slowest onset?

Answer 199

pain and autonomic neurons motor neurons

Question 200

what is an encephalocele?

Answer 200

- a type of neural tube defect/hernia in which brain contents protrude out of a congenital opening of skull

Question 201

what type of hearing loss do hearing aids help? what do they do

Answer 201

conductive hearing loss amplify sound

Question 202

name 3 functions of the ciliary body

Answer 202

- zonules suspend the lens - ciliary body produces aqueous humor - accommodation

Question 203

describe the pathway for somatosensory neurons in the head

Answer 203

- V1, V2 and V3 travel to trigeminal ganglion and have cell bodies there (proprioceptive neurons exception, cell bodies in mesencephalic nucleus) - fine touch/pressure fibers go and synapse at the main sensory trigeminal nucleus in the pons - pain and temperature fibers descend to medulla/spinal cord and synapse at spinal trigeminal nucleus - (proprioceptive nuclei go to mesencephalic nuclei where their cell bodies are ) - both fine touch and pain/temp pathways cross midline and ascend together as the ventrotrigeminothalamic tract and synapse in the VPM (thalamus); this neurons travel to primary somatosensory cortex and synapse

Question 204

what are the two main inhibitory neurons; where are they located?

Answer 204

- GABA- located everywhere in the CNS at inhibitory and also some major neurons like basal ganglion - glycine- brainstem and spinal cord

Question 205

where along the cochlea are low frequencies deflected by the basement membrane? what about high frequencies?

Answer 205

low- apical end high- basal end

Question 206

describe the pathway of the corticobulbar tract from the motor cortex to the brainstem what are the two exceptions

Answer 206

1) start with layer 5 pyramidal neurons that travel through the internal capsule and cerebral peduncle to the brainstem 2) synapses at bilateral cranial nerve nuclei for V, VII, Ix, X, XI, XII, pontine nuclei, red nucleus, reticular formation hypoglossal nuclei and lower half of face only receive innervation from contra lateral side

Question 207

the _____ (higher,lower) the pk, the slower the onset of a drug. why?

Answer 207

higher - more of the molecule is in the ionized/charged form

Question 208

in prolonged ischemia, what neurons are most at risk what happens in intracranial pressure?

Answer 208

- glutamatergic CA1 neurons in the hippocampus, amygdala, striatum, frontal cortex etc (consume the most o2) - intracranial pressure increases and causes edema due to increased co2, if you hyperventilate you can prevent this

Question 209

describe the synapses that occur from the hair cell all the way to the auditory cortex? does lesions at any level usually cause deafness?

Answer 209

1) stereocilia are bent and K sensitive cation channels allow K to enter the cell, depolarize the cell, and release neurotransmitters to the spiral ganglion 2) spiral ganglion neurons travel with auditory nerve and synapse in ventral cochlear nucleus (brainstem) 3) 2nd order neurons cross contralaterally via the trapezoid body to the superior olive and synapse 4) 3rd order neurons ascend (lateral lemniscus) to the inferior colliculus (midbrain) and synapse 5) 4th order neurons ascend to the medial geniculate body (thalamus) and synapse 6) 5th order neurons go to primary auditory cortex (superior temporal gyrus) and synapse with 6th order neurons - no because afferents distribute bilaterally

Question 210

what is one and a half syndrome? what causes it?

Answer 210

intrnuclear opthalmoplegia when gazining one direction, horizontal gaze palsy when looking in the other direction when looking in one direction, eyes won't move (horizontal gaze palsy), and then when turning the other way only one eye moves (exotropia) with nystagmus of the normal eye medial longitudinal fasciculus and paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF) are very close to each other, so a lesion to one can also cause a lesion to the other (mlf contralateral to pprf is affected)

Question 211

what is brown sequard syndrome? what deficits will you get

Answer 211

- usually due to occlusion of posterior spinal artery, only one side though, usually in cervical region - depend on how much of spine dies, if it's minimal, then only ipsilateral fine touch affected at poitn and below, if further than that then contralateral pain and touch for that level and below

Question 212

what cortex is in the pre-central gyrus?

Answer 212

motor cortex

Question 213

define motor neuron pool

Answer 213

- the motor units that innervate the same muscle

Question 214

what is the most common neuropeptide neurotransmitter? what is it used for - what is the primary ligand what receptor is it common co-located with?

Answer 214

- opioid peptides, analgesia - enkephalins - GABA

Question 215

give examples of light touch modalities in general are the axons big and myelenated or small and unmyelenated

Answer 215

- proprioception, tactile discrimination big and myelenated

Question 216

what is the basal ganglia composed of what is its function

Answer 216

- dorsal striatum: caudate and putamen - ventral striatum- nucleus accumbans and olfatory tubercle - globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, substantia nigra - motor control, emotions, executive functions

Question 217

what two parts of the basal ganglia are the starting point for regulating motor movement and what movements do they regulate? dopaminergic neurons that modulate the basal ganglia come from what structure

Answer 217

caudate: eye and head movement putamen: limb and trunk movement substantia nigra pars compacta

Question 218

when does fissuration of the brain start? when are all the main gyri/sulci present?

Answer 218

month 4 month 7

Question 219

from what parts of the brain does the hypothalamus receive inputs from before acting on a stressor? on what nuclei in the hypothalamus do these inputs come onto?

Answer 219

cortex, hippocampus, amygdala - paraventricular nuclei then anterior and posterior

Question 220

what lobe of the brain is particular good at spatial attention? which hemisphere is better and why what would happen if you lesions this hemisphere?

Answer 220

- parietal - right, because it can register spatial attention in both and right and left whereas the left can only do spatial attention on the right field - you would lose spatial attention on the left side

Question 221

what are ester local anesthetics metabolized by? what is it metabolized to?

Answer 221

plasma pseudocholinesterase PABA

Question 222

what is the main thing the amygdala does? what would happen if the amygdala gets lesioned name the three parts of the amygdala and what they do

Answer 222

- process, judge, and produce response to fearful stimuli, if lesioned, you would no be able to recognize fear and would have riskier behavior - medial --> processes smell - basolateral --> take in highly processed info from cortex and association temporal areas - central --> receives processing from the basolateral group and then projects to hypothalamus and reticular formation to produce emotional response

Question 223

what parts of the ear are affected in conductive hearing loss?

Answer 223

middle or outer ear

Question 224

what is the main rate-limiting enzyme of glucose metabolism in the brain? how can it be modified during times of increased glucose/atp use?

Answer 224

- hexokinase | - can be brought to mitochondrial membrane and bind, which increases its activity

Question 225

what is the window for thromboembolectomy devices

Answer 225

less than 8 hours from onset of symptoms

Question 226

what are benefits of using lidocaine what may be a draw back?

Answer 226

- low toxicity, low hypersensitivity potential, can be injected via any route - potent vasodilator, so must be used with epi

Question 227

the alar plates give rise to sensory derivatives, except in one scenario; name this exception?

Answer 227

dorsal part of alar plates give rise to part of rhombic lips, which eventually forms the cerebellum

Question 228

at the level of the medulla, the roof plate thins out and forms the ____ and _____

Answer 228

- posterior medullary velum and choroid plexus of the 4th ventricle

Question 229

describe symptoms of upper motor neuron syndrome

Answer 229

- hyperreflexia - hypertonia - positive babinski reflex - spastic paresis

Question 230

what pathway do light touch modalities like proprioception and tactile discrimination take?

Answer 230

dorsal columns

Question 231

what muscle movements does vestibulospinal tract regulate what muscle movements does reticulospinal tract what do they both help facilitate

Answer 231

extension flexion and extension - posture and balance

Question 232

what neurons have the fastest offset? slowest offset?

Answer 232

- motor neurons | - autonomic and pain neurons

Question 233

what is the major site for histamine in the nervous system what enzyme converts histidine into histamine what transports it into vesicles what enzymes break it down what type of post synaptic receptors does it bind to use of anithistamines in the cns woudl cause what

Answer 233

- hypothalamus - histidine decarboxylase - vesicular monoamine transporter - monoamine oxidase and histamine methyltransferase - metabotropic - sedation (think of benadryl!)

Question 234

the peripheral nervous system is derived from the _____ the central nervous system is derived from the _____

Answer 234

- neural crest cells | - neural tube

Question 235

what are the 4 attributes of a stimulus that a sensory receptor must mediate/convey

Answer 235

``` modality/submodality intensity location duration MILD ```

Question 236

describe the golgi tendon reflex

Answer 236

golgi tendon 1b afferents sense contraction --> synapse on inhibitory interneurons --> alpha motor neurons inhibited --> relaxation of muscle --> inhibition of synergistic muscle --> relaxation of synergistic muscle --> activation of antagonist muscle --> contraction of antagonist muscle trying to bring system back to baseline

Question 237

for the sympathetic nervous system: what are the length of pre and post ganglionic neurons what does each ganglion release where do the nerves for this system originate what does this system regulate

Answer 237

- pre are short and post are long - pre: acetyl choline post: norepinephrine except for sweat glands release acetylcholine and adrenals release norepi &epi - T1- L2/3 - fight or flight response, increase hr, dilate pupils, turn off digestion, turn of urination/defecation, increase sweating

Question 238

what is a receptive field

Answer 238

specific region where a sensory neuron can respond to a stimulus

Question 239

what influences the ectoderm to differentiate into the neural plate?

Answer 239

nodochordal process

Question 240

what two local anesthetics are in eutetic mixture of local anesthetics?

Answer 240

lidocaine and prilocaine

Question 241

name 3 things the parietal cortex is good at?

Answer 241

- spatial attention - synthesizing multiple senses at the same time - can send projections down to lower areas (feedback)

Question 242

the amygdala influences ____ and ____ in the hypothalamus via ______ and _____

Answer 242

- emotions and fear | - stria terminalis and ansa peduncularis

Question 243

what are the two main parts of the center of the vestibule called?

Answer 243

- two macula called utricle and saccule utricle= horizontal movement saccule- vertical movement (horizontal and utricle have more syllables

Question 244

the auditory cortex is _______ organized, meaning each part of the cortex responds to different frequencies. the motor and somatosensory cortexes are ______ organized, meaning each part of the cortex corresponds to a different body part

Answer 244

tonotopically somatotopically

Question 245

describe the flexion- withdrawal reflex

Answer 245

- polysynaptic - group II, III, and IV afferent respond to averse stimuli (ex: pain) and synapse on multiple interneurons which synapse --> flexion of limb that experience stimuli and extension of other limb and inhibition of flexion on other limb

Question 246

describe the sympathetic nerve pathway involved in horner's syndrome

Answer 246

- start in hypothalamus, descend and synapse in upper thoracic/lower thoracic spine, travel along apex of lung, ascend along carotid body in superior cervical ganglion and into cavernous sinus and then travel to pupils, sweat glands, eyelids

Question 247

where is the insular lobe located what is it responsible for? what would happen if you had damage to your insular lobe?

Answer 247

- deep in the lateral sulcus - emotions, consciousness, regulation of homeostasis - apathy, loss of libido

Question 248

in the temporal lobe, what is the left temporal lobe good at doing what is the right temporal lobe good at doing

Answer 248

- integrating faces and voices (superior temporal sulcus) | - recognizing faces (fusiform face area on the fuiform gyrus)

Question 249

describe the pathway of the cortico spinal tract from the motor cortex to the spinal cord what is the exception?

Answer 249

start with pyramidal neurons on the motor cortex that travel through the internal capsule, then cerebral peduncle, then basilar pons until it reaches the medullary pyramids, where it decussates and travels down the lateral funniculus and then synapses with a motor neuron or interneuron (lateral corticospinal tract) a small subset of the neuron fibers don't decussate and descend ipsilaterally down the anterior funniculus and synapse on the medial horn (ventral corticospinal tract)

Question 250

where are pacinian corpuscles located? what modality are they are they rapidly or slow adapting do they respond to high or low frequencies? is their receptive field large or small give an example of what they are useful for

Answer 250

- deep dermis/subcutaneous tissue - tactile discrimination - rapid - high - large - touch when manipulating tools or hands on a steering wheel on a bumpy road

Question 251

describe the path from hearing a word to then speaking a response

Answer 251

primary auditory complex --> wernicke's area --> arcuate fasciculus --> broca's area --> motor cortex

Question 252

what is used to convert glutamine into GABA? what is used to transport GABA and glycine into vesicles

Answer 252

- glutamic acid decarboxylase | - vesicular inhibitory amino acid transporters

Question 253

what pathway do crude touch modalities like temperature and pain and coarse touch take?

Answer 253

- spinothalamic tracts

Question 254

where does consolidation occur where does memory storage occur

Answer 254

- hippocampus (medial temporal lobe) | - all over the neocortex

Question 255

where are ruffini corpuscles located? what modality are they are they rapidly or slow adapting do they respond to high or low frequencies? is their receptive field large or small give an example of what they are useful for

Answer 255

- dermis - tactile discrimination - slow - low - large - detects stretch

Question 256

when alpha motor neurons are stimulated to contract, _____ neurons are co-activated

Answer 256

gamma neurons

Question 257

for acetylcholine: describe it's process of formation and breakdown what are the two types of receptor it binds to and what function are they responsible for? what disease is thought to involve acetylcholine pathways

Answer 257

- formed from acetyl coA and choline via choline acetyltransferase; broken down by acetylcholinesterase into acetate and choline - nicotinic (ionotropic, 5 subunits)- motor control, pre-ganglionic neurons - muscarinic (metabotropic, 7 subunits)- purposeful movement, sleep/wake cycle, attention (MuScArinic), parasympathetic action - alzheimers

Question 258

if you want to test the superior oblique and inferior oblique, where should the patient look

Answer 258

- in and then up and on (want to be parallel to muscle axis

Question 259

what is myopia?

Answer 259

when the lens focuses an image in front of the retina ( eye is too long)

Question 260

what would happen as a result of horizontal gaze palsy? how would the gaze palsy differ if the lesion was in the left frontal eye field vs a lesion in the left pprf

Answer 260

- eyes would preferentially move in the opposite direction that you are trying to move your eyes (ex: if lesion is in left frontal eye fields, then you would preferentially move your eyes to the left) - both would have

Question 261

what separates the parietal lobe from the occipital lobe

Answer 261

parieto-occipital sulcus

Question 262

describe the pathway of the vestibulo-occular reflex from the ampulla to the eyes

Answer 262

ex: turning head to left left horiztonal canal is activated, sends action potential via vestibulocochlear nerve to the medial vestibular nucleus, synapses, then crosses midline and ascends to right abducen nucleus, synapses, aducens nerve activates right lacteral rectus muscle - at the same time, neuron goes from abducens nucleus to occulomotor nucleus and synapses, and then occulomotor nerve innervates the left medial rectus

Question 263

describe the pathway of gustation

Answer 263

- gustation neurons from VII, IX, and X synapse at the soitarious nucelus and then projec to the thalamus and then the insular and gustation cortices and can then also from there project to hypothalamus and amygdala

Question 264

the visual cortex is near the _______ in the occipital lobe the right hemisphere visual cortex receives input from the ____ visual field whereas the left hemisphere visual cortex receives input from the ____ visual fiedl

Answer 264

calcarine sulcus left, right

Question 265

what condition causes esotropia: abducen's nervy palsy or internuclear opthalmoplegia?

Answer 265

abducen's nerve palsy

Question 266

if you had a lesion in the ventrotrigeminothalamic tract at the pontine level, what would be affected?

Answer 266

fine touch/pressure, pain sensation and temperature sensation

Question 267

how do growing neurons and their axons find their target tissue?

Answer 267

using a growth cone that has filopodia and adhesion molecules that follow a chemotaxic trail of substrate/diffusable molecules

Question 268

describe the golgi tendon organs

Answer 268

Group Ib afferent: rapid adapting, in response to stretch of tendon from muscle contraction ( is useful also for scenarios where you have to hold a position for a long time, prevents against fatigue)

Question 269

the retina has a dual supply, name the two sources of blood supply

Answer 269

branches of the central retinal artery (what you see on funduscopic exam, inner) and choroid (outer)

Question 270

what are the three types of motor units based on the types of fibers they innervate (describe size of contraction, speed, and whether fatigable or not)

Answer 270

- slow: small force, contract slowly, fatigue resistant - fast fatigue resistant: larger force, contract fast, fatigue resistant - fast fatigable : large force, contract fast, fatigable

Question 271

what are the two conditions related to issues with pyramidal neurons; describe the prolem

Answer 271

- down syndrome: loss of dendritic spines | - huntington's: loss of layer 5 pyramidal neurons --> disconnection between cortex and brainstem

Question 272

what is the difference between nociceptive and neuropathic pain?

Answer 272

nociceptive: due to noxious stimuli neuropathic: due to injury or problem with neurologic structure (ex: nerves or cns)

Question 273

what is post viral anosmia what can help treat this ?

Answer 273

- mild or complete anosmia following infection of coronavirus, rhinovirus, epstein barr, or parainfluenza virus - olfactory training

Question 274

name three long acting anesthetics

Answer 274

BARTEr Bupivicane (amide) Ropivicaine Tetracaine (ester)

Question 275

where are the two major sites in the brain that use dopamine and what are their functions what enzymes is used to make dopamine what transports dopamine into vesicles what enzymes break down dopamine what type of post synaptic receptors does dopamine bind to

Answer 275

- substantia nigra (movement) (parkinsons and schizophrenia) - ventral tegmental area (motivation and reward) - dopa decarboxylase - vesicular monoamine transporter - monoamine oxidase, cytosolic catechol o methyltransferase - metabotropic

Question 276

what does the lateral spinothalamic tract pathway bring describe it

Answer 276

- somatosensory pain and temperature fibers - goes through dorsal root ganglion and then travels up lissauer's tract (lateral) and synapses higher up in the spinal cord, then travels across the ventral white commissure and continues up to synapse in the VPL (thalamus) and then synapse in the primary somatosensory cortex

Question 277

pacinian corpuscles are an example of _____ adapting receptors what causes this type of adaptive receptor

Answer 277

- rapid (respond to pressure, but turn off during duration) | - the gelatinous, lamellated layers aroudn the nerve energy dissipate energy quickly

Question 278

what condition causes exotropia: abducen's nervy palsy or internuclear opthalmoplegia?

Answer 278

internuclear opthalmoplegia

Question 279

what neuron is responsible for regulating the synapse between bipolar cells and the photoreceptor cells?

Answer 279

horizontal cells

Question 280

describe the pathway for fine touch discrimination/proprioception to reach the brain

Answer 280

- somatosensory afferent goes from receptor through the dorsal root ganglion to the dorsal column and ascends at either the gracilus fasciculus (lower body) or cuneate fasciculus (upper boady) - ascends to the medulla, where it synapses, then decussates and becomes the medial lemniscus and travels up the vpl in the thalamus and synapses and then travels to the 4th layers of the primary somatosensory cortex and synapses

Question 281

what taste receptors are ion channels and which ones are gpcr's

Answer 281

- salty and sour- ion channel | sweet bitty and umami gpcr

Question 282

describe joint receptors

Answer 282

- Group II: slow adapting, sense position and angle of joint, helps in making movement smooth

Question 283

what part of the hypothalamus responds to increased body heat? what about decrease in body temp? Describe what a lesion to both regions would cause What pathways bring information to and from these parts of the brain

Answer 283

anterior responds to increased heat from parasympathetics, causes dilation and sweating, (lesion would lead to hyperthermia) posterior responds to decreased heat from sympathetics, causes shivering and constriction (lesion would lead to hypothermia) - medial forebrain bundle brings info from the nucleus solitarius and to the hypot - dorsal longitudinal fasciculus sends efferent fibers to brainstem

Question 284

how does central renal artery occlusion present? how can you treat

Answer 284

- sudden unilateral vision loss - cherry red spot, hemorrhaging veg f inhibitor

Question 285

where do upper moor neurons originate

Answer 285

- motor cortex (premotor cortex and paracentral lobule) | - brainstem (superior & inferior colliculus, reticular formation etc)

Question 286

what happens to cerebral blood flow and o2 consumption in those with arteriolosclerosis? what about in those with neurodegenerative disease

Answer 286

- cerebral blood flow decreases but o2 consumption is constant (uses O2 more effectively) - cerebral blood flow constant but o2 consumption decreases (less demand)

Question 287

what are the three primary vesicles in the brain, and what parts of the brain do they correspond to

Answer 287

prosencephalon- forebrain mesencephalon- midbrain rhombencephalon- hindbrain

Question 288

what are the two plexuses of the enteric nervous system and what do they do what is a congenital disease where you lack these ganglion plexuses as you age, what happens to your enteric nervous system

Answer 288

myenteric (aurbach)- musculature meissners (submucus)- glands and chemical composition hirschprung (get super constricted bowel and portion that is dilated) - lose ganglions --> constipation, incontinence

Question 289

name the three intermediate acting local anesthetics

Answer 289

``` LAMP Lidocaine amide Mepivocaine Prilocaine ```

Question 290

what is the function of the cerebellum what are the three lobes?

Answer 290

- smooth coordinated muscle movement (walking, balance standing, writing) anterior, posterior, and flocculonodular

Question 291

what is a necessary component of vision that is not directly involved in the neural pathway of vision? what does it do?

Answer 291

retinal pigment epithelium transports oxygen and nutrients from the choroid to the retina, prevents toxins from reaching the retina, degrades old photoreceptors, provides photoreceptors with vitamin a for visual cycle

Question 292

what are the two main tracts for voluntary upper motor neurons

Answer 292

- corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts

Question 293

what would happen to your emotions if you severed your hypothalamus?

Answer 293

straight up rage, no other emotions

Question 294

describe the size principle of motor neurons?

Answer 294

motor neuron units are recruits in a fixed order according to size in order to generate a graded, increased force (slow, then fatigue resistant, then fatigable)

Question 295

what is primary hyperalgesia?

Answer 295

- decreases threshold for firing of pain nerve fibers - will have increased firing of the nerve fibers, will have release of prostaglandins - spontaneous firing even after stimulus is gone

Question 296

what does the cuneocerebellar tract carry describe the pathway

Answer 296

- non- conscious somatosensory proprioceptive fibers from C2-T4 to the cerebellum (ipsilateral) - goes through DRG and travels up and synapses in the lateral cuneate nucleus in the medulla and then goes through the inferior cerebellar peduncle (restiform body) and synapses in the anterior and paramedian lobe

Question 297

what is another name for a ligand gated ion channel? what about g-protein coupled receptor? which one is slow acting and which one is fast acting

Answer 297

- ionotropic (fast acting) | - metabotropic (slow acting because of secondary messenger cascade)

Question 298

what is non-arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy ? how does it present what are risk factors?

Answer 298

- neuropathy due to hypoperfusion - monoocular painless vision loss with edema and hemorrhage - small disc, hypoperfusion, small optic nerve, smoking, cholesterol, diabetes, htn

Question 299

what is more likely to have symptoms: open angle or closed angle glaucoma? what are those symptoms

Answer 299

- closed angle (since acute problem) | - vomiting, halos, bulging of dilated pupil

Question 300

describes rapidly adapting receptors and slowly adapting receptors

Answer 300

- rapidly adapting (phasic)- respond to onset and offset, but not are off during the duration - slowly adapting (tonic)- respond to onset, stay on during duration but taper a little, then turn off at offset

Question 301

what is prosopagnosia?

Answer 301

- a condition in which you cannot recognize faces | - lesion in the inferior temporal cortex (fusiform face area

Question 302

what is the term for the amount of nt in one vesicle is calcium necessary for synaptic transmission or does it just modulate synapses?

Answer 302

quanta! ABSOLUTELY NECESSARY (without it, nt's don't get released)

Question 303

what is shy drager syndrome?

Answer 303

orthostatic hypotension without compensatory increase in hr

Question 304

what glial cells are scavengers of the nervous system?

Answer 304

microglia

Question 305

if you wanted to have a tonically contracted muscle that doesn't require much force, what type of motor unit would you use

Answer 305

small slow motor unit

Question 306

in optic neuritis, what type of visual defect is most common? what type of vision is most effected? what are common manifestations?

Answer 306

- central scotoma - color vision unilateral vision loss, unilateral headache behind eye, painful eye movements

Question 307

what channel do local anesthetics bind to; in which conformation? do they bind extracellularly or intracellularly? are local anesthetics more likely to work in fast or slow neurons? why?

Answer 307

Inactivated Na channels bind intracellularly fast neurons, more likely to be in the inactivated state

Question 308

how can middle ear injury or surgery affect taste?

Answer 308

- chorda tympani runs near that area, can get damaged and cause metallic taste

Question 309

name from outside to inside the layers of the scalp to the cerebral cortex

Answer 309

scalp --> cranium --> dura mater --> arachnoid membrane --> subarachnoid space --> pia mater --> glia limitans --> cerebral cortex Stupid Children Don't Ask Stupid People (for) Grand Children

Question 310

what eye condition causes painful eye movements?

Answer 310

optic neuritis

Question 311

what are four common causes of chronic pain?

Answer 311

- cancer pain, cns disorder, nerve injury (neurpathic), musculoskeletal problem (nociceptive)

Question 312

what are the four nuclei related to endocrine function in the hypothalamus and which pituitary do they release hormones to? how does the anterior pituitary receive the hormones? what hormones are sent to the posterior pituitary

Answer 312

PPAS preoptic (anterior) paraventricular (anterior and posterior) arcuate (anterior) supraoptic (posterior) via fenestrated hypophysseal portal system - vasopression and oxytocin

Question 313

Are there more glial cells or neurons in the CNS?

Answer 313

glial cells!

Question 314

what type of fibers go from one area of the cortex to another?

Answer 314

association fibers

Question 315

most local anesthetics should be used with a _______ what are benefits of doing this? (3)

Answer 315

vasoconstrictor (epi, most anesthetics are dilators) will improve anesthetic action, will decrease toxicity, will decrease chance of surgical bleeding

Question 316

describe meningocele can it cause impaired

Answer 316

- form of spina bifida in which the spinal cord is correctly in place but there is a protruding sac of meninges/fluid - it can impinge on the dorsal and ventral root, but can be fixed

Question 317

what is the least serious form of spina bifida? describe it

Answer 317

spina bifida occulta spine and meninges are in the proper space, but bone encapsulation of spine is not complete; hair may cover the skin covering

Question 318

______ is a CNS mechanism that narrows and sharpens the original response to a peripheral stimulus

Answer 318

neural sharpening

Question 319

brain development starts at week _____ from the ______

Answer 319

4 ectoderm (neural plate)

Question 320

in hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia, what are blood glucose and ketone levels

Answer 320

both are low (fatty acid metabolism inhibited in the liver)

Question 321

mnemonic for functions of the hypothalamus

Answer 321

4 F's feeding fighting fleeing fertility

Question 322

what is hypoesthesia? what can cause it? what is paresthesia? what can cause it?

Answer 322

- loss of touch, nerve damage or decompression sickness | - abnormal sensation, compression of nerve

Question 323

what parts of the brain does the anterior cerebral artery innervate

Answer 323

frontal lobe, midline structures, and dorsal convexity

Question 324

name 5 things that the brain stem is involved in?

Answer 324

- breathing regulation - blood pressure regulation - heart beat regulation - eye movement and facial expressions - houses nuclei for cranial sensory and motor nerves

Question 325

what is amblyopia how do you fix it?

Answer 325

lazy eye - you should patch/cover the unaffected eye before the age of 2-3; this will cause an occular dominance shift to strengthen the connection of the lazy eye (however if you do this after the age of 2-3 it will never work because critical period has passed)

Question 326

why do we have a loss of perception during sleep? what is a situation in which this can happen when awake

Answer 326

- because thalamus neurons are demonstrating bursting- signaling which is not sufficient for transmitting information to the cortex for perception (as opposed to single spike firing) - absence epilepsy, get seizure with eyes open, fluttering of eyes but staring off into space

Question 327

what are the movements of the six extra ocular muscles?

Answer 327

``` superior rectus- up and in inferior rectus- down and in superior oblique- down and out inferior oblique- up and out lateral rectus- out medial rectus- in ```

Question 328

_______ is the rate limiting step for the citric acid cycle in the brain in hypoglycemic conditions, what happens to the citric acid cycle?

Answer 328

- pyruvate dehydrogenase - high nadh levels will shut down pyruvate dehydrogenase, and pyruvate with be converted to lactate so that nadh can be converted to nad and be used for glycolysis; also amino acids will be used for energy

Question 329

what are age related changes in the lens and ciliary body that causes difficulties with accommodation and seeing things close?

Answer 329

presbyopia

Question 330

what is glaucoma what are the two types? which one is most common which one can be treated by decreasing the amount of aqueous humor produced

Answer 330

an optic neuropathy associated with vision loss for which increased intraocular pressure is a large risk factor - open angle (most common)- due to increased resistance at the trabecular meshwork, ah can't drain - closed angle- ah is blocked from going through normal pathway, causes acute increase in intraocular pressure - open angle

Question 331

what are the 4 components of the diencephalon? what are their functions?

Answer 331

thalamus- relay sensory and motor information, sleep and wake cycles hypothalamus- releases hormones/involved in autonomic nervous system epithalamus (pineal gland)- sense of small and sleep and wake cycles subthalamus- motor control

Question 332

why do you get referred pain? what pathway is involved

Answer 332

because visceral afferent fibers travel with somatic fibers and the brain cannot distinguish between the two anterolateral pathway

Question 333

do the fingers have dense receptor regions or less dense receptor regions do they have large or small receptive fields? why

Answer 333

- dense regions - small receptive fields fingers need fine detail

Question 334

if you are missing a corpus callosum what is it called?

Answer 334

agenesis of corpus callosum

Question 335

what is emmetropia?

Answer 335

when you have THAT GOOD VISION

Question 336

name the 6 derivatives of the neural tube with their corresponding ventricle

Answer 336

telencephalon- lateral ventricle (cerebral cortex) diencephalon- 3rd ventricle mesencephalon- cerebral aqueduct (midbrain) metencephalon- 4th ventricle (cerebellum and pons) myelencephalon- (medulla) spinal cord- central canal

Question 337

how does mirror visual feedback work?

Answer 337

- stand in front of mirror with intact right hand in mirror - visual input "tells" mind that left somatosensory cortex is where the right somatosensory cortex is, and then when you uncurl your right hand so you're higher cortical areas get rewired and perceive that amputated left hand is no longer curled

Question 338

what is porencephaly when does it occur what can cause it

Answer 338

- cavity (pore) or cyst in the cerebral hemisphere; can have mental and growth retardation, seizures, paralysis, hypotonia - can occur before or after birth destructive lesion or developmental abnormality

Question 339

what type of fibers go from one hemisphere to the other?

Answer 339

commisural fibers

Question 340

what is the major site for serotonin in the nervous system what does serotonin regulate what transports it into vesicles what enzyme breaks it down what transports serotonin back into presynaptic terminal that is a target for anti depressents what type of post synaptic receptors does it bind to

Answer 340

- dorsal raphe nuceli - emotion, motor and feeding behavior, arousal, circadian rhythms - vesicular monamine transporter - monoamine oxidase - SERT - metabotropic and ionotropic

Question 341

which local anesthetic can cause an allergic hypersensitivity? what is it metabolized to that causes hypersensitivity

Answer 341

- anesthetics with ester groups (esters pester!) | - PABA

Question 342

What is the medial dorsal nucleus involved in? what is its input from where is its output what does a lesion here cause?

Answer 342

- memory, motivation, drive emotion, goal oriented behavior, maybe personality - temporal lobe, amygdala, hypothalamus - prefrontal cortex - memory problems

Question 343

What do D1 and D2 dopaminergic neurons do

Answer 343

D1 decreases the threshold for the direct pathway D2 increases the threshold for activation of the indirect pathway

Question 344

name the three centers of the hypothalamus involved in homeostasis/regulation of food name the two bundles the bring info about feeding to and from the hypothalamus

Answer 344

- lateral hypothalamic area: appetitie, when stimulated you want to eat (lesion would cause anorexia) - ventromedial nucleus: satiety, when stimulated you lose appetite (lesion would cause hypothalamic obesity - dorsomedial nucleus: feeding, body weight, drinking visceral info from GI goes to nucleus solitarius and then to hypothalamus via medial forebrain bundle efferents leave hypothalamus via dorsal longitudinal fasciculus

Question 345

what are the 6 divisions of the CNS from caudal to rostral?

Answer 345

spinal cord --> medulla --> cerebellum and pons --> midbrain --> diencephalon --> cerebral hemispheres

Question 346

what part of the brain is required in declarative memory? nondeclarative memory? immediate memory? working memory? long- term memory

Answer 346

- medial temporal lobe (hippocampus) - basal ganglia - prefrontal cortex - prefrontal cortex - medial temporal lobe (hippocampus)

Question 347

what does the dorsal spinocerebellar tract carry? describe the pathway

Answer 347

- non-conscious somatosensory proprioceptive fibers from the lower body to the cerebellum - goes through dorsal root ganglion and travels up to T1-L2, and synapses on a clark nucleus and then ascends laterally and ipsilaterally through the inferior cerebellar peduncle(restiform body) to innervate the anterior and parameridian lobe of the cerebellum

Question 348

what is sudden infant death syndrome

Answer 348

problem with central autonomic network, get failure of respiration drive, get sudden increase in temp associated with periods of apnea

Question 349

describe the process of one specific nucleus of the thalamus to the cortex to higher order thalamic nuclei what are the three levels of the hiearchy of cortex give an example of this via vision

Answer 349

- specific relay neuron projects from thalamus to layer IV of cortex, simultaneously non-secific relay neuron is projected to layer 1-3 - intercortical neurons project from IV to II/III and then to layer V, who sends one projection to VI, which sends a projection back to the original specific relay neuron in the thalamus - also layer V pyramidal cell sends projection to modulator cell in higher order thalamic nuclei and the process keeps going from thalamus to cortex to higher order thalamus to higher order cortex primary order cortex --> secondary order cortex --> association cortex - lateral geniculate nucleus --> primary visual cortex --> pulvinar --> secondary visual cortex --> pulvinar --> visual association cortex

Question 350

what is the organ of corti/what is it made of?

Answer 350

corgi's are hairy! - composed of one inner hair cell layer (main sensory receptors) and 3 outer hair cell layers (pre-amplifiers)

Question 351

if you want to make a verticale saccade towards a fixed target, what path do you take what about if you want to make a horizontal saccade? if you are thinking of an imagined target or remembered target, what extra step is added

Answer 351

- from superior colliculus to contralateral midbrain vertical gaze center - from superior colliculus to ipsilateral pprf to abducens nucleus to contralateral occulomotor nucleus - input from frontal eye fields goes to ipsilateral superior colliculus

Question 352

where are merkel's discs located? what modality are they are they rapidly or slow adapting do they respond to high or low frequencies? is their receptive field large or small give an example of what they are useful for

Answer 352

- near epidermis - tactile discrimination - slow - low - small - can distinguish shape and form of objects in hands (curves and points and texture)

Question 353

what is the region that will respond to a stimulus? if you stimulate on a neuron outside of their region, what will happen?

Answer 353

- trigger zone | - NOTHING

Question 354

mnemonic for afferent vs efferent

Answer 354

SAME Sensory- Afferent Motor- Efferent

Question 355

In the midbrain, the alar plate gives rise to the______ the basal plate gives rise to the ______

Answer 355

superior and inferior colliculi oculomotor and trochlear nuclei

Question 356

what type of receptors/neurotransmitters excite in the pain pathway and facilitate the central modulation of pain what type inhibit the central modulation of pain

Answer 356

- glutamate and asparate, nmda and non nmda receptors (ketamine can block this) - GABA and glycine

Question 357

describe lateral inhibition

Answer 357

- when a receptive field is stimulated, interneurons are activated also that inhibit input from the areas around the receptive field, which causes the receptive field to be more specific defined and the borders of the receptive field to be more defined

Question 358

movement for cortex to the cortex can go via two pathways; what are they and how do they differ

Answer 358

- ventral system/path- sends characteristics/details about the stimulus - dorsal- just cares about spacial characteristics

Question 359

glucose is brought into the brain via the _____ transporter

Answer 359

GLUT 1

Question 360

the ____ (more,less) myelinated and the ______ (larger/smaller) the diameter of a neuron, the lower the susceptibility of a local anesthetic to cause a block give an example of a neuron like this

Answer 360

more myelinated larger diameter motor neurons

Question 361

what is the prefrontal cortex responsible for?

Answer 361

executive functions (set of processes that all have to do with managing oneself and one's resources in order to achieve a goal) ex: personality expression, planning, decision making, social behavior

Question 362

a ______ is a specific region where a sensory neuron can respond to a stimulus

Answer 362

receptive field

Question 363

where are v snares located? name one; what toxin can block it whre are t snares located? name 2; what toxin can block it

Answer 363

vesicle (V= vesicle); synaptobreVin (botulinum/tetanus toxin D,BFG, "Da BFG briefly snapped!") t= terminal synTaxin (botulinum C), snap 25 (A and E, Robotic American Eagle Teens snapped 25 times)

Question 364

what do astrocytes do? (5)

Answer 364

- provide scaffolding for nervous system - take up excess potassium - provide glucose - regulate neurotransmitters - induce endothelial cell tight junction formation

Question 365

why does memory decrease as you age what is one exception

Answer 365

- losing synapses and glial cells, not neurons | - alzheimers, lose neurons responsible in memory consolidation an storage

Question 366

normally thalamic neurons that project to motor regions in the cortex are ______ ( inhibited/tonically active)

Answer 366

- inhibited because you don't want to have spastic muscle movements when it is not necessary (also necessary for motions like sitting still)

Question 367

describe meningomyelocele

Answer 367

- type of spina bifida where meninges and spinal cord are protruding out from the back, will cause motor and sensory impairment

Question 368

what is a condition in which you have a cyst in your cerebellum what are symptoms?

Answer 368

- dandy walker | - vomiting, large cranial vault, irritability, speech problems, vision problems, motor problems

Question 369

if you get a stroke only in the cerebellum, which artery is the cause? what if the brainstem is involved?

Answer 369

superior cerebellar artery - pica or aica