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Question 1

1. Which of the following drugs is used as basal insulin?

a. Insulin aspart
b. Insulin lispro
c. Insulin glargine
d. Insulin glulisine

Answer 1

c. Insulin glargine

Question 2

2. Which of the following metabolic processes is suppressed by insulin?

a. Glycogenesis
b. Lipogcnesis
c. Glycolysis
d. Gluconeogenesis

Answer 2

d. Gluconeogenesis

Question 3

3. In January, a child with Type 1 diabetes mellitus has been convulsing during school time. He was administered his insulin injection as his teacher thought he has missed it. He was sweating, irritable, and pale. The child’s condition worsened. Do you think his teacher was right?

a. Yes, this child is having a hyperglycemic episode.
b. No, the teacher should have given him sweets to eat.
c. Yes, but potassium supplements should be added to insulin.
d. No, the teacher should have given him intramuscular glucagon.

Answer 3

b. No, the teacher should have given him sweets to eat.

Question 4

4. In a patient with chronic hepatitis B and type 2 diabetes mellitus, lactic acidosis can occur secondary to the administration of which of the following antidiabetics?

a. Metformin
b. Insulin
c. Sulfonylurea
d. Exenatide

Answer 4

a. Metformin

Question 5

5. Which of the following medications can reduce the effect of oral antidiabetic medications?

a. Insulin sensitizers
b. Oral contraceptives
c. Glucocorticoid antagonists
d. Antithyroid medications

Answer 5

b. Oral contraceptives

Question 6

6. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of iodides?

a. Inhibition of conversion of iodide to iodine
b. Inhibition of the release of thyroid hormones
c. Blocking the conversion of T4 to T3
d. Destruction of thyroid gland cells by radioactivity

Answer 6

b. Inhibition of the release of thyroid hormones

Question 7

7. Which of the following would be a suitable treatment of hyperthyroidism for a 55 years old patient who is unfit for surgery and who failed to be controlled with carbimazole?

a. Propylthiouracil
b. Radioactive iodine
c. Propranolol
d. Thyrotropin

Answer 7

b. Radioactive iodine

Question 8

8. Chronic administration of corticosteroids (iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome) results in:

a. Opportunistic infection
b. Hyperkalaemia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Anemia

Answer 8

a. Opportunistic infection

Question 9

9. Which of the following characterizes radioactive iodine (I 131)?

a. The onset of action is delayed for 1-2 months.
b. It is useful in the treatment of hypothyroidism.
c. It can be used safely in patients at young age.
d. It can be used safely during pregnancy.

Answer 9

a. The onset of action is delayed for 1-2 months

Question 10

10. Which of the following is a therapeutic indication of glucocorticoids?

a. Anaphylactic shock
b. Cardiogenic edema
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Myopathy

Answer 10

a. Anaphylactic shock

Question 11

11. A patient on long-term glucocorticoids should take a diet that is low in

a. Protein.
b. Sodium.
c. Calcium.
d. Potassium.

Answer 11

b. Sodium.

Question 12

12. Which one of the following is a side effect of cortisol?

a. Cataract
b. Hypotension
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Bronchial asthma

Answer 12

a. Cataract

Question 13

13. Progesterone is added to estrogen in postmenopausal hormonal therapy to decrease incidence of:

a. Vaginal atrophy
b. Endometrial carcinoma
c. Hot flushes
d. Weight gain

Answer 13

b. Endometrial carcinoma

Question 14

14. Synthetic progestin preparations can produce the following side effect:

a. Thromboembolic events
b. Androgenic effects
c. Hypertension
d. Hyperglycemia

Answer 14

b. Androgenic effects

Question 15

15. The estrogen receptor modulator, raloxifene is specially know to be used for the treatment of which of the following conditions?

a. Breast cancer
b. Endometrial cancer
c. Infertility
d. Osteoporosis

Answer 15

d. Osteoporosis

Question 16

16. The release of the gonadotropins follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) can be stimulated by:

a. Continuous administration of leuprolide
b. Pulsatile administration of a Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone analogue
c. Intermittent administration of Luteinizing Hormone
d. Subcutaneous progestrogen pill implantation

Answer 16

b. Pulsatile administration of a Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone analogue

Question 17

17. Aromatase Inhibitors are used in:

a. Contraception
b. Induction of ovulation
C. Postmenopausal hot flushes
d. Osteoporosis

Answer 17

b. Induction of ovulation

Question 18

18. Selective estrogen receptor modulators may be used in the treatment of osteoporosis instead of oral estrogen to avoid:

a. Esophageal ulcer
b. Peptic ulcer
c. Renal failure
d. Uterine cancer

Answer 18

d. Uterine cancer

Question 19

19. Bisphosphonates are contraindicated with:

a. Renal impairment
b. Thyroid impairment
c. Liver impairment
d. Bleeding tendency

Answer 19

a. Renal impairment

Question 20

20. Adverse effects of benzodiazepines include:

a. Convulsions
b. Insomnia
c. Migraine
d. Addiction

Answer 20

d. Addiction

Question 21

21. One of the following Is a drug that Is useful to initiate sleep:

a- Temazepam
b- Triazolam
c- Diazepam
d- Flurazepam

Answer 21

b- Triazolam

Question 22

22. Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?

a. Meperidine
b. Buprenorphine
c. Naloxone
d. Methadone

Answer 22

c. Naloxone

Question 23

23. Drug used orally to maintain the Opiate-free state of treated addict:

a. Naltrexone
b. Naloxone
c. Diphenoxylate.
d. Loperamide

Answer 23

a. Naltrexone

Question 24

24. Treatment of tramadol toxicity is:

a. Dapoxetine
b. Ondansetron
c. Diphenoxylate.
d. Loperamide

Answer 24

b. Ondansetron

Question 25

25. It is recommended to add atropine to morphine when used in: a. Acute left ventricular failure. b. Renal colic. c. Cancer pain. d. Treatment of morphine addiction.

Answer 25

b. Renal colic.

Question 26

26. Morphine can cause which of the following actions on CVS: a. Hypotension and bradycardia b. Hypotension and tachycardia c. Hypertension and bradycardia d. Hypertension and tachycardia

Answer 26

a. Hypotension and bradycardia

Question 27

27. NSAID-induced peptic ulcer can be treated by: a. Zileuton b. Montelukast c. Paracetamol d. Misoprostol

Answer 27

d. Misoprostol

Question 28

28. From advantages of use of diclofenac as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAlDs): a. It concentrated in synovial fluid 4 more than plasma b. It is safe on gastric mucosa c. It increases both Prostaglandins & Leukotrienes d. It can be used in safely hepatic patient

Answer 28

a. It concentrated in synovial fluid 4 more than plasma

Question 29

29. Paracetamol can produce the following side effect as overdose toxicity sign: a. Gastric irritation b. Bronchospasm c. Bleeding tendency d. Hepatotoxicity

Answer 29

d. Hepatotoxicity

Question 30

30. An antimalarial drug inhibits activation of T-lymphocytes & Stabilizes the lysosomes can be used in treatment of rheumatoid arthritis: a. Methotrexate b. Sulfasalazine c. Chloroquine d. Rituximab

Answer 30

c. Chloroquine

Question 31

31. 'Cheese reaction' in a MAO inhibited patient manifests as: a. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock b. Hypertensive crisis c. Acute manic episode d. Convulsions

Answer 31

b. Hypertensive crisis

Question 32

32. A 34-year-old male patient who was prescribed citalopram for depression has decided he wants to stop taking the drug. When questioned, he said that it was affecting his sexual performance. You ascertain that he is also trying to overcome his dependency on tobacco products. If you decide to reinstitute drug therapy in this patient, the best choice would be.... a. Amitriptyline b. Bupropion c. Fluoxetine d. Imipramine

Answer 32

b. Bupropion

Question 33

33. Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs may cause vasospasm and we cannot use it with patient has Raynaud’s disease? a. Bromocriptine b. Amantadine c. Selegiline d. Anticholinergics

Answer 33

a. Bromocriptine

Question 34

34. Carbidopa is useful in the management of Parkinson’s disease because it is an: a. Effective D2 agonist b. Effective D2 antagonist c. Effective peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor d. Effective competitor at the GABA receptor

Answer 34

c. Effective peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor

Question 35

35. Tardive dyskinesia is related to: - a. Downregulation of dopamine D2 receptors. b. Prolonged intake of typical antipsychotics. c. Super-sensitivity to dopamine D2 receptors blockade. d. Allergic reaction to typical antipsychotics

Answer 35

b. Prolonged intake of typical antipsychotics.

Question 36

36. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs might be associated with Steven-Johnson syndrome? a. Clonazepam b. Ethosuximidc c. Lamotrigine d. Gabapentin

Answer 36

c. Lamotrigine

Question 37

37. Which of the following anesthetic agent Increase intracranial and intraocular pressure: a. Propofol b. Thiopentone c. Midazolam d. Ketamine

Answer 37

d. Ketamine

Question 38

38. The following is the correct mechanism of action of methylxanthines a. Inhibits tyrosine kinase enzyme b. Inhibits Phosphodiesterase enzyme IV c. Activates adenosine receptors d. Activates muscarinic receptors

Answer 38

b. Inhibits Phosphodiesterase enzyme IV

Question 39

39. Which of the following anti-TB drugs is effective only against TB bacilli? a. Rifampicin b. Amikacin c. Isoniazid d. Levofloxacin

Answer 39

c. Isoniazid

Question 40

40. A 66 years old male patient known to be diabetic and hypertensive admitted to the hospital with bronchopneumonia, culture revealed Pseudomonas, Select the most appropriate b-lactam antimicrobials with antipseudomonal activity. a. Cefoxitin b. Cefepime c. Cefotaxime d. Amoxicillin

Answer 40

b. Cefepime

Question 41

41. The first-generation cephalosporins differ from the third-generation cephalosporins in that they are: a. More active against gram positive cocci b. More active against gram negative bacilli c. Better to penetrate through the blood brain barrier. d. More active against pseudomonas

Answer 41

a. More active against gram positive cocci

Question 42

42. Typical examples of time-dependent antibiotics are... a. Aminoglycosides b. Fluoroquinolones c. Macrolides d. Penicillins

Answer 42

d. Penicillins

Question 43

43. Red man syndrome Is a side effect of rapid Injection of the following drug a. Vancomycin b. Clindamycin c. Metronidazole d. Nafcillin

Answer 43

a. Vancomycin

Question 44

44. Aminoglycosides have the following unwanted effects: a. Pancytopenia b. Hepatotoxicity c. Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity d. Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa

Answer 44

c. Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity

Question 45

45. Which of the following antimicrobials inhibits protein synthesis through binding to 50 ribosomal subunits? a. Gentamycin b. Erythromycin c. Tetracycline d. Amoxicillin

Answer 45

b. Erythromycin

Question 46

46. Which of the following cell membrane/cell wall-inhibitors can be given orally or IV In the treatment of prostatitis and UTI? a. Daptomycin b. Fosfomycin c. Bacitracin d. Cycloserine

Answer 46

b. Fosfomycin

Question 47

47. Which of the following types of bacteria will NOT be affected by aminoglycosides? a. Anaerobes b. Gram negatives c. Gram positives d. TB bacilli

Answer 47

a. Anaerobes

Question 48

48. Which of the following macrolide has the advantages of once daily dosing and rare drug interactions? a. Azithromycin b. Clarithromycin c. Erythromycin d. Fidaxomicin

Answer 48

a. Azithromycin

Question 49

49. Which of the following quinolone antibiotics is not fluorinated that commonly used as urinary antiseptic: a. Ciprofloxacin b. Levofloxacin c. Nalidixic acid d. Moxifloxacin

Answer 49

c. Nalidixic acid

Question 50

50. If quinolones arc accompanied with NS AID It will produce: a. Myocardial infarction b. Thromboembolism c. Photosensitivity d. Seizures

Answer 50

d. Seizures

Question 51

51. A male patient was recently diagnosed to have TB for which several drugs were prescribed In combination. After administration of the drugs, he noticed red discoloration of his urine, which made him afraid and sought medical advice. The doctor reassured him that this Is just an adverse effect of one of anti-tuberculous drugs. Which of these anti-tuberculous drugs is responsible for that? a. Pyrazinamide b. Ethambutol c. Rifampicin d. Streptomycin

Answer 51

c. Rifampicin

Question 52

52. Which of the following anti tuberculous drugs produces inhibition of HME activity? a. Rifampicin b. Ethambutol c. Pyrazinamide d. Isoniazid

Answer 52

d. Isoniazid

Question 53

53. Combination antiviral treatment of human immune deficiency virus is characterized by which of the following? a. Combining three or more agents so as to maximize virological suppression b. Lamivudine-lopinavir is the commonest combination. c. Toxicities come mainly in the form of cardiovascular side effects. d. Treatment is started in a stepwise approach, one drug at a time

Answer 53

a. Combining three or more agents so as to maximize virological suppression

Question 54

54. A patient diagnosed with seborrheic dermatitis was prescribed shampoo containing and antifungal. Which of the following is that shampoo likely to contain? a. Amphotericin B b. Ketoconazole c. Nystatin d. Terbinafme

Answer 54

b. Ketoconazole

Question 55

55. Development of lipid drug formulation of amphotericin B was done to achieve which of the following? a. Better distribution to the site of infection b. Increased spectrum of activity c. Reduction of infusion reactions d. Reduction of renal toxicity

Answer 55

d. Reduction of renal toxicity

Question 56

56. Which of the following is a mechanism of action of nystatin? a. Binds to ergosterol, causing pores in the fungal cell membrane b. Inhibits cell wall beta glucan synthesis c. Inhibits fungal cytochrome enzyme d. Inhibits fungal DNA synthesis

Answer 56

a. Binds to ergosterol, causing pores in the fungal cell membrane

Question 57

57. The immune-mediating agent approved as first-line therapy for hepatitis B virus is a. Adefovir b. Entecavir c. Interferon d. Tenofovir

Answer 57

c. Interferon

Question 58

58. Adverse effects of primaquine include: a. Megaloblastic anemia b. Hemolytic anemia with G6PD deficiency c. Seizures d. Black water fever

Answer 58

b. Hemolytic anemia with G6PD deficiency

Question 59

59. Which of the following would be effective to treat asymptomatic ameba cyst passers? a. Diloxanide b. Emetine c. Metronidazole d. Tetracycline

Answer 59

a. Diloxanide

Question 60

60. Which of the following is a broad-spectrum anti-helminthic? a. Albendazole b. Levamisole c. Mirazid d. Niclosamide

Answer 60

a. Albendazole