Memory lists

Question 1

Pulling Engine Fire Switches

Answer 1

• closes the related engine and spar fuel valves
• closes the related engine bleed air valve
• trips off the related engine generator
• shuts off hydraulic fluid to the related engine-driven hydraulic pump
• depressurizes the related engine-driven hydraulic pump
• arms both related engine fire extinguishers
  Rotate to A or B - discharges selected fire extinguisher into the engine nacelle.

Question 2

FUEL CONTROL Switches
RUN to CUTOFF

Answer 2

• closes fuel valves
• removes igniter power
• commands respective hydraulic demand pump to operate when Demand
  Pump selector in AUTO
• unlocks Engine Fire switch

Question 3

APU Fire Switch out

Answer 3

• arms APU fire extinguisher bottle
• closes APU fuel valve
• closes APU bleed air valve
• closes APU air inlet door
• trips APU generator field and generator breaker
• shuts down APU (if automatic shutdown does not occur)
  Rotate - discharges APU fire extinguisher into APU compartment.

Question 4

Engine Fire switch is released when

Answer 4

1. Fire detected
2. Fuel Control Switch moved to cutoff
3. Mechanical unlock button

Question 5

Max doors wind limit

Answer 5

40 kt to operate
65 kt to leave open
Entry and cargo

Question 6

APU altitude limits

Answer 6

Operates to 20,000
Electric and start on the ground only.
1 pack to 15,000

Question 7

When will the speedbrakes go UP with lever in ARM?

Answer 7

1. Ground sensed
   2.Thrust levers 1 and 3 near idle.

Question 8

When will the speedbrakes go UP with lever in DN

Answer 8

1. Ground sensed
2. Thrust levers 1 and 3 near idle
3. 2 & 4 in idle reverse

Question 9

When will the Autobrakes operate with the switch in RTO

Answer 9

1. Over 85 KTs GS
2. All Thrust levers are closed
3. Ground senses

Question 10

Autobrakes on landing

Answer 10

1. Ground sensed
2. Thrust lever closed
3. Wheels have spun up.

Question 11

Wings span

Answer 11

64.9 M

Question 12

Minimum width for 180 degrees turn

Answer 12

46.3 M

Question 13

Minimum runway width

Answer 13

150 ft

Question 14

Wheels span

Answer 14

12.6 M

Question 15

Flaps 10 vs 20 T/O

Answer 15

10 - Higher T/O WT, less noise, wear and tear, less thrust required, Tail strik hazard
20 - FCTM default

Question 16

Flaps 25 vs 30

Answer 16

25 - Less noise, wear and tear, speed margin
30 - Slower landing speed, shorter landing distance.

Question 17

Minimum T/O fuel

Answer 17

1. 25,000
2. 22,500 on PIC descretion on transit stop but no less the Required fuel

Question 18

Minimum landing Fuel/ Final Reserve

Answer 18

Greater of:
1. 3600 Kgs
2. 30 minutes holding fuel.

Question 19

Contingency Fuel

Answer 19

1. 5% trip Fuel
2. 3% with enroute alternate
3. Maximum of 20 minutes cruise Fuel.
   or
   5 Holding fuel at 1500 ft

Question 20

When is Alternate required

Answer 20

Any time the destination is not ALM

Question 21

Disptach without alternate

Answer 21

1.Flight time less than 6 hours.
2. 2 seperate runways.
3. Ceilng minima + 1500 ft or 2000 ft
Visibility +3000 m or 5000 m

Question 22

When is enrout alternate required

Answer 22

The distance between departure and destination airports, or any of their alternates is such that
from any point on the planned route, the aircraft will be unable to reach one of these:
– While flying at altitude for depressurized flight, with critical fuel remaining; or
– The route includes a point further away from an adequate aerodrome at 60 minutes zero
wind flying time with all-engines operating LRC speed
2. It is required by Chapter 8.1.1.1 through Chapter 8.1.1.3 in order to meet one or two engine out
performance requirements.

Question 23

Minimum fuel VS mayday Fuel

Answer 23

Single aerodrome option to land with MLF VS landing with less than MLF

Question 24

Scan policy

Answer 24

Auto-flight - PF outside, PM instruments
Manual - PF intruments PM outside

Question 25

Stabilized approach

Answer 25

1. The aircraft is on the correct flight path; 2. Only small changes in heading/pitch are required to maintain the correct flight path; 3. The aircraft speed is not more than target speed +20 kts indicated airspeed and not less than Vref; 4. The aircraft is in the correct landing configuration; 5. Power setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration and is not below the minimum power for approach as defined in the respective OM Part B; 6. All briefings and checklists have been conducted; 7. ILS approaches must be flown within one dot of glide slope and localizer; 8. Touchdown must be made within the touchdown zone. NOTE: Unique approach procedures or abnormal conditions requiring a deviation from the above elements of a stabilized approach require a special briefing. When the approach becomes unstabilized below 1,000 ft above airport elevation in IMC or below 500 ft above airport elevation in VMC an immediate Go-Around is mandatory.

Question 26

Wind shear criteria

Answer 26

– Airspeed change of +/- 15 kts; – Vertical speed change of 500 ft/min; – Pitch change of more than 5°; – Glideslope displacement of more than 1 dot; – Abnormal power lever position for a significant period of time.

Question 27

When are the pack in high flow?

Answer 27

1. Position of LLCCAFR 2. Phase of flight 3. Number of operating packs The system reconfigures automatically when one pack shutdown or fail

Question 28

Fuel System Management cards

Answer 28

1. Closes x-feed 2&3 when flaps are extended for T/O on the ground. 2. Opens X-feed 2&3 when flaps are out of range 10&20 settings. 3. Opens reserve transfer valves when main tank 2 OR 3 fuel quantity approx 18,200 KG. 4. With no fuel in the center wing tanks, activates override/Jettison pumps 2&3.

Question 29

Equipment Cooling Normal

Answer 29

Fan supplies cool cabin air to electrical equipment. E&E exhaust routing depends on: 1. Ambient temp 2. LLCCAFR congif 3. FWD cargo compartment temp selector.

Question 30

Equipment Cooling EICAS

Answer 30

System is not configured for flight. Can be resolved by switching selector to STBY.

Question 31

Equipment Cooling STBY

Answer 31

1. Ground exhaust valve closed 2. Automatic control bypassed to configure system for flight; inboard exhaust valve open 3. with a single internal fault, equipment inboard exhaust valve closes and cooling system reconfigures to allow internal closed loop recirculation of cooling air

Question 32

Equipment Cooling in Override

Answer 32

* inboard exhaust valve closed * ground exhaust valve closed * equipment supply valve closed; cooling air supplied through flight panels * smoke/override valve open; differential pressure exhausts cooling air overboard