MCQs Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

STEMIs are always accompanied by chest pain

A

False - elderly, diabetics and renal disease can be others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

STEMIs rarely cause VF

A

False - during acute phase there is a substantial risk of VF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

STEMI can present with ST depression in V1-V3

A

True - posterior STEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

STEMI can present with new LBBB on ECG

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When transcutaneous pacing what current should electrical capture occur?

A

50-100mA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Is transcutaneous pacing successful in hyperkalaemia?

A

No - it can often prevent it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When transcutaneous pacing can movement artefact inhibit the pacemaker?

A

Yes - if artefact on ECG, this may be interpreted by pacemaker and inhibit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In transcutaneous pacing does electrical capture and generation of QRS complex ensure return of pulse?

A

No - QRS complex does not guarantee myocardial contractility. Absence of a pulse would mean PEA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where should electrodes be placed for 3 lead ECG

A

Over bone - minimises artefact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the normal PR interval

A

0.12-0.20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Normal QRS duration

A

<0.12 (3 small squares)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is there immediate entry of water into lungs if drowning?

A

No - initially laryngospasm and breath holding preventing water entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many minutes of submersion is likely to have a good outcome?

A

Less than 10 very high chance
More than 25 min low chance of good outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is there a role for prophylactic abx in drowning?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ECG confirms asystole - do you shock?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Is soda bic recommended for PEA/asystole?

A

No - not routinely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Adrenaline in PEA/asystole
What dose and when?

A

1mg IV asap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How common is PEA/asystole vs VF/VT as first rhythms in arrest?

A

VF/pVT in 20% of arrests

19
Q

Rhythm seen in hypovolaemia

20
Q

When you decide a patient should be for CPR, should you discuss this with patient and why?

A

Yes - deciding for CPR implies a risk of death or cardiac arrest. Failing to discuss deprives patient opportunity to refuse CPR

21
Q

How to approach DNACPRs with ICDs

A

Some people may not want CPR but would still choose to receive shocks from ICD - so a DNACPR does not mean this needs turned off

22
Q

Adrenaline effects

A

Alpha and beta-adrenergic

23
Q

Is adrenaline associated with benefits in cardiac arrest?

A

Long-term - no
Short-term - documented in some studies which warrants its continued use

24
Q

Alpha-adrenergic effects of adrenaline

A

Systemic vasoconstriction , increases coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures

25
Beta-adrenergic effects of adrenaline
(Ionotropic, chronotropic) Can increase coronary and cerebral blood flow Also increases myocardial O2 consumption, transient hypoxaemia and ventricular arrythmias
26
How does asystole look on trace?
Not completely straight
27
Best way to estimate HR
Count R to R waves that occur in 30 large squares and x10
28
55-year-old women presents with a 1 h history of crushing central chest pain, nausea and sweating. Her pulse rate is 38 min-1, BP 75/45 mmHg. The ECG monitor shows sinus bradycardia - what is treatment?
Atropine 500mcg IV
29
What dose of adrenaline infusion for bradycardia?
2-10mcg per min IV
30
When does oxygen need to be removed during defib?
When a mask/nasal cannula is being used. LMA/definitive airway does not need removed and you can continue at 10 breaths min
31
What type of metabolic disturbance occurs in cardiac arrest?
Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis The best treatment is chest compressions, second to this is ventilation
32
Effects of bicarb physiologically
Generates CO2 which diffuses rapildy into cells resulting in 1) Exacerbates intracellular acidosis 2) Produces negative inotropic effect on ischaemic myocardium 3) Effects sodium 4) Produces left shift in the oxygen dissociation curve which inhibits release of oxygen into tissues
33
Treatment to be considered for arrhythmias due to TCA overdose
Soda bic
34
When is PCI recommended (STEMI)
If presents with <12 hrs chest pain and STEMI or LBBB Aim to PCI within 120 minutes
35
Initial J of shock in arrest?
At least 120J
36
A patient is collapsed and has agonal breathing - what should you do?
Commence CPR
37
Disturbance causing arrest in acute severe asthma
Hypoxia
38
IV treatment in asthma and dose
Mag sulph 2g IV (helps bronchodilation)
39
Adrenaline dose anaphylaxis
0.5mg IM
40
Treatment and doses for hyper K
10ml 10% calcium gluconate
41
Defibrillation energies in asthma should..
Be higher - hyperinflation increases impedance
42
How should fine VF be treated??
If it is not certain whether the ECG shows asystole or very fine VF, do not spend time attempting to distinguish the rhythm. If the rhythm appears to be VF give a shock, and if it appears to be asystole continue chest compressions. Avoid excessive interruptions in chest compressions for rhythm analysis.
43