1
Q
Which layer of the OSI model is the physical layer? (Page 1-14)
A
1
2
Q
Within how many calendar days of receipt must personnel who receive a formal Equal Opportunity complaint submit the complaint to the commander or other designated authority?
A
1
3
Q
Which layer of the OSI model is the physical layer?
A
1
4
Q
Which layer of the OSI model do repeaters work at?
A
1
5
Q
Which layer of the OSI model is the data link layer? (Page 1-14)
A
2
6
Q
How many Executive Methods are there?
A
2
7
Q
Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe will Male Trousers, Blue, Evening?
A
2
8
Q
How many inches should the Male Officer/COP boat cloak extend below the kneecap?
A
2
9
Q
How many primary modes of system operation are there?
A
2
10
Q
How many major functions do protocols have?
A
2
11
Q
Which layer of the OSI model is the data link layer
A
2
12
Q
How many categories are component failures categorized into?
A
2
13
Q
Which layer of the OSI model is the network layer? (Page 1-14)
A
3
14
Q
Which layer of the OSI model do routers work on? (Page 2-2)
A
3
15
Q
How many related elements does the term Voice Procedure encompass?
A
3
16
Q
- How many times is SOS typed during a distress call using RATT/NDPB? (Page 2-3)
A
3
17
Q
- How many times is MAYDAY spoken during a distress call? (Page 2-2)
A
3
18
Q
- Any station that hears the Urgency signal must continue to listen for at least how many minutes? (Page 4-3)
A
3
19
Q
- How many times is the group of words PAN PAN transmitted in voice urgency signals? (Page 4-1)
A
3
20
Q
- How many different tiers is the Department of Defense organized into to conduct CND? (Page A-6)
A
3
21
Q
Which layer of the OSI model is the network layer?
A
3
22
Q
Which layer of the OSI model do routers work on?
A
3
23
Q
How many primary culprits to network malfunctions are there?
A
3
24
Q
Which layer of the OSI model is the transport layer? (Page 1-15)
A
4
25
How many different types of backbone cable are recognized by EIA/TIA-568? (Page 2-8)
4
26
What is the minimum recommended number of years of active service for officers to be the CMEO Manager?
4
27
For men, no individual hair will measure more than how many inches in length?
4
28
How many common situations for rebooting the system are there?
4
29
Which layer of the OSI model is the transport layer?
4
30
How many different types of backbone cable are recognized by EIA/TIA-568?
4
31
Which layer of the OSI model is the session layer? (Page 1-15)
5
32
If several stations are called in one transmission and one fails to answer in its turn, the next in turn answers after a how many-second pause?
5
33
2. If several stations are called in one transmission and one fails to answer in its turn, the next in turn answers after a how many-second pause? (Page 6-3)
5
34
11. Which line of a standard naval message will contain the precedence, date-time group, and message instructions? (Page 5-10)
5
35
Inside the All-Weather Coat, Blue lining, ownership markings must be 3 inches below collar seam, and inside on outer shell on manufacturer's tag, how many inches from bottom left front?
5
36
Which layer of the OSI model is the session layer?
5
37
Which layer of the OSI model is the presentation layer? (Page 1-15)
6
38
How many steps are involved in the Navy Planning process?
6
39
Which layer of the OSI model is the presentation layer?
6
40
Which layer of the OSI model is the application layer? (Page 1-15)
7
41
Which layer of the OSI model do gateways work on? (Page 2-2)
Gateways typically operate at the Application Layer (Layer 7) of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model. Gateways are devices or software applications that translate data between different communication protocols or network architectures. They often perform protocol conversion and may involve complex processing to enable communication between systems using different standards or technologies. As a result, they function at the highest layer of the OSI model, which deals with application-specific issues and data formats.
42
A message addressed to one organization was formerly referred to as a Single Address message if it was addressed to a single Signal Message Address (SMA) in what Format Line? (Page 3-2)
7
43
How many layers does the OSI model consist of?
7
44
Which layer of the OSI model is the application layer?
7
45
Which layer of the OSI model do gateways work on?
7
46
How many times in one second can a light beam circle the earth?
7.5
47
When it is necessary for a station to initiate test signals, either for the adjustment of a transmitter before making a call or for the adjustment of a receiver, such signals will not continue for more than how many seconds and will be composed of spoken numerals (1, 2, 3 etc.) followed by the call sign of the station transmitting the signals?
10
48
1. When it is necessary for a station to initiate test signals, either for the adjustment of a transmitter before making a call or for the adjustment of a receiver, such signals will not continue for more than how many seconds and will be composed of spoken numerals (1, 2, 3 etc.) followed by the call sign of the station transmitting the signals? (Page 6-1)
10
49
Coaxial cable is used extensively in local-area networks whenever the distance involved is relatively short, generally less than 2 miles for baseband LANs and how many miles for broadband LANs?
10
50
13. Which line of a standard naval message contains the proword BREAK, separating the text from the heading? (Page 5-13)
11
51
14. Which line of a standard naval message is the text of the message? (Page 5-13)
12
52
15. Which line of a standard naval message is used only in abbreviated plaindress messages when a time group transmitted here takes the place of a date-time group in line 5? (Page 5-13)
14
53
16. Which line of a standard naval message is identified by the prowords OVER or OUT? (Page 5-13)
16
54
How many Interrupt Request Lines (IRQs) for hardware interrupts are there in a PC environment?
16
55
Individual transmission should not exceed how many seconds and, whenever possible, terminated with the proword OUT?
20
56
Length should be no longer than how many seconds in any one transmission?
20
57
8. Individual transmission should not exceed how many seconds and, whenever possible, terminated with the proword OUT? (Page 2-5)
20
58
8. Length should be no longer than how many seconds in any one transmission? (Page 5-3)
20
59
Within how many days after the Equal Opportunity investigation commences must a close-out message be sent describing what actions were taken?
20
60
33. How many equidistant divisions of the earth's surface are based on coordinates of Longitude East and/or West? (Page 3A-2)
24
61
Within how many hours of receiving a formal Equal Opportunity complaint must an advocate be assigned to each complainant, alleged offender as well as any witness to ensure they are informed about compliant processing?
24
62
Within how many days of medical evaluation must a DoDSER be completed for all suicide attempts by AC and RC Service members, as determined by competent medical authority?
30
63
How many months must commands maintain completed Equal Opportunity complaints and investigations for?
36
64
In all messages with a group count exceeding how many groups, if the receiving station is considered to be incorrect the transmitting station repeats the original group count and transmits the identity of the first, eleventh, and every subsequent tenth group followed by the letter of that group?
50
65
8. In all messages with a group count exceeding how many groups, if the receiving station is considered to be incorrect the transmitting station repeats the original group count and transmits the identity of the first, eleventh, and every subsequent tenth group followed by the letter of that group? (Page 6-28)
50
66
Within how many days of notification of death shall commands complete the Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) to report suicide instances and undetermined deaths for which suicide has not been excluded by the medical examiner?
60
67
Within how many days of completing the command climate assessment must CO's/OIC's ensure that a Climate Assessment Executive Summary is submitted to the Echelon 3 EOA (as applicable) via the ISIC?
60
68
How many days within the offending incident should Equal Opportunity complaints be made?
60
69
Within how many hours after receiving an Equal Opportunity complaint submission must the investigation commence?
72
70
Within how many days of accession will all DOD personnel, military and civilian, be educated and in the areas of sexual harassment identification, prevention, resolution and elimination
90
71
Within how many days of assuming command will Immediate Superiors In Command (ISIC) ensure that subordinate commanders assess their command climate?
90
72
Which section of Title 10, U.S. Code stipulates that no one person except members of the Army, Navy, Air Force, or Marine Corps, may wear uniform which has components similar to distinctive parts of Army, Navy, Air Force or Marine Corps uniforms?
771
73
What is the velocity in FPS that sound will travel through air at 32 degrees?
1,087
74
Which year did Ole Roemer discover that light travels approximately 186,000 miles per second in space?
1675
75
Which year was the Electronic Test Equipment Classification Board established to control the increased use of undesirable electronic test equipment (ETE) in fleet and shore activities?
1973
76
7. Which year was the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System fully implemented? (Page 1-2)
1999
77
4. Which squawking code can be used to indicate distress on IFF mode 3/A? (Page 5-1)
7700
IFF (Identification Friend or Foe) Mode 3/A is a standard mode of operation for military aircraft transponders. It's used for secondary surveillance radar (SSR) systems to identify and distinguish between friendly and potentially hostile aircraft.
In Mode 3/A, the transponder sends a four-digit octal (base-8) code, which is selected by the aircraft's operator or crew. This code is assigned by air traffic control or military authorities and corresponds to a specific aircraft's identity. The receiving radar system can then match this code to a known database to identify the aircraft as friendly or unknown.
IFF Mode 3/A is a crucial component of airspace control and air traffic management, helping to prevent friendly fire incidents and enhance situational awareness in military and civilian airspaces.
78
Which executive order delegated the authority to prescribe the quantity and kind of clothing or cash allowances in lieu of clothing, for enlisted personnel, to the Secretary of Defense?
10113
79
For Male Officers/COPs, the overcoat, blue extends what amount of the distance from kneecap to ground, shaped at waist, held by a two section half-belt at back with the end of the belt overlapped and fastened with two 40-line Navy eagle, gilt buttons?
1/3
80
How many weeks after a member's suicide are commands advised to maintain copies of medical, dental an service records in order to complete the DoDSER and respond to unforeseen questions?
6 - 8
81
Approximately how many miles per second does light travel?
186,000
82
On the all weather coat, anodized metal shoulder rank insignias shall be worn by E4 through O-10 personnel on each epaulet, centered from side to side with the bottom edge of the device approximately what length from the squared end of the epaulet?
0.75"
83
Which layers of the OSI model do bridges work on?
1 and 2
84
1. To indicate distress a gun or other explosive fired at intervals spaced about how far apart can be used? (Page 5-1)
1 minute
85
23. What is the time objective for messages assigned a precedence of Priority? (Page 3-18)
1-6 hours
86
In Radiotelephone Operation Message format, What does format Line 2 & 3 Contain? (Elements)
Message Follows
Transmission Identification
Transmission Instructions
87
Name measures against enemy traffic analysis (6 items)
1. Calling and answering - Call as few people as possible 2. Callsign Omission - Use callsigns as little as possible 3. Locations - Do not hint towards sensitive locations 4. Plain Language - NO NOT USE 5. Avoiding Compromise - Do not hint towards radio freq being used 6. Standardization - Remain Anonymous, never use unit names in clear
88
Which 4 items can be omitted when using an Abbreviated PLANDRESS?
1. Precedence
2. Date
3. Date-Time Group
4. Group Count
89
What are the key words to for methods of speech? (RSVP)
1. Rhythm
2. Speed
3. Volume
4. Pitch
90
Name 3 occasions when Full callsigns should be used
1. When first establishing a net
2. When reporting to a previously established net
3. In the transmission instructions and address components when a message is required to be relayed to a station on a different network
91
The white combination cap may be worn squarely on the head, with the bottom edge parallel to and how far above the eyebrows?
1.5 inch
92
What is the transmission rate of a T1 line? (Page 1-16)
1.5 Mbps
93
What is the transmission rate of a T1 line?
1.5 Mbps
94
What is the maximum length that women's hair may extend past the top of the jumper collar?
1.5"
95
The cumberbund when worn shall be worn with pleats up, around the waist overlapping the skirt/trouser top by at least what length?
1"
96
What is the maximum length that an individual mustache hair that is fully extended can be?
1/2 inch
97
Warrant Officers shoulder insignia surface is black cloth. Stripe widths are as specified for sleeves of blue coats but what length are the blue break(s) rather than being 2 inches apart?
1/2 inch
98
When a woman's hairstyle of multiple braids is worn, the braids shall be of uniform dimension, small in diameter (approx. what size), and tightly interwoven to present a neat, professional, well groomed appearance?
1/4 inch
99
Mustaches shall not go beyond a horizontal line extending across the corners of the mouth and no more than what distance beyond a vertical line drawn from the corner of the mouth?
1/4 inch
100
If a shaving waiver is authorized, no facial/neck hair shall be shaved, manicured, styled or outlined nor exceed what length?
1/4 inch
101
What is the maximum fingernail length measured from the fingertip that females can have?
1/4 inch
102
Navy coveralls and NWU's are required to have U.S. Navy tape of what size, worn centered side to side over the wearer's left breast pocket?
1/4 inch
103
What should be the approximate thickness of the soles in women's dress heels?
1/4 inch
104
The usable radio-frequency range is roughly 10 kilohertz to what?
100 gigahertz
105
Approximately how many nautical miles are GMDSS Global Maritime Distress and Safety System Area A2 (Anti-Access/Area Denial) Operational areas from shore based MF coast stations? (Page 1-2)
100-150
106
What type of uniforms must not be worn when operating in any operating fire room?
100% Polyester
107
1. What is the International Aeronautical Emergency Frequency? (Page 6-1)
121.5 MHz
108
1. Which frequencies are continuously monitored by aeronautical stations for aircrafts in distress? (Page 3- 2)
121.5 MHz and/or 243 MHz
109
5. Which frequency is for world-wide use when communicating with enroute aircraft participating in SAR operations? (Page 6-4)
123.1 MHz
110
In Radiotelephone Operation Message format, What does format Line 14 & 16 Contain?
14. Time Group
16. Ending Group
111
The Navy has set an arbitrary upper limit for sonics at 10,000 hertz and a lower limit at what?
15 Hertz
112
10. What is the International Distress, Safety, and Calling frequency for the maritime mobile VHF radiotelephone service? (Page 2-4)
156.8 MHz
113
4. Which frequency is for international use by the maritime mobile VHF radiotelephone service as a distress, safety and calling frequency? (Page 6-3)
156.8 MHz
114
Which layers of the OSI model can a brouter work on?
2 and 3
115
The Male Necktie, Bow, Black shall be plain style with square ends between 2 inches and how many inches in vertical width?
2.75"
116
What is the maximum length that the bulk of women's hair as measured from the scalp can be?
2"
117
8. Approximately how many nautical miles are GMDSS (Global Maritime Distress and Safety System) Area A1 Operational areas from shore based VHF coast stations? (Page 1-2)
20-30
118
9. What is the International Distress frequency for voice? (Page 2-4)
2182 kHz
119
What are the two most common types of twisted-pair media? (Page 1-16)
22 and 24 gauge
120
What are the two most common types of twisted-pair media?
22 and 24 guage
121
3. What are the two primary sinusoidal audio frequency tones transmitted alternatively in alarm signals used to warn operators that a distress call or message is to follow? (Page 2-2)
2200 Hz and 1300 Hz
122
2. What is the Distress and Emergency Frequency? (Page 6-1)
243.0 MHz
123
What is the transmission rate of a T4 line? (Page 1-16)
281 Mbps
124
What is the transmission rate of a T4 line?
281 Mbps
125
What is the SHF frequency range?
3 to 30 GHz
126
What is the VLF frequency range?
3 to 30 KHz
127
What is the HF frequency range?
3 to 30 MHz
128
The Secretary of the Navy prescribed the following distinctive mark for members of military societies which are composed entirely of honorably discharged officers and enlisted personnel and the instructors and members of duly organized cadet corps. This distinctive mark is a diamond, how many inches long in the vertical axis, made of any fabric, white on blue, forestry green, or khaki clothing and blue on white clothing?
3.5"
129
Hair above the ears and around the neck shall be tapered from the lower natural hairline upwards at least 3/4 inch and outward not greater than what length to blend with hair-style for men?
3/4 inch
130
What should the size of the embroidered letters on Navy coveralls be?
3/4 inch
131
Dress shoes shall be plain toed, oxford style black, brown, or white, low quarter, lace shoe, made of smooth leather or synthetic leather. The heel shall be an outside heel that is how high with a flat sole?
3/4 inch - 7/8 inch
132
The male version of the white dinner dress coat jacket is semi-peaked with narrow lapels with the back tapered to a point, and loops for shoulder boards. There are two 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons down each side of the front, with a front closure held together by two 28-line Navy eagle buttons with a link approximately how long?
3/4"
133
Approximately how high should stencil letters be?
3/8 inch
134
What is the EHF frequency range?
30 to 300 GHz
135
What is the LF frequency range?
30 to 300 KHz
136
What is the VHF frequency range?
30 to 300 MHz
137
How many days after the final Equal Opportunity investigation action must commands conduct a follow-up debrief?
30-45
138
4. How many seconds is the alarm signal continuously sent to warn operators that a distress call or message is to follow? (Page 2-2)
30-60
139
22. What is the time objective for messages assigned a precedence of Immediate? (Page 3-18)
30-60 minutes
140
The frequencies falling between 3 kHz and what, are called radio frequencies (abbreviated rf) since they are commonly used in radio communications?
300 GHz
141
What is the MF frequency range?
300 to 3000 KHz
142
What is the UHF frequency range?
300 to 3000 MHz
143
3. Which frequencies are used to supplement the carrier frequency 2182 kHz for DISTRESS and SAFETY purposes and for call and reply? (Page 6-3)
4125 kHz and 6215 kHz
144
What is the transmission rate of a T3 line? (Page 1-16)
46 Mbps
145
What is the transmission rate of a T3 line?
46 Mbps
146
For women, one earring per ear (centered on earlobe) may be worn while in uniform. Earrings shall be what size ball, plain with shiny or brushed matte finish, screw on or with posts?
4mm - 6mm
147
12. Which lines of a standard naval message form the address of the message and are recognized by the prowords FROM, TO, INFO and EXEMPT, respectively? (Page 5-10)
6, 7, 8, and 9
148
What is the transmission rate of a T2 line? (Page 1-16)
6.3 Mbps
149
What is the transmission rate of a T2 line?
6.3 Mbps
150
The All-Weather Coat, Blue is a black, single-breasted, beltless, winter repellent coat made of poly/cotton poplin fabric mix of what percent poly and what percent cotton poplin?
65/35
151
6. What is the minimum length that ground distress signals should be? (Page 5-4)
8 feet
152
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are likely to occur , immediately or within a short period of time?
A
153
What is a Code Word?
A codeword is a single word with a pre-arranged meaning, used to establish a condition, an alert, or to initiate the implementation of a plan or operation
154
What is a PLAINDRESS message?
A message in which the originator and addressee designators are indicated externally of the text. Contains all basic message format and must always include the precedence and DTG ( Unless Abbreviated)
155
What is an address Group?
A unique, daily changing group of four random letters used to disguise a command, formation, unit or sub unit.
156
What is the PROSIGN for the PROWORD: UNKNOWN STATION?
AA
157
2. Which format is normally used for messages transmitted by the Executive Method? (Page 7-1)
Abbreviated plaindress
158
Which model has the Navy adopted to facilitate the use of risk management at the time critical level?
ABCD
159
Which risk management model establishes a structure for individuals, teams, or crews to learn new or complex behaviors, skills, or values or gain understanding?
ABCD
160
What can be used to measure capacitance, inductance, and resistance for precise accuracy?
AC Bridges
161
What is that portion of identified risk that is allowed to persist during the mission or task called?
Acceptable risk
162
Which point of military service is the first structured encounter with formal military education and training for the individual and offers a one-time opportunity to introduce and integrate RM concepts with initial military skills training?
Accession point
163
26. What is a communication indicating that the message to which it refers has been received and the purpose is understood by the addressee? (Page 3-24)
Acknowledgement
164
What is the science of sound referred to as?
Acoustics
165
Information concerning the security of communications is contained in what publication? (Page 2-4)
ACP 122
166
24. Time objectives for Formal Messages originated or in transit within the X.400 domain are contained within the current edition of what publication? (Page 3-18)
ACP 123
167
4. CODRESS is not supported by what systems as these systems require the complete PLAD (Plain Language Address Designator) components to make delivery? (Page 6-2)
ACP 123
(Allied Communications Publications)
168
6. The procedure to be used for the transmission of enemy contact reports by radiotelephony are given in what series? (Page 6-4)
ACP 125
169
1. The purpose of what is to provide a standardized way of passing speech and data traffic as securely as possible consistent with accuracy, speed and the needs of command and control? (Page 1-1)
ACP 125
170
What series should be consulted for complete details of maritime enemy contact reporting? (Page 6-3)
ACP 176
171
ACPs are prepared in accordance with the format contained in what?
ACP 198
172
2. What provide communications instructions and procedures, which are essential to the conduct of military operations?
ACPs
173
Which condition refers to all the items that compete for an individual's or crew's attention during the execution of a mission or task?
Additive Condition
174
1. Any combination of characters or pronounceable words designated for use in message headings to identify a command, authority, unit or communications facility, or to assist in the transmission and delivery of messages, may be classed as a station or what else? (Page 5-1)
Address designator
175
15. What is a unique, daily changing group of four random letters used to disguise a command, formation, unit or sub unit? (Page 2-11)
Address group
176
4. Call signs and what else are used in lieu of plain language for brevity purposes? (Page 5-2)
Address groups
177
What should the U.S. Flag never be used for?
Advertising
178
Which representatives are assigned by the commander to ensure that complainants, accused, and witnesses in equal opportunity and sexual harassment cases are informed of the complaint process and are advised of the available support and counseling services?
Advocates
179
When should callsigns stop being used?
After the initial call between two stations.
180
7. What is a form of military address designator representing a predetermined list of specific and frequently recurring combinations of action and/or information addressees? (Page 5-5)
AIG
181
What are personnel not allowed to consume while wearing NWUs off base?
Alcohol
182
A wave property that gives a relative indication of the amount of energy the wave transmits
Amplitude
183
5. What is the examination and interpretation of intercepted radio communications traffic and electronic transmissions for the purpose of obtaining intelligence? (Page 2-4)
Analysis
184
What is the angle between the reflected wave and the normal called?
Angle of reflection
185
Which units are used for measuring the wavelength of light?
Angstrom
186
How often will fraternization training be provided by Commanders?
Annually
187
At least how often will suicide prevention training be conducted for all Active Component (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) Service members and for all Navy civilian employees and full-time contractors who work on military installations?
Annually
188
How often should Commanding Officers ensure that suicide prevention training is conducted for all command personnel?
Annually
189
How often must the Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO) provide an EO Climate Assessment describing the "health" and organizational effectiveness of the Navy?
Annually
190
How often must Commanding Officers and Officers In Charge provide Equal Opportunity and Sexual Harassment training and grievance procedure instruction as required per SECNAVINST 5350.16A for all assigned command members as part of CPPD generated GMT?
Annually
191
How often must EOA's conduct a review of subordinate commands' executive summaries and provide a summary of the areas of concern to the commander?
Annually
192
How often must the command ORM manager submit ORM lessons learned and best practices to the ORM model manager for dissemination?
Annually
193
How often must all Navy commands conduct an ORM program evaluation?
Annually
194
What is a conductor or a set of conductors used either to radiate electromagnetic energy into space or to collect this energy from space?
Antenna
195
Which layer of the OSI model represents the services that directly support users and application tasks? (Page 1-15)
Application
196
Which layer of the OSI model represents the services that directly support users and application tasks?
Application
197
Who may authorize working uniforms in specific geographic regions or situations when warranted by local conditions?
Area coordinators
198
Which U.S. Navy Regulations article states that no person in the Naval service shall have any article of wearing apparel belonging to any other person in the naval service without permission from proper authority?
Article 1161
199
Which U.S. Navy Regulations article prohibits fraternization?
Article 1165
200
14. Which type of data gives the Department of Defense the ability to sense changes in DoD information networks? (Page A-7)
AS&W
Attack Sensing and Warning
201
The NATO military messaging system cannot/will not send or receive messages bearing what 3 caveat? (Page 3-9)
EXCLUSIVE
CRYPTOSECURITY
ATOMAL
"NATO Marking for US Atomic Information"
202
What is defined as the decrease in signal strength, measured in decibels (dB) per 100 feet? (Page 3-6)
Attenuation
203
What is defined as the decrease in signal strength, measured in decibels (dB) per 100 feet?
Attenuation
204
Which term refers to the process of recording events and using that information to detect usage violations or to confirm that network procedures are operating correctly?
Auditing
205
13. What is a security aid designed to protect Allied communications against deception from fraudulent transmissions by unauthorized persons? (Page 2-10)
Authentication
206
1. What is any person qualified and empowered to make decisions or give orders on behalf of the commander? (Page G-1)
Authority
207
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that will probably occur in time?
B
208
Which type of cable refers to the cable that forms the main trunk of a network? (Page 2-8)
Backbone
209
Which type of cable refers to the cable that forms the main trunk of a network?
Backbone
210
Which part of the ABCD risk management model is specifically tied to making risk decisions?
Balance resources
211
Which term refers to the initial operating conditions of the equipment on installation or after overhaul when it is operating according to design?
Baseline
212
What are the minimum items which must be worn on uniforms unless the prescribing authority directs otherwise?
Basic uniform components
213
What is a simple, rapid procedure for use by circuit operators to police the security of insecure voice networks?
BEADWINDOW
A radio-telephone procedure used to indicate to an operator that they have disclosed an essential element of friendly information on a non-secure circuit.
214
3. What is a simple, rapid procedure for use by circuit operators to police the security of insecure voice networks? (Page 8-2)
BEADWINDOW
215
What is a large volume of light called?
Beam
216
How often must NETC and all other commands involved in the formal training of personnel in ORM report training effectiveness?
Biennially
217
Which technique guides a group in an interactive exchange of ideas, deferring judgement until the end of the session?
Brainstorming
218
Which procedure will not normally be employed during the transmission of tactical messages except to report enemy contact?
Break-in
219
10. Which procedure will not normally be employed during the transmission of tactical messages except to report enemy contact? (Page 6-40)
Break-in
220
What is a list of numbers or letter, which equate to a standard predetermined vocabulary of words or phrases?
Brevity code
221
3. What is a list of numbers or letter, which equate to a standard predetermined vocabulary of words or phrases? (Page 3-8)
Brevity code
222
What makes it possible to interconnect like LANs?
Bridges
network connection that allows several devices to communicate with each other as if they were on the same physical network
223
What is defined as the distance that the mass of hair protrudes from the scalp?
Bulk
224
The face shall be clean shaven unless a shaving waiver is authorized by the Commanding Officer per what instruction?
BUPERSINST 1000.22
225
Which type of network are all components or nodes connected to the same cable, and the far ends of this cable never meet?
Bus
226
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that may occur in time?
C
227
Which label has black lettering on a white background that comes in two sizes and is the most commonly used label in the METCAL (Metrology and Calibration) program?
Calibrated
228
Which label has red lettering on a white background and is used when you must know the actual measurements values to use the instrument?
Calibrated - Refer to report
229
What is the checking, adjusting, or systematically aligning a test instrument to a known standard known as?
Calibration
230
Which label has black letters on a white background that is placed over readily accessible (usually exterior) adjustments to prevent tampering by the user when such tampering could affect the calibration?
Calibration-void if seal is broken
231
10. Which part of a message serves to identify the stations between which that particular message is being transmitted? (Page 5-6)
Heading, Address
232
16. What is a combination of letters and figures that identify a communication facility, an organization, or an individual on a radio net? (Page 2-11)
Callsign
233
4. What are figures, letters, or combinations of both used to identify a communications station, an organization, or an individual on a radio net? (Page 1-2)
Callsigns
234
Which hazard severity category is defined as a loss of the ability to accomplish the mission?
Category I
235
Which hazard severity category is defined as having significantly degraded mission capability or unit readiness?
Category II
236
Which hazard severity category is identified by degraded mission capability or unit readiness?
Category III
237
Which hazard severity category is indicated by little or no adverse impact on mission capability or unit readiness?
Category IV
238
Which center function as the Navy's equal opportunity training manager and develops the overall Navy training strategies from the entry level all the way through the executive levels?
Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD)
239
What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting discriminatory practices?
Chain of command
240
Who oversees the MEASURE program and establishes policy and guidelines?
Chief of Naval Operations
241
Who must authorize the fabrics to be used for manufacturing Naval uniforms?
Chief of Naval Operations
242
Who is responsible for approving the fabrics used for Naval uniform manufacturing?
Chief of Naval Operations
243
Which personnel provide leadership both in their direct chain of command as well as for the entire unit?
Chief Petty Officers
244
Who develops the procedures and policy that ensure service members are properly evaluated and treated that exhibit suicide-related ideations, communications or behavior?
Chief, BUMED
Bureau of Medicine and Surgery
245
Historically, what were women's uniforms designed to duplicate?
Civilian fashion trends
246
4. Joint Staff and CC/S/A/FAs will comply with DoD Cyber Incident Handling Program responsibilities in accordance with which reference? (Page A-3)
CJCSI 6510.01
247
2. What is a critical element of any message which shows the security protection that should be given to the signal by originators and addressees? (Page G-1)
Classification
248
What is the hardware signal that is sent from a receiver to a transmitter to indicate that the transmitter can begin sending?
Clear To Send (CTS)
249
Who functions as the single point of contact, when practicable, for command equal opportunity issues?
CMEO Manager
250
9. What directs the actions taken, within the Department of Defense, to *protect*, monitor, analyze, detect, and respond to unauthorized activity *within* DoD information *networks* and ISs? (Page A-5)
CND
Computer Network Defense
251
Who monitors the Navy's progress toward accomplishing EO goals and positive command climates?
CNO
252
Who issues the U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations?
CNO
253
What are low level Codes?
Codes designed to provide protection for sensitive short-term tactical information
254
What is a single word with a pre-arranged meaning, used to establish a condition, an alert, or to initiate the implementation of a plan or operation?
Codeword
255
14. What is a single word with a pre-arranged meaning, used to establish a condition, an alert, or to initiate the implementation of a plan or operation? (Page 2-10)
Codeword
256
What message is one in which the entire address is encrypted within the text?
CODRESS
257
11. In legacy systems, the use of PLAD plain language address designators in the heading of what messages is prohibited? (Page 5-6)
CODRESS
258
6. Indefinite call signs are used by warships and merchant vessels when transmitting what messages or other messages requiring security of origination to shore radio stations? (Page 5-3)
CODRESS
259
3. What is a procedure whereby the entire address of a message is contained within the encrypted text? (Page 6-2)
CODRESS
260
5. Service messages may be prepared and transmitted in plaindress, abbreviated plaindress, or which other form? (Page 5-2)
Codress
261
3. Which type of message is one in which the entire address (i.e., originator and all addressees, including address indicating groups when used), is encrypted within the text? (Page 5-1)
Codress
262
Which names are reserved by DOS to reserve the first serial and parallel ports, respectively? (Page 1-6)
COM1 and LPT1
263
Which names are reserved by DOS to reserve the first serial and parallel ports, respectively?
COM1 and LPT1
264
1. What is comprised of the five member nations, Australia, Canada, New Zealand, United Kingdom and United States and is the Sponsoring Authority for all Allied Communications Publications (ACPs)? (Page i)
Combined Communications-Electronics Board (CCEB)
265
What promotes positive command morale and Quality of Life (QOL) by providing an environment in which all personnel can perform to their maximum ability, unimpeded by institutional or individual biases based on race, color, ethnicity, national origin, sex or religious stereotypes?
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)
Program
266
Who ensures that ORM is included in the orientation and training of all military and civilian command personnel?
Command ORM manager
267
Who ensures that specifications for all articles of uniform and insignia prescribed for naval personnel are prepared and maintained from approval of the Chief of Naval Operations?
Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command
268
Who ensures that installation emergency response personnel receive annual training, which reviews safety precautions and procedures and de-escalation techniques, when responding to situations of potential suicide-related behaviors and psychiatric emergencies?
Commander, Navy Installations Command
269
Who must authorize the transfer or exchange of an enlisted person's uniform?
Commanding Officer
270
Which part of the ABCD model is tied to all the steps of the 5-step ORM process?
Communicate to others
271
2. What is the collective title for the measures taken to protect all aspects of communications in order to deny information and intelligence to an enemy? (Page 2-3)
Communications Security (COMSEC)
272
What is the direct route from a place of residence to place of work by the means of a private vehicle including all travel abroad DOD-owned/controlled aircraft referred to as?
Commuting
273
What is the collective title for the measures taken to protect all aspects of Communications in order to deny information and intelligence to an enemy?
COMSEC
274
What serves as a termination point for cable running from individual nodes in a network?
Concentrator
In a LAN, concentrators provide "collapsed backbone," bridging, and routing functions.
275
18. Block allocations of call signs used in tactical communications are normally classified as what to restrict access to this information? (Page 5-20)
CONFIDENTIAL
276
Which type of error leads to undesired consequences to property, personnel, or the mission?
Consequential
277
What are the two principal network access methods? (Page 1-12)
Contention and Token passing
278
What are the two principal network access methods?
Contention and Token passing
279
What are the actions taken or measures that are put in place to eliminate a hazard or reduce the associated identified risk defined as?
Controls
280
Content, location, size, along with what else are the four criterias that will be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are permitted for Navy personnel?
Cosmetic
281
What type of cash allowances is provided for replacing a minimum quantity of each required uniform that is paid over the estimated useful life of the articles?
CRA
282
What is defined as interference in the form of a signal from a neighboring cable or circuit?
Crosstalk
283
What component of COMSEC is used to mark messages containing cryptographic information, the knowledge of which needs to be restricted to individuals authorized to receive it?
CRYPTOSECURITY
284
What has the Navy historically relied upon to define the bounds of acceptable personal relationships among its members?
Customs and traditions
285
17. Which CND response service identifies several critical elements of an *incident* to determine and characterize its possible effects on DoD information networks, operational missions, and other defense programs? (Page A-8)
Cyber Incident Analysis
286
3. Which program was developed by the Department of Defense to provide specific guidance for CC/S/A/Fas regarding the requirements for cyber incident handling and reporting? (Page A-2)
Cyber Incident Handling Program
287
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are unlikely to occur but are not impossible?
D
288
What is the simultaneous presence of signals from two nodes on the network referred to as?
Data collision
289
What prevents files from being updated by more than one user at a time?
Data Integrity
290
Which layer of the OSI model provides error-free transmission of information over the physical medium? (Page 1-14)
Data link
291
Which layer of the OSI model provides error-free transmission of information over the physical medium?
Data link
292
A plaindress message contains all the components (unless the call serves as the address) as shown in the basic message format and must always include the precedence and what else?
Date-Time Group
293
2. A plaindress message contains all the components (unless the call serves as the address) as shown in the basic message format and must always include the precedence and what else? (Page 5-1)
Date-Time Group
294
How is the Signal-to-Noise Ration (SNR) usually expressed?
dB
295
8. Which prosign is used during a distress call using RATT/NDPB or CW to indicate what station the transmission is from? (Page 2-3)
DE
(CW = Radiotelegraphy)
296
6. What is the introduction of a false transmission into a communications system, by imitating an authentic transmission, with the intention to deceive or create confusion? (Page 2-4)
Deception
297
What institute is responsible for developing and conducting education and training in the administration of military EO, EEO, human relations, and diversity?
Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute (DEOMI)
298
Which risk management level refers to situations when there is ample time to apply the RM process to the detailed planning of a mission or task?
Deliberate
299
What property of a medium or substance is the mass per unit volume of the medium or substance?
Density
300
Which manual is the authority for clothing allowance payments?
Department of Defense Military Pay and Allowances Entitlements Manual
301
Who is responsible for establishing a suicide prevention program policy?
Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (Manpower, Personnel, Training and Education) (CNO) (N1))
302
What is the bending of the wave path when the waves meet an obstruction?
Diffraction
303
What type of solution may be used to brighten embroidered insignia?
Diluted ammonia
304
In which type of net do stations obtain permission from the NCS prior to communicating with other stations in the net?
Direct Net
305
5. In which type of net do stations obtain permission from the NCS prior to communicating with other stations in the net? (Page 6-10)
Directed
306
Who is responsible for ensuring that Navy fraternization training is provided in General Military Training?
Director, Military Personnel Plans and Policy Division (N13)
307
5. Which agency must Joint Staff and CC/S/A/FAs ensure that *Tier II CNDSP*s (Computer Network Defense Service Provider) are **registered with to provide CND services** for CC/S/A/FA information networks and ISs? (Page A-3)
DISA
Defense Information Systems Agency
308
2. What is the condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance defined as? (Page 1-1)
Distress
309
4. Which type of traffic has absolute priority over all other transmissions? (Page 1-1)
Distress
310
1. Which procedures comprise all the communications relating to the immediate assistance required by the mobile station in trouble? (Page 2-1)
Distress
311
2. Urgency signals have priority over all other communications except for which other type? (Page 4-1)
Distress
312
Which departments definition of sexual harassment establishes a standard that exceeds that of the EEOC?
DOD
313
CO's/OIC's shall ensure that detailed Naval messages, are sent upon receipt of a formal complaint of unlawful discrimination or SH, per which reference?
DOD Directive 1325.6
314
Which directive outlines uniform allowances policies and regulations?
DOD Directive 1338.5
315
Which should personnel traveling overseas consult for any particular uniform or civilian clothing requirements for their destination?
DoD Foreign Clearance Guide
316
DoD Directive 1338.5 along with what other instruction contain the uniform requirements that the initial clothing articles issued to enlisted personnel must meet?
DoD Instructions 1338.18
317
What is the apparent change in frequency or pitch when a sound source moves either toward or away from the listener, or when the listener moves either toward or away from the sound source
Doppler Effect
318
Who is the person who actually composes the message for release by the Releasing Officer? (Page 3-1)
Drafter
319
Messages intended for training communications personnel are what messages? (Page 3-10)
Drill
320
5. Which paging technique is used to automate the initial call between two stations that operates on MF, HF, and VHF marine bands for distress, urgency, and safety alerting? (Page 2-2)
DSC
Digital Selective Calling
321
What should the minimum rank of the SPC be whenever it is possible?
E-7
322
Which personnel must have their seabags inspected at regular intervals to ensure that they possess the required items?
E1-E3
323
What is the reflection of the original sound wave as it bounces off a distant surface called?
Echo
324
During the pinging process what is the ping that is sent out called? (Page 1-6)
Echo message
325
During the pinging process what is the ping that is sent out called?
Echo message
326
What is the ability of a strained body to recover its shape after deformation?
Elasticity
327
What are the two basic physical properties that govern the velocity of sound through the medium?
Elasticity and Density
328
Which two primary components does an electromagnetic wave consist of?
Electric and Magnetic field
329
What is light a form of?
Electromagnetic radiation
330
Who serves as the primary advisor and subject matter expert to commanders and CMEO Managers as well as provides assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues?
EOA
331
Who serves as the primary advisors and subject matter experts to commanders and Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Managers providing assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues
EOAs
332
DON personnel who may be called upon to conduct or review investigations into alleged incidents of sexual harassment should receive training in DON policy on investigate methods and processes along with what else?
Equal opportunity
333
What is defined as the right of all persons to participate and benefit from the programs and activities for which they are qualified?
Equal Opportunity (EO)
334
How often must an updated message be sent if the equal opportunity complaint investigation is not completed at the 20-day point until the close-out message describing case disposition is released?
Every 14 days
335
To prevent damage to electrical measuring instruments, you should observe the precautions relating to three hazards: mechanical shock, exposure to magnetic fields, and what else?
Excessive current flow
336
What is used when it is desired to execute a tactical message at a given instant?
Executive Method
337
1. What is used when it is desired to execute a tactical message at a given instant? (Page 7-1)
Executive Method
338
What provides useful information for an enemy to use in a timely way (his response time can be expected to be as little as a few minutes) to our disadvantage?
Exploitable text
339
11. What provides useful information for an enemy to use in a timely way (his response time can be expected to be as little as a few minutes) to our disadvantage? (Page 2-8)
Exploitable text
340
What is an expression that considers the frequency, length of time, and percentage of people or assets subjected to a hazard?
Exposure
341
What is the PROSIGN for the PROWORD: DO NOT ANSWER?
F
342
What is the transmission of information, such as, pictures, maps, messages and other similar material? (Page 2-5)
Facsimile
343
What is a style called that is followed for a short period of time with exaggerated zeal?
Faddish
344
Which type of transmission media is immune to interference caused by electrical or electronic devices? (Page 2-4)
Fiber
345
Which type of transmission media is immune to interference caused by electrical or electronic devices?
Fiber
346
What is a Callsign?
Figures, letters, or combinations of both used to identify a COMMs station, an organization, or an individual on a radio net.
347
Fingernails shall not extend past what distance for males?
Fingertips
348
What are used to secure a Local Area Network from a public network?
Firewalls
349
1. Federal agencies are required to have in place cyber incident handling mechanisms in accordance with which act? (Page A-2)
FISMA
The Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA) is a U.S. law that protects government information, operations, and assets from threats.
350
21. What message precedence is handled as fast as humanly possible with a time objective of less than 10 minutes? (Page 3-18)
Flash
351
How many inches is the maximum length for Men's hair?
Four
352
The female version of the blue overcoat has a single row of how many 40-line Navy eagle, gilt buttons on each forefront?
Four
353
How many basic principles are there that provide the foundation for RM and the framework for implementing the ORM process?
Four
354
Which term is traditionally used to identify personal relationships which contravene the customary bounds of acceptable senior-subordinate relationships?
Fraternization
355
In which type of net does the net control station (NCS) authorize member stations to transmit traffic to other stations in the net without obtaining prior permission from the NCS?
Free
356
4. In which type of net does the net control station (NCS) authorize member stations to transmit traffic to other stations in the net without obtaining prior permission from the NCS? (Page 6-10)
Free
357
What is the number of cycles of a sine wave that are completed in 1 second known as?
Frequency
358
9. Punctuation is not authorized to be in the SMA with the exception of the hyphen and the what? (Page 3- 4)
Full stop
359
What makes it possible to interconnect larger networks than LANs?
Gateways
360
28. The operating signal ZFF shall not be used on what messages? (Page 3-25)
General
361
Messages addressed to a collective address include _________, which have a wide standard distribution and are controlled through the use of sequential serial numbers? (Page 3-2)
General Messages
362
10. Which system uses modern technology, including satellite and digital selective calling techniques on MF, HF, and VHF bands, known as terrestrial systems, enabling a distress alert to be transmitted and received automatically over short and long distances? (Page 1-3)
GMDSS
GLOBAL MARITIME DISTRESS AND SAFETY SYSTEM
363
Name the 3 Best Defenses against Deception
- Good Procedures
- Constant Vigilance
- Authentication
364
Which type of test equipment has the capability, without modification, to generate, modify, or measure a range of parameters of electronic functions required to test tow or more equipments or systems of basically difference design?
General purpose electronic test equipment (GPETE)
365
Which sexual harassment traffic light zone of behavior is defined by touching which could not reasonably be perceived in a sexual way (such as shaking hands, or a friendly pat on the shoulder), counseling on military appearance, social interaction, showing concern or encouragement, a polite compliment, or friendly conversation?
Green
366
Which color light on the traffic light scale would touching which could not reasonably be perceived in a sexual way (such as shaking hands or a friendly pat on the shoulder) be identified as?
Green
367
2. Time checks will be given in what unless otherwise requested or directed? (Page 8-1)
Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)
IT2 Advancement Exam
flashcards
Decks in class (18)
# Cards
-
301-303 Types of Messages25
-
304 to 307 Distress/ Action16
-
402 Frequencies6
-
3.15 Waves8
-
310-313 Operating Rules11
-
314 Straggler Message12
-
315-325 EOM End Of Message14
-
326-328 Requests for Reduction or Change11
-
329 Automatically Generated Service10
-
330 Canceling Transmission2
-
ACP 12824
-
COMNAVIDFOR Presumables15
-
IT2 Dates5
-
Misc21
-
Consolidated definite need to knows22
-
Big Deck51
-
Mega Deck 1367
-
Mega Deck 2368
