Infectious Disease > Micro A&P > Flashcards

Micro A&P Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the first name in the naming of bacteria called?

A

Genus

The first name is always capitalized and can be abbreviated after the first mention (e.g., E. coli).

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2
Q

What is the difference between an antigen and a pathogen?

A

Antigens trigger an immune response and can be pathogens or non-pathogens (like poison ivy).

Pathogens are microorganisms that cause a disease in a host.

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3
Q

What is the second name in the naming of bacteria called?

A

Species

The species epithet is unique to that bacterium and is always in lowercase and italicized.

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4
Q

What are the characteristics of Gram-positive bacteria?

A
  • Thick peptidoglycan
  • Teichoic acids
  • Surface proteins
  • Lacks outer membrane

Gram-positive bacteria retain the violet iodine complex during Gram staining.

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5
Q

What is the function of teichoic acids?

A

give wall the negative charge and allows for adherence to host cells

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6
Q

What are the characteristics of Gram-negative bacteria?

A
  • Thin peptidoglycan
  • Outer membrane with LPS
  • Lipoproteins
  • Porins
  • More complex barrier structure

Gram-negative bacteria do not retain crystal violet stain but take up safranin stain.

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7
Q

What is the role of lipoproteins in gram-negative bacteria?

A

stabilizes outer membrane

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8
Q

What is the role of porins in gram-negative bacteria?

A

allow passive transport of nutrients and antibiotics

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9
Q

Are gram + or gram - usually more resistant to antibiotics?

A

gram - due to the 2 membranes

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10
Q

In the Gram Stain, what indicates a positive result?

A

Thick peptidoglycan layer that retained violet iodine complex

This indicates the presence of Gram-positive bacteria.

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11
Q

In the Gram Stain, what indicates a negative result?

A

Thinner peptidoglycan layer that does not retain crystal violet stain but takes up safranin stain

This indicates the presence of Gram-negative bacteria.

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12
Q

List the 5 shapes of bacteria.

A

cocci, bacillus, vibrios, spirochaetes, spirilla

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13
Q

What is the function of a capsule in bacteria?

A

Protective, gel-like outer layer

Capsules protect single cells, while slime layers offer loose protection.

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14
Q

What do flagella and pili/fimbriae impact?

A

virulence

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15
Q

What are the differences between capsules, slime layers, and biofilms?

A

Capsules protect single cells, slime layers offer loose protection, and biofilms are complex bacterial communities.

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16
Q

What are antigenic determinants?

A

Specific parts of an antigen recognized by the immune system’s B cells, T cells, and antibodies

They are crucial for immune response.

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17
Q

Define virulence in the context of bacteria.

A

Ability of a bacterium to cause disease

Virulence factors enhance the bacterium’s ability to infect and damage the host.

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18
Q

What does LPS (lipid A) trigger in the body?

A

Inflammation; can cause fever, hypotension, and sepsis

LPS is considered an endotoxin.

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19
Q

What do teichoic acids and lipoteichoic acids do?

A
  • Stimulate inflammation
  • Promote adhesion

They are important for the pathogenicity of Gram-positive bacteria.

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20
Q

What do surface proteins in bacteria allow?

A
  • Attachment to host tissues
  • Prevent immune system proteins from binding
  • Degrade host structures

These proteins are crucial for bacterial survival and infection.

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21
Q

What does the outer membrane and capsule of gram - bacteria do?

A

protect against antibiotics and host defenses

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22
Q

What do peptidoglycan fragments do in terms of virulence?

A

recognized by the immune system and stimulate cytokine release

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23
Q

What is the function of catalase positive bacteria?

A

Prevents oxidative damage by breaking down hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen

This helps bacteria survive in oxygen-rich environments.

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24
Q

What is the significance of coagulase positive bacteria?

A

Creates fibrin clot around bacteria to evade the immune system

This is a key virulence factor for certain pathogens.

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25
What is the significance of **oxidase positive** bacteria?
helps with survival in oxygen rich environments and allows for efficient aerobic respiration for ATP
26
What is the significance of **urease positive** bacteria?
convert urea to ammonia and CO2 to increase pH, allow bacteria to persist in low pH environments
27
What is the significance of **hemolysins** in virulence?
lyse RBCs to steal iron and nutrients
28
What do **obligate aerobes** require for survival?
Must have oxygen ## Footnote They use aerobic respiration and cannot grow without oxygen.
29
What is the difference between **facultative anaerobes** and **obligate anaerobes**?
Facultative anaerobes prefer oxygen but can survive without it; obligate anaerobes cannot survive in oxygen ## Footnote This distinction affects their metabolic pathways.
30
Do microaerophiles like oxygen?
they require oxygen in low concentrations
31
Do aerotolerant anaerobes like oxygen?
they tolerate it-- do not use it but can survive in it
32
What is the mnemonic for remembering the types of oxygen requirements in bacteria?
Aerobes Love Air, Facultatives Flex, Microaerophiles Need a Minimum, Aerotolerants Tolerate, Anaerobes Avoid ## Footnote This helps categorize bacteria based on their oxygen needs.
33
What is the arrangement of **gram + Staphylococcus** bacteria? Give the examples. There are 5.
Grape-like arrangement (clusters) ## Footnote Examples include Staphylococcus aureus, epidermidis, saprophyticus, haemolyticus, and lugdunensis.
34
What is the arrangement of **gram + Streptococcus** bacteria? Give examples. There are 6.
Chain-like arrangement (pairs) ## Footnote Examples include Streptococcus pyogenes, pneumoniae, viridans, agalactiae, gallolyticus, and mutan.
35
What are the 2 **gram + Enterococcus** bacteria we need to know?
faecalis and faecium
36
What are the 4 types of **gram + Clostridium** that we need to know?
difficile, tetani, botulinum, perfringens ## Footnote These are bacilli!!!
37
What are the other 4 **gram + bacilli** bacteria that we need to know?
Listeria monocytogenes, Corynebacterium diptheriae, and Bacillus anthracis, cereus
38
What are the **gram - coccobacilli** we need to know?
Haemophilus, Brucella, Bordetella, Pasteurella
39
What are the **gram + brancing filamentous rods** that we need to know?
actinomyces and nocardia
40
What kind of cell wall does mycobacterium have?
waxy
41
What kind of cell wall does mycoplasma have?
none
42
What are spirochetes?
thin, flexible, spiral-shaped bodies ## Footnote Examples include Borrelia, Leptospira, Treponema
43
What are **obligate intracellular pathogens**?
Pathogens that replicate within a host cell ## Footnote Examples include ettsia, Chlamydia, and Coxiella.
44
What are Neisseria gonorrheae, Neisseria meningitidis, Moraxella catarrhalis, Haemophilus influnzae, and Haemophilus ducreyi?
gram - cocci
45
List the 5 gram - rods.
E. coli, Proteus mirabilis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Klebsiella oxytoca
46
Pasteurella, Francisella, Bordetella, and Brucella are examples of...
gram - coccobacilli
47
How can viruses be named?
* morphology * associated disease * location discovered * host tissues * genetic grouping
48
What is the structure of a **non-enveloped virus**?
Icosaheral capsid without a lipid envelope ## Footnote These viruses are tightly packed with protein capsid.
49
What is the structure of an **enveloped virus**?
Icosahedral or helical capsid with a lipid bilayer envelope ## Footnote Surface glycoproteins are used for host cell attachment.
50
What is the first step in **viral multiplication**?
Attachment ## Footnote This is followed by penetration, uncoating, replication, assembly, and release.
51
Name viral multiplication steps.
1. attachment 2. penetration 3. uncoating 4. replication of NA 5. assembly 6. viral release
52
Where do DNA viruses replicate versus RNA viruses?
DNA- nucleus RNA-cytoplasm
53
What is the significance of **mutations** in RNA viruses?
Due to lack of proofreading, high mutation rates lead to antigenic drift ## Footnote This can affect vaccine effectiveness.
54
What are the genetic diversifications of viruses?
1. mutations 2. reassortment 3. recombination/reassortment 4. selective pressures
55
What are the types of **fungal infections** based on location?
* Superficial * Systemic (opportunistic) * Systemic (endemic) ## Footnote Systemic infections often affect immunocompromised individuals.
56
What are examples of **superficial fungal infections**?
* Dermatophytes (Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton) * Pityriasis versicolor (Malassezia furfur) * Candida albicans ## Footnote These infections affect the skin and mucous membranes.
57
What are examples of **systemic (opportunistic) fungal infections**?
* Aspergillosis * Candida albicans * Cryptococcus * Pneumocystis pneumonia (Pneumocystis jirovecii) ## Footnote These infections are common in immunocompromised individuals.
58
What are examples of **systemic (endemic) fungal infections**?
* Histoplasmosis * Coccidioidomycosis * Blastomycosis ## Footnote These infections are typically found in specific geographic areas.
59
What are the two species of **Malassezia** mentioned?
* Malassezia furfur * Malassezia globosa ## Footnote These species are associated with skin conditions.
60
What type of infection does **Candida albicans** cause?
Systemic (opportunistic) ## Footnote It is a common yeast that can lead to infections in immunocompromised individuals.
61
What are the classifications of **parasites**?
* Location (ecto- vs endoparasite) * Class of organism (protozoa, helminth, arthropod) * Host dependence (obligate vs facultative) * Size (macro vs micro) ## Footnote These classifications help in understanding the nature and impact of parasitic infections.
62
What are the four areas where **Protozoa** are found?
* intestinal * tissue and blood * ocular and neuro * urogenital ## Footnote Protozoa are single-celled organisms that can cause various diseases.
63
Name two **intestinal protozoa**.
* Entamoeba histolytica * Giardia lamblia * Cryptosporidium parvum * Cystoiospora belli ## Footnote These protozoa are known to cause gastrointestinal infections.
64
What are the three types of **helminths**?
* Cestodes (tapeworms) * Nematodes (roundworms) * Enterobiasis (pinworm) ## Footnote Helminths are parasitic worms that can infect various hosts.
65
What type of arthropods can act as vectors for transmission of bacteria?
Ticks ## Footnote Ticks are known for transmitting diseases such as Lyme disease.
66
What is the definition of **prions**?
Misfolded proteins capable of causing infectious diseases ## Footnote Prions induce normal proteins to adopt an abnormal structure.
67
What are two key features of **prions**?
* Lack nucleic acids * Resistant to standard sterilization methods ## Footnote These features distinguish prions from other infectious agents like viruses and bacteria.
68
Name two examples of **prion diseases**.
* Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) * Kuru * Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (Mad Cow Disease) * Fatal Familial Insomnia (FFI) ## Footnote These diseases are characterized by neurodegeneration and are uniformly fatal.
69
What is PRP-sen?
* brain and neurons * normal folding * sensitive
70
What is PRP-res?
* disease * resistant
71
What is the aggregation of PRP-res in the brain?
amyloid fiber formation, neuronal cell death, and astrocyte clean up
72
What are the symptoms of **prion diseases**?
* Rapidly progressive dementia * Ataxia * Myoclonus * Behavioral changes and insomnia ## Footnote Symptoms vary by disease but generally involve severe neurological decline.
73
How can one contract **spongiform/prion disease**?
* Eating tissue infected with PRP-res * Inherited mutation in the gene encoding for PRP-sen * Spontaneous formation of PRP-res ## Footnote These pathways highlight the transmission and development of prion diseases.
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