MBOD week 11 > Microdeletions > Flashcards

Microdeletions Flashcards

(61 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q

T or F: in each microdeletion syndrome the imbalance affects the same region of the genome from patient to patient.

A

True, while there may be some variability, these are defined as syndromes because the imbalance arises in the same place again and again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the critical region?

A
  • region that is affected leading to particular symdrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the lower limit for detection of a genomic imbalance using a karyotype?

A

5 Mb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T or F: microdeletions can cause partial monosomy.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most susceptible area to microdeletions?

A

the ends of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Do microdeletions post a risk to viability?

A

No they generally will be viable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T or F: microdeletions may have relatively mild phenotype and may go completely undetected

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a common thread throughout most microdeletion phenotypes?

A

They all share some degree of developmental delay and intellectual disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why are intellecutal disabilities always mentioned as characteristics of chromosome abnormality?

A

The brain is a complex organ and requires the proper function of many genes for normal functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What causes Prader-Willi Syndrome?

A
  • Microdeletion syndrome with partial monosomy for proximal segment of 15q
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the signs a child could have Prader-Willi syndrome?

A
  • Hypotonia, feeding difficulties, poor growth, developmental delay, obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the critical region for Prader-Willi syndrome?

A
  • microdeletion of 15q12 or 15q11-13
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the common breakpoints in Prader-Willi syndrome?

A
  • BP1, BP2, and BP3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is type I break in Prader-Willi syndrome?

A
  • BP1-BP3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a type II break in Prader-Willi syndrome?

A
  • BP2-BP3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T or F: patients with Type I and II breaks in Prader-Willi syndrome have significantly different phenotypes.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are Low Copy Repeats (LCRs) and why do they cause unequal crossing over?

A
  • DNA segments ~200,000 base pairs long the exists in multiple copies
  • It causes misalignment during crossing over and the wrong genes are exchanged so 2 or the same gene can end up on 1 chromosome and one chromosome now lacks it completely
  • when either of these combine with a normal chromosome they will cause partial monosomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are symptoms of 22q11.2?

A
  • Cardiac abnormalities (tetralogy of fallot, VSDs)
  • cleft palate
  • Learning difficulties
  • Immune deficiency
  • Hypocalecemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T of F: two patients with the same 22q11.2 could have quite different manifestations of the disease.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What two segments often undergo aberrant recombination in 22q11 deletion syndrome?

A

A and D meaning everything between was lost including TBX 1

Note: TBX 1 is believed to contribute to the observed cardiac defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Are low copy repeats part of the normal genome?

A

Yes, they are abundant and dispersed through out the genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T or F: microdeletion syndromes are pathogenic CNVs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why might you do a prenatal screening for chromosomal abnormalities?

A
  1. May want to do it even for a healthy pregnancy

2. Seeking diagnosis in an abnormal pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why might you do a chromosomal analysis on a pediatric patient?

A
  1. Congenital Anomalies
  2. Developemental problems in Childhood
  3. Delayed or abnormal developement of secondary sex characteristics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Why might you do chromosomal analysis on an adult patient?
1. Infertility (failure to concieve or multiple miscarriage | 2. Birth of a child with a chromosomal abnormaility
26
What is the difference between diagnostic testing and screening?
- Screening is a low risk clinical encounter (e.g. checking blood pressure, heelstick in newborns) - Testing typically uses a gold standard test to establish a diagnosis
27
Is screening a means for a definitive diagnosis?
NO - if abnormalities are suspected in screening then a gold standard test should be used to determine a specific diagnosis
28
What is the preferred method of TESTING in adults? what about fetuses?
Adults - blood is typically used Fetuses - aminocentesis and chorionic vilus sampling
29
Is karyotyping considered a "gold standard" test sufficient for diagnosis?
Yes Note: this is the original, low resolution, genetic test - G-banding is the standard preparation
30
What can be detected with a karyotype?
aneuploidy
31
When might you want to used a karyotype?
1. Cases of suspected chromosome abnormality (patient presents with Down of Klinefelters) 2. Suspicion of Balanced rearrangement (couple who has has multiple miscarriages) 3. Invasive procedure for prenatal diagnosis (e.g. old moms)
32
What are the strengths of karyotyping?
- Widely available - scans entire genome - best option for balanced structural abnormalities
33
What are the weaknesses of karyotyping?
- Limited resolution (smaller than a few Mb can't be seen) - Slow turnaround time since culture is required - Labor intensive; less amenable to high-throughput automation
34
What is FISH?
- Fluorescence in situ Hyrbridizaiton - A probe of known sequence and specificity is hybridized to genetic material from a patient - Probe is fluorescent so each site of hybridization can be seen
35
T or F: in a karyotype the preparation is taken such that each chromosome seen consists of a replicated chromosome attached at the centromere
True
36
What does FISH tell you?
if a specific sequence exists in the genome
37
What principle does FISH rely on?
Complementary base pairing
38
If you had a normal cell and you tagged a spot on chromosome 21, how many dots would you expect to count? What about in a child with Down syndrome?
2 - one on each homologous chromosome 3 dots in a child with downs
39
Is FISH applicable to uncondensed interphase nuclei?
Yes, you'll still see 3 separate dots
40
Is FISH able to identify microdeletions?
Yes - You can used 2 markers (1) one marker is used to identify the chromosome of interest (2) a second marker binds to the critical region on that chromosome - You should see 2 dots on the critical region of each chromosome (4 dots total) for normal
41
What is Williams Syndrome? Could FISH be used to give a definitive diagnosis?
- Partial monomosomy 7q - Mild to moderate intellecutal disability, Cardiac abnormality (aortic stenosis), Distinctive facial appearance - Yes, the critical region will be missing on chromosome 7 in affected individuals
42
Can FISH be used to screen for aneuploidy? If so what type of probe is used?
Yes a centromere probe is used
43
What are the strengths and weaknesses of FISH?
Strengths - results are specific, easy to interpret and versatile in many clinical applications Weaknesses - you have to know what you're testing for to select the correct probe, otherwise you may miss the abnormality in testing
44
T or F: both invasive and non-invasive prenatal procedures can be used for diagnostic purposes
False, non-invasive procedures can only be used for screening purposes
45
What is the gold standard for prenatal diagnosis of aneuploidy?
the use of invasive procedures such as Aminocentesis and CVS to get a karyotype
46
What are the two invasive (diagnostic procedures) for prenatal diagnosis?
1. Amniocentesis - drawing amniotic fluid from the uterus early in the 2nd trimester 2. Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) - chorionic villi taken from placenta in late first trimester
47
What is done with samples obtained via CVS and aminocentesis?
Karyotyping
48
What are two non-invasive procedures for SCREENING for chromosome abnormalities?
1. Serum Screening and ultrasound | 2. Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing (NIPT) - DNA gathered from maternal circulation
49
T or F: the majority of Down syndrome infants are born to younger mothers
True - moms under 35 account for 35%, this is just because the majority of births are by young women even though risk for old women is higher
50
How much fetal cell-free DNA is present in maternal blood and how is this DNA differentiated from maternal DNA?
- 10% of cell-free DNA is fetal | - Tests look for paternal DNA fragments to identify fetal DNA
51
What does NIPT typically test for?
Trisomy 21, 18, 13, and sex chromosome aneuploidies
52
How pregnant does the girl have to be to run NIPT?
> 10 weeks
53
Suppose you run NIPT and trisomy 21 is indicated, what do you do next?
- Since NIPT is only a screening test you must do an invasive procedure to give a diagnosis
54
What are the strengths of NIPT?
- Noninvasive | - Highly Predictive
55
What are the weaknesses of NIPT?
- many outside targets are misses | - it still requires conformation via invasive methods
56
How does CMA analysis work and what is indicated by each color on the microarray?
- It uses the typical silica chip and DNA regions to match up genes - Yellow indicates genes matched up well - Red indicates genes missing (partial monosomy) - Green indicates extra genes (partial trisomy)
57
What is the lower threshold of base pair abnormalities that can be detected in using CMA?
0.5 Mb - it can detect smaller changes but these are mostly just CNVs
58
Is CMA able to differentiate between Robersonian trisomy 21 and regular trisomy 21?
No, the actual chromosome is not present, only the genes. Nevertheless, trisomy 21 would be detected using CMA
59
When is CMA recommended?
- Recommended as diagnostic test for individuals with developmental disabilities or congenital anomalies - Recommended after fetal anomalies have been detected on ultrasound
60
What are the strengths of CMA?
- Scans entire Genome | - High sensitivity and precise description of abnormality
61
What are the weaknesses of CMA?
- CNVs complicate things (are they benign or pathogenic) - Cannot detect balanced rearrangments or point mutations - Poor at detecting polyploidy
MBOD week 11
flashcards
Decks in class (11)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions