1
Q
4 functions of urinary system
A
- Control hydration
- Regulate electrolyte concentrations in blood
- Regulate pH (acid base balance)
- Excrete some waste products from blood
2
Q
unit of filtration
A
nephron
3
Q
nephrons filter blood to produce
A
glomerular filtrate
4
Q
urine from kidney goes to
A
ureters –> bladder –> urethra
5
Q
T or F urinary and repro system have same origin
A
T
6
Q
what is origin of urinary and repro system called
A
urogenital system
7
Q
3 goes at forming a kidney; what are they called
A
- Pronephros (rudimentary, non functional)
- Mesonephros (functions for some time, develops repro system)
- Metanephros (forms permanent kidney)
8
Q
general kidney structure (gross) contains
A
- capsule
- cortex
- medulla
- papilla
9
Q
papilla drips urine into the
A
renal pelvis
10
Q
renal pelvis forms top of
A
ureter
11
Q
opening of collecting ducts called
A
area cribosa
12
Q
whats contained in the hilum
A
- ureter
- renal a
- renal v
- lymphatics
- renal sinus
13
Q
pigs have what kidneys
A
multipapillate
14
Q
what species has a crest kidney
A
cat, dog, sheep, goat
15
Q
what animal has renulate kidney
A
cow
16
Q
what species has terminal recess kidney
A
horse
17
Q
describe renulate kidney
A
12-25 mini-kidneys (renules) on a common ureter
not fused
18
Q
fate of urine in a renulate kidney
A
papilla –> minor calyx –> major calyx –> ureter
19
Q
does renulate kidney have a renal pelvis
A
NO
20
Q
describe a multipapillate kidney
A
Smooth externally, cortex fused but medulla not fused
Each medulla has a papilla
21
Q
fate of urine in multipapillate kidney
A
Papilla –> Minor calyx –> major calyx –> renal pelvis –> ureter
22
Q
describe crest kidney
A
- Fused cortex and medulla
- Papillae fused to form a crest= renal crest
- Renal crest forms ridge running along midline of elongated renal pelvis
- has pseudopapillae chunks of medullary tissue (looks like papillae but not)
- has renal recesses - diverticula of renal pelvis between psuedopappillae
Renal crest –> renal pelvis –> ureter
23
Q
what is fate of urine in crest kidney
A
Renal crest –> renal pelvis –> ureter
24
Q
describe terminal recess kidney
A
- Crest kidney on steroids
- Complete fusion of medulla and cortex
- Small central renal crest
- Extra extensions at either pole; terminal recesses; like fusion of collecting ducts at each end emptying into renal pelvis (like giant collecting ducts)
25
describe fate of urine in terminal recess kidney
Renal crest/ terminal recess --> renal pelvis --> ureter
26
which kidney is more cranial
right
27
where does kidney lie
Lie in retroperitoneal space surrounded by fat
28
what does the nephron contain
- Renal corpuscle
- Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
- Loop of Henle : thick descending --> thin descending and ascending --> thick ascending
- Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
29
2 types of nephrons
- Long looped juxtamedullary nephrons (close to medulla, long loops of Henle that dive into medulla)
- Short- looped or cortical nephrons
30
renal corpuscle consists of
glomerulus (capillary tuft) + bowman's capsule (surrounds)
31
describe the arterioles surrounding glomerulus
Blood flows in afferent arterioles, into tuft and then into efferent arteriole
32
filtration membrane of renal corpuscle
glomerulus + podocytes
33
Fluid under pressure is forced out of blood into the bowman's capsule, this is the _______
glomerular filtrate
34
bowmans capsule layers
- Parietal layer (outer) simple squamous epithelium
- Visceral layer (inner) surrounds glomerulus; podocytes (specialized cells)
35
the poles of the bowmans capsule
- Vascular pole= where the afferent and efferent arterioles are
- Urinary pole= where PCT starts
36
what are podocytes, what are their processes and the space between them
- specialized cells
- primary processes
- secondary foot processes (pedicles)
- gaps between them are slit pores, bridged by slit diaphragm composed of nephrin
37
Podocytes rest on _____ of glomerular capillary w endothelial cells on inner surface which are extensively fenestrated and v thin
basal lamina
38
3 layers of the filtration membrane of glomerulus
So from in the capillaries (where blood is) to out (the bowmans space) there is
1) the endothelial cells with fenestrations,
2) then the basement membrane,
3) and then the filtration pores from the podocytes
39
what are Mesangial cells
what do they do
- Within glomerulus, contractile w gap junctions
- Regulate glomerular flow
- Phagocytic functions
40
which pole does PCT start
urinary pole
41
PCT epithelium
simple cuboidal w lots of mitochondrial
42
which is longer, PCT or DCT
PCT
43
PCT filtrate is ___- osmotic
iso osmotic (= to plasma) ie water and solutes are absorbed proportionally
44
what does PCT right away
Reabsorbs lots of the fluid right away (H2O, Na+, glucose and many useful solutes)
45
4 parts of loop of henle
- Thick descending limb
- Thin descending limb
- thin ascending limb
- Thick ascending limb
46
what is the abrupt epithelium change in the loop of henle (descending loop) and where does it occur
cuboidal --> squamous
at junction of subcortex and intermediate medulla = line between outer and inner medulla stripe
* in dogs it happens at corticomedullary junction
47
does the DCT have microvilli like the PCT
yes but not as many
48
what occurs in DCT
active transport Na+, swapping for H+ and K+ ions under control of aldosterone
49
which has bigger lumen: PCT or DCT
DCT
50
what does the DCT end as
collecting tubules --> collecting duct --> papillary ducts --> area cribosa --> renal pelvis etc
51
what forms the medullary rays in cortex
collecting ducts
52
Collecting ducts merge to form papillary ducts opening at _____
area cribosa
53
what controls permeability of the collecting ducts
Anti-diuretic hormone controls permeability ; water reabsorption here (ADH high --> water reabsorbed --> less urine)
54
2 main cells in collecting ducts
- Principal cells; secrete K+ and reabsorb Na+ and water
- Intercalated cells ; secrete H+ and reabsorb bicarb
55
DCT reaches what pole of parent glomerulus
vascular pole
56
what is the juxtaglomerular apparatus
name 3 cell types associated
Afferent arteriole contains specialized cells and together the DCT, afferent arteriole and associated extra-glomerular mesangial cells form the juxtaglomerular apparatus
Macula densa cells in DCT
Juxtaglomerula cells in afferent arteriole
Extraglomerular mesangial cells (or lacis cells)
57
what do the Macula densa cells in DCT do
Specialized DCT epithelial cells, taller, no Na+ pumping, V thin basement membrane, they are osmoreceptor for Na+ (monitoring sodium levels)
they release adenosine
58
what do juxtaglomerula cells in afferent arterioles do
Modified smooth muscle cells, mechanoreceptors that measure blood pressure in afferent arteriole
release renin
59
renal arteries receive __% of cardiac output
25
60
how the renal arteries are broken up
Renal artery --> interlobar a --> arcuate a --> interlobular a --> afferent arterioles --> capillary tuft --> efferent arteriole --> peritubular capillaries (and into vasa recta for juxtamedullary region)
61
which is smaller afferent or efferent arteriole ? why
Efferent is smaller than afferent, increases blood pressure pressure which drives the glomerular filtration
62
describe different between efferent cortical glomeruli and efferent if juxtamedullary glomeruli
Efferent (of cortical glomeruli) comes out and divides into peritubular capillaries with surround PCT, DCT and short loop of henle (way to reabsorb fluid)
Efferent (of juxtamedullary glomeruli) also divide or peritubular capillaries but when they hit boundary of cortex and medulla, they split , dive straight down and surround the long loop of henle called vasa recta
63
Superficial efferent arterioles produce ______ vessels which supply the capsule
stellate
64
vein drainage of kidney
Peritubular of cortex drain --> interlobular veins --> arcuate veins --> interlobar veins --> renal vein
vasa recta --> arcuate
stellate vein --> interlobar vein
65
superficial veins, which species are they prominent
cat (capsular veins)
66
Flared expanded proximal end of ureter, part that actually catches the urine
renal pelvis
67
3 layers of renal pelvis
* tunica mucosa w transitional epithelium
* Tunica muscularis
* Tunica adventitia
68
Renal pelvis in dog, cat, sheep, goat
(Crest kidney)
- Nice renal pelvis that surrounds the crest
- Expanded renal pelvis has several renal recesses extending up between pseudopappilae
- Crest --> renal pelvis
69
Renal pelvis in pig
Multipipeline kidney;
Papilla --> minor calyx --> 2 major calices --> renal pelvis
70
renal pelvis in horse (terminal recess kidney)
- Full fusion, crest (small), empties into renal pelvis, on either side of renal pelvis have a long terminal recess
- Recesses not part of pelvis but receive majority of papillary ducts
- Crest --> terminal recess --> renal pelvis
71
Renal pelvis in ox
- None!
- Papillae --> minor calices --> 2 major calices --> ureter
72
which species has no renal relvis
cow
73
how does urine travel in the ureters
urine travels in boluses, propelled by peristaltic waves (every 2-6 mins)
74
where does ureters enter bladder
enters dorsal bladder neck obliquely at ureterovesicular junction
75
ureter layers
same as renal pelvis
1) Tunica muscosae
2) Tunica muscularis (inner longitudinal, outer circular, outer longitudinal in distal part only)
3) Tunica adventitia
76
ureters enters dorsal bladder neck obliquely at ______ junction
ureterovesicular
77
which muscle layer of ureter goes through bladder
Only inner longitudinal muscle layer as goes through bladder (when bladder full it pushes and closes thin ureter)
78
what is bladder encased by
serosa cont w peritoneum
79
describe ligaments of the bladder
- ○ 2 Lateral vesicular folds/ lateral ligs contain the round ligs
(Ureters encased in lateral ligs)
- 1 Median vesicular fold/ median lig in ventral midline
80
ureters are encased in what lig of bladder
lateral ligs
81
Columnae uretericae
converging ridges on internal surface of bladder where ureters tunnel through submucosa
82
urtetero-vesicular junction
flaps of mucous membrane that acts as valves (where ureters enter bladder)
83
plicae uretericae
folds of epithelium that extends from ureteric oroifice to urethral crest medially
84
trigone
area on increased sensitivity bordered by ureteric orifices and urethral opening
85
detrusor muscle
- internal sphincter
- S shaped, 3 layers, smooth muscle
- relax to allow expansion as bladder fills
- same time contracts to maintain continence
86
sympathetic innervation of bladder
holding pee
- Hypogastric nerve (allows bladder to relax) (cause internal urethral sphincter to close and allows filling)
- Involves adrenaline and noradrenaline w adrenergic receptors
- Alpha 1 contract smooth m, beta 2,3 receptors relax smooth m
87
parasympathetic innervation of bladder
- relief of peeing
- To wall of bladder, allows muscle to contract
- Contracts bladder and allows internal sphincter to open when bladder if full
- Involves Ach neurotransmitter & muscarinic receptors
88
pudendal nerve and peeing
- Innervates external sphincter (skeletal muscle) (part you consciously control to pee)
- Allows holding or releasing urine
89
name the 7 functions of the kidney
1) Excretion of metabolic waste products, foreign chemicals, drugs and hormone metabolites
2) Regulation of water and electrolyte balances
3) Regulation of arterial pressure
4) Regulation of RBC production
5) Activation of vit D
6) Regulation of acid-base balance
7) Gluconeogenesis (glucose synthesis)
90
what is the main N product of N metabolism
urea
91
what does the kidney excrete as waste
- urea
- creatinine
- uric acid
- products of haemoglobin breakdown (bilirubin)
- metabolites of hormones
- toxins
92
how does the kidney do long term regulation of arterial pressure?
short term?
- Long term reg by excreting variable amounts of Na and H2O
- Short term reg by secreting vasoactive factors (ex renin) that lead to formation of vasoactive substances (ex angiotensin II)
93
Kidney secrete _____ which stimulates RBC production
erythropoietin
94
_____ secreted by kidney is essential for normal calcium deposition in bone and calcium reabsorption by GIT
Calcitriol
95
Urination related to ______ activity
parasympathetic
96
describe the mechanism of micturition
- Bladder fills
- Detrusor m contract (increases bladder pressure)
- Stimulate stretch receptors
- Excite parasymp. Fibers --> sacral nerve of spine
- Parasymp postganglionic fibers Release Ach, bind w M3
- Cause detrusor muscle contract
- bladder pressure increases
- Internal sphincter opens
- Urine enters bladder neck
- Flows into urethra
- Somatic motor neurons inhibit pudendal nerve
- External sphincter relax, allowing urine out
97
describe the micturition reflex
- At low bladder volume --> afferent firing of stretch receptors low --> relax bladder
- High bladder volume --> afferent firing of stretch receptors increase --> conscious urine urge
- Once powerful enough (ie bladder full enough) second reflex passes through pudendal nerves to external sphincter m or relax sphincter
98
name 3 problems w micturition
1) Atonic bladder (loss of sensory nerves)
2) Autonomic bladder (spinal injury)
3) uninhibited neurogenic bladder (no inhibitory signals)
99
Urine formation involves 3 primary processes
1) Filtration
2) Reabsorption
3) Secretion
100
what substances are able to pass through walls of glumerulus into bowman's capsule?
what substances are too large?
- Diffusion: Ions glucose aas and urea pass through walls of glomerulus into bowman's capsule
- Some substances too large to move through: plasma, protein, RBCs, platelets
101
kidney function is assessed by determining
glomerular filtration rate
102
what does filtration mean
Filtration: fluid from blood leaves the glomerulus and enters bowman's space/capsule
103
what are 3 forces that assist filtration (pressures)
1) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure (GHP) - forces fluid out of capillary
2) Bowman's space hydrostatic pressure aka Capsular pressure (CP)- act inwards to retain fluid within capillary (plasma solutes in glomerulus is greater than filtrate in bowman's capsule)
3) Glomerular oncotic aka colloid osmotic pressure (GOP) - act inwards to retain fluid within capillary
*bowman's space oncotic pressure also acts to draw fluid out of glomerulus but is negligible in healthy kidney
104
what are starlings forces
factors that determine filtration
Pressure gradient formed by hydrostatic and oncotic pressure (starling's forces)
○ Glomerular hydrostatic pressure - bowman's space hydrostatic pressure : difference forces fluid out of capillaries into bowman's space
- Glomerular oncotic Pressure- bowman's space oncotic pressure: difference retain fluid in capillaries
105
describe oncotic vs hydrostatic pressures
HYDROSTATIC:
fluid pressure
Glomerular hydrostatic pressure Blood pressure inside glomerular capillaries pushes plasma outward into Bowman’s capsule.
Bowman's space hydrostatic pressure aka Capsular pressure (CP)- act inwards to retain fluid within capillary (plasma solutes in glomerulus is greater than filtrate in bowman's capsule)
ONCOTIC PRESSURE
plasma proteins (mainly albumin) that attract water back into capillaries.
Glomerular oncotic aka colloid osmotic pressure (GOP) - act inwards to retain fluid within capillary
Bowmans space oncotic negligible
106
Net filtration pressure is ____ pressure within capillary
10mmHg
107
Glomerular filtrate contains
- Water
- Electrolytes
- Low molecular weight substances
- Same as plasma but without lots of protein
108
what is Glomerular filtration rate
Volume fluid filtered into bowman's capsule per unit time (measure vol per kg per min in animals)
109
If GFR in one nephron reduces what happens
the other nephrons must increase in order to maintain overall
110
Main factor causing decrease in GFR is
decrease # of functioning nephrons
111
normal GFR for dogs
GFR for dogs 2-5 ml / min / kg. (less than 1.5 is abnormal)
112
factors affecting GFR
- Renal blood flow
- Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure
- Bowmans capsule hydrostatic pressure
- Concentration of plasma proteins
- Glomerular capillary permeability/ effective filtration SA
113
Rate at which kidneys remove a substance from blood plasma and excrete it in the urine is called
renal clearance
114
_____ is Used to estimate GFR using substance that is freely filtered and not secreted, reabsorbed or metabolized by renal tubules
renal clearance
115
liver produces urea as waste product of protein digestion, when it circulates in blood its called
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
116
Increase BUN (blood urea nitrogen)
○ High protein diet
○ Increased catabolism
○ Dehydration
○ Congested heart failure
○ Fever
○ Decrease GFR
117
Glomerulonephritis
- Inflammation of glomeruli
- RBCs and protein may be excreted while toxins may be retained
118
does Glomerulonephritis increase or decrease GFR
decrease
119
Extrinsic control of GFR
- Act primarily via sympathetic innervation of afferent (major) and efferent arterioles
- Activated by cardiac and aortic baroreceptors
Result in vasoconstriction
120
haemorrhage effect on GFR
increase sympathetic: decrease GFR
121
Fluid ingestion effect on GFR
decrease sympathetic; increase GFR
122
Constrict afferent arteriole does what to renal blood flow and GFR
reduce both
123
constrict efferent arteriole does what to renal blood flow and and GFR
reduces renal blood flow increases GFR (think of garden hose)
124
Myogenic control of GFR
During high BP, afferent wall stretches, triggers contraction of smooth muscle, during low BP relaxes --> automatic smooth muscle control system
125
explain tubuloglomerular feedback on GFR
○ Na+ load in distal tubule regulates GFR in glomerulus
○ The JGA senses changes in [NaCl] in tubular fluid and releases a paracrine signal to afferent arteriole:
○ Increase in blood flow --> increase NaCl --> increase paracrine release --> arteriole constriction --> reduced blood flow
○ Decrease blood flow --> decrease NaCl --> JGA; increase renin, triggered RAAS and adenosine --> efferent constriction, afferent relaxation --> increase BP
126
can GFR remain constant despite change in blood flow?
yes, due to the feedback mechanisms / intrinsic control
127
main extrinisc and intrinsic controls of GFR
Extrinsic control of GFR
Act primarily via sympathetic innervation of afferent (major) and efferent arterioles
intrinsic
- Myogenic
- Tubuloglomerular feedback
128
Juxtaglomerular apparatus feedback
- Involved in autoreg of filtration by kidney
- Secretes renin to maintain BP and volume control
Feedback control
129
descending limb is highly permeable to
water
130
does the descending limb actively force Na+ out
no, not salt permeable
131
what happens in THIN ascending limb
- Na and Cl passively diffuse out
132
is ascending limb permeable to water
no
133
does ascending limb have active transport of Na and Cl
only in thick part, not in thin
134
all together the permeabilites of descending limb
thin ascending limb
thick ascending limb
descending:
water!
thin ascending: Na and Cl passively diffuse
thick ascending: active NaCl
135
Descending limb _____ filtrate by pumping water out
Ascending limb _____ by pumping salts out
concentrates
dilutes
136
Active pumping of salts out of tubules in thick ascending limb can create _____ difference
200mOsm
137
fluid in loop of henle is ____ due to NaCl removal
Hypotonic
138
describe countercurrent multiplication in the loop of henle
Ascending limb pumps out sodium to make a 200 difference, then descending limb pumps out water to equilibrate
139
where does tubular reabsorption mostly occur
Mostly in PCT
140
what is tubular reabsorption
Solutes and water removed from tubular fluid and back into blood
141
reabsorption is a 2 step process
- Passive (move down gradient)
- Active (needs energy) ATPase pumps w carrier proteins
142
glucose transport in reabsorption is saturable, what does this mean
there exists a max amount of glucose that can be reabsorbed
when max amount is hit we get glucose in urine
143
urea reabsorption
- Passive diffusion along PCT- follows water
- As water goes out the [urea] increases in tubule
- Creates a gradient and so urea also goes out (gets reabsorbed)
144
what is tubular secretion
Transferring substances from bloodstream into the renal tubular lumen to be eliminated in urine (opposite of reabsorption)
145
where does tubular secretion mostly occur
Occurs primary in DCT and collecting tubules
146
describe aldosterone effect on Na reabsorption w K secretion
- Secreted by adrenal cortex
- So increased K that is peed out and decreases about of Na peed out
- K kicked out, Na kept in
- principal cells
147
3 main challenges of homeostasis of salt and water
- Maintain blood volume and pressure
- Reg [solutes] ie fluid osmolality
- Ensure proper electrolyte balance
148
how does ADH increase water permeability ?
opening (aquaporins) water channels in epithelial cells
149
does Na excretion need to match dietary intake?
yes
150
T or F: Aldosterone can increase Na reabsorption
T
151
what is RAAS (renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system) , how does it work
- Activated when Na low or when blood pressure drops
- Angiotensinogen from liver + renin from kidney --> angiotensin 1
- Angiotensin 1 + angiotensin-converting enzyme --> angiotensin 2
- Angiotensin 2 :
○ Increases sympathetic activity
○ Stimulates adrenal glands to secrete aldosterone
○ Tubular Na+ reabsorption and K excretion
○ Arterial vasoconstriction; increase BP
○ Act on pituitary to increase ADH secretion; water retention
○ Thirst
Overall get salt and water retention (which also help increase BP)
152
what does aldosterone control
Na in, K out
153
Osmoreceptors in hypothalamus release _____ from hypothalamus which Controls body osmotic balance, BP reg, Na homeostasis and kidney function
ADH
154
ADH makes collecting tubule and collecting ducts ______ to H2O (water out of tubules ie retained in body)
permeable
155
what makes distal tubule and collecting ducts less permeable to H2O
Absence of ADH
156
how does ADH system work when LOSING WATER? where is it detected
how about when TOO much water?
- Decrease in plasma volume detected by plasma volume receptors in right atrium and great veins in heart
- Stimulates adrenal gland to increase ADH --> water retention and decrease pee
- Increase in plasma volume detected same place
- Less ADH secreted --> increase urine output
- No thirst, no fluid intake
157
T or F, ANH (atrial natriuretic hormone) system works same as ADH system
F, it does opposite (secreted when too much fluid)
158
is ADH a vasoconstrictor or vasodilator
vasoconstrictor (think want to retain fluid)
159
______ and their conjugate bases can serve as buffers (H+ can react w base or undissociated acid can dissociate to provide H+)
Weak acids
160
3 systems maintain acid-base homeostasis
Intracellular and extracellular buffers (rapid)
Lungs (rapid)
Kidneys (slow)
161
3 things pH changes effect
1) Enzyme function
2) Excitability of nerve and muscle cells (more acid decreases CNS)
3) influences K levels
162
describe pH change on K levels
Acidemia: H+ into cells, K+ shift out of cells into blood to balance (hyperkalemia)
Alkalaemia: H+ out of cells, K+ in to cells to balance (hypokalemia)
163
pH should be ____ in veins and ____ in arterial blood
7.35
7.4
164
name 3 buffer systems
1) Protein buffer system (intracellular)
2) Phosphate buffer system (intracellular)
3) Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system (major system, regulates blood plasma pH)
165
Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
○ Major system in body, regulates blood plasma pH
○ CO2 + H2O <--> HCO3- + H+
○ Increase [H+] drives equation to left (duh)
○ Decrease [H+] drives equation to right
166
Urinary acidification in kidney; 3 mechanisms (all these mechanisms remove H+ ie make pee more acidic)
1) Reabsorption of filtered BICARB (HCO3-)
- In PCT , then can combine w H+ and be excreted in urine
2) H+ from tubular lumen combines w PHOSPHATE and is excreted (remove H+)
- In DCT
3) H+ combines w AMMONIA (NH3) and excreted as ammonium NH4+ (remove H+)
167
respiratory acidosis
- increase in pCO2
- excessive plasma CO2 caused by lung function failure or resp failure
168
resp alkalosis
- decrease in pCO2
- subnormal plasma CO2 caused by hyperventilation, anxiety or rapid ascent to high altitudes
169
metabolic alkalosis
too much bicarb in blood
170
metabolic acidosis
decreased bicarb (serum bicarb)
171
hormones produced by _____ glands
ductless
172
difference between exocrine and endocrine
Exocrine glands have ducts used for transport of substances directly into body cavities or organs
Endocrine glands are ductless and secrete hormones into blood
173
are Some chemicals both neurotransmitter and hormones?
yes
174
paracrine hormones
don't enter vasculature to reach target (local hormones)
175
T or F Hormones may circulate freely or be bound
T
176
types of hormones (4)
- steroid
- protein
- tyrosine
- fatty acids)
177
steroid hormones;
- Related to cholesterol
- Cells that produce: vacuolated, lipids, mitochondria, SER
- Cortisol, aldosterone, estrogen, progesterone, testosterone
178
protein hormones
- Proteins, polypeptides, aas
- Cells that produce: dense staining w secretory granules
- Mitochondria, RER, ribosomes
- ADH, oxytocin, insulin, glucagon, parathyroid h
179
Tyrosine hormones (aa)
Catecholamines (adrenalin, noradrenalin, dopamine), thyroid h.
180
Fatty acid hormones (eicosanoids)
- Derived from arachidonic acid
- Prostaglandins, prostacyclin, leukotrienes, thromboxanes
181
3 types of endocrine organs
1) Organs that are primarily endocrine
2) Combine endocrine function w other major function
3) Relatively incidental endocrine function (diffuse endocrine system)
182
Typical endocrine gland characteristics
- Scattered, range of embryological origins
- Secrete hormones from cells that are usually derived from epithelial cell origins
- Ductless
- Highly vascular
- Sparse CT framework
183
Follicular endocrine glands
- Balls of cells, hollow interior
- Thyroid, ovary
184
Cell masses or cords type of endocrine gland
Pituitary, adrenal cortex, interstitial tissue of testis, JG cells
185
Solitary endocrine cells ex
Enteroendocrine cells
186
Neurocrine cells
- Typical neurone cells whose products are released into blood
- Hypothalamus, pineal
187
hormones of hypothalamus are small ______
polypeptides
188
which endocrine organ integrates endocrine and CNS
hypothalamus
189
what are the 2 routes of hormones released by hypothalamus
1) Neurosecretory cells: Manufacture and transport their hormones via their axons to posterior pituitary in neurosecretory granules
2) Other neurosecretory cells in hypothalamus: Release hormones into the hypothalamic-pituitary portal vessels that travel to the anterior pituitary
190
hypothalamus
1) Neurosecretory cells
Manufacture and transport their hormones via their axons to posterior pituitary in neurosecretory granules
where are hromones stored until secreted
herring bodies (distended end of axons)
191
what are the 2 hormones released by neurosecretory cells (to the PP) in the hypothalamus
antidiuretic hormone (produced in SO nuc) and oxytocin (produced in PV nuc)
192
what hormones are released from hypothalamus into the hypothalamis - pituitary portal vessels --> AP
- Corticotrophin releasing hormone CRH
- GH release inhibiting hormone
- Prolactin release inhibiting hormone
- Thyroid releasing hormone TRH
- Gonadotropin releasing hormone GnRH
193
pituitary gland Sits in depression in basisphenoid bone called
sella turcica
194
2 regions of pituitary and their parts
1) Anterior pituitary (cellular, dark staining)
a. Pars distalis
b. Pars intermedia
c. Pars tuberalis
2) Posterior pituitary (derived from brain, light staining)
a. Pars nervosa
b. Infundibulum
c. Median eminence
195
hormones or pituitary
- Posterior pituitary
○ Oxytocin
○ ADH/ vasopressin
- Anterior pituitary
○ ACTH
○ TSH
○ FSH & LH
○ GH
○ Prolactin
○ MSH
196
AP histology consists of
chromophiles -Active, lots of secretory granules
Chromophobes
197
what gland Sits between cerebral hemispheres and cerebellum
pineal
198
pineal gland main hormone
melatonin
199
long day vs short day breeders and melatonin
Long day breeders ex horse : increase daylight --> decrease melatonin --> increase ovarian function
Short day breeders ex goat: decrease daylight --> increase melatonin --> increase ovarian function
200
light pathway to melatonin
Light --> retina --> hypothalamus --> sympathetic fibers --> pineal
201
melatonin functions
- Control of sleeping
- Inhibits puberty
- Regulates daily fluctuations of corticosteroids
- Photoreceptor in lower vertebrate
202
Histology of pineal gland (what 2 cells and what is brain sand)
- Pinealocytes
- Neuroglial cells
- Brain sand; Ca or Mg deposits
203
Neck endocrine organs are derived from _____
pharynx
204
thyroid hormones function
increase metabolic rate, generating heat
205
2 main thyroid hormones
T4 and T3
206
what cells are T4 and T3 produced by
Hormone produced by cuboidal follicular cells, stored until needed
207
parafollicular cells produce _____ which increase uptake of Ca++ by the skeleton, thus lowering blood Ca++
calcitonin
208
thyroid hormones Stored outside follicular cells in lumen as inactive form ______ which forms ______
thyroglobulin
colloid
209
what does the release of thyroid hormones require
iodine
210
dark red Paired lobes on lateral trachea caudal to larynx, what are they?
thyroid glands
211
T or F: thyroid glands may be connected via isthmus on ventral trachea
T
212
where do thyroid glands get their blood supply and where does it drain
Usually from common carotid a
Drains into internal jugular vein
213
thyroid gland is stimulated by ______ from AP
TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone)
214
active (secreting hormone) thyroid follicular cells vs inactive histology
Active cells are tall cuboidal w follicular lumen small as hormone is secreted into blood
Inactive cells low cuboidal and lumen will be distended w colloid
215
T or F:
Outer CT capsule and inner fibro elastic capsule divides thyroid into lobules and contains blood and nerve supply
T
216
T or F: cats hypothyroidism more common
F: cats- hyper
dogs- hypo
217
2 pairs small glands
On or embedded in thyroid tissue
parathyroid glands referred to as parathyroid 3 and 4
218
parathyroid glands Produce ______ which raises blood calcium levels
parathormone
219
T or F
parathormone has same effect of calcitonin
F: they have opposite effects
parathormone raises BC levels
calcitonin decreases BC levels
220
what are 3 ways parathormone from parathyroid glands raises blood calcium levels
○ Osteoclastic resorption
○ Increase reabsorption of Ca++ and decrease reabsorption of phosphate ions in kidneys
○ increase Ca++ absorption from intestine
221
what species have parathyroid recessed or embedded within thyroid
dogs , cats , small ruminants
222
what species have parathyroid 3 cranial to thyroid and 4 embedded
ox
223
what species have parathyroid 3 caudal to thyroid and 4 close to thyroid
horse
224
describe histology of parathyroid (2 types of cells)
- Thin CT capsule
- Dense plexus of sinusoidal capillaries
- Chief cells
○ Synthesize and secrete parathormone
- Oxyphil cells
225
which cells secrete parathormone in parathyroid
chief cells
226
what gland: Large lymphoid organ, regresses w age
with Thoracic and cervical parts
thymus gland
227
what does thymus gland produce
T cells
228
T or F: the thymus has hormone-producing epithelial cells that line capsule but do do not coat septa and capillaries
F- they do coat septa and capillaries too
229
adrenal gland origin
- dual
- cortex from coelomic epithelium
- medulla from neural crest
230
what does the cortex of adrenal glands secrete
steroids (mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids) and some sex hormones
231
what does medulla of adrenal glands secrete
catecholamines: adrenaline and noradrenaline
232
where do adrenal glands sit in body
- Small white/ yellow bodies, flattened dorsoventrally
- Medial to kidneys
- Lie in retroperitoneal space
- R more cranial than L
233
what vein bisects adrenal gland ventrally
Phrenico-abdominal vein
234
venous drainage of adrenal gland
via hilum into vena cava
235
what (hormone and system) controls the cortex of adrenal glands
Cortex controlled by ACTH from AP and renin-angiotensin system
236
** name the 3 layers of the cortex and what they produce - out to in (mike says this is a common exam q)
○ Zona glomerulosa
§ Produce mineralocorticoids especially aldosterone
○ Zona fasciculata
§ Glucocorticoids especially cortisol
○ Zona reticularis
§ Produce androgens and glucocorticoids
237
what are the secretory cells in medulla of adrenal glands
chromaffin cells
238
T or F: there is a large vein in center of medulla of adrenal gland
T
239
T or F; the cells of medulla of adrenals are functionally equivalent to post ganglionic neurons
T
240
what is endocrine pancreas called, what are the 2 main hormones
Islets of langerhans; insulin and glucagon
241
islets of langerhans of pancreas are demarcated by
reticular fibers
242
name the 3 islet cells and what they produce
○ Alpha; peripheral, glucagon
○ Beta; throughout, insulin
○ Delta; somatostatin
243
what is the "master switch board"
hypothalamus
244
what gland controls temp, hunger, thirst, sleep-wake cycles, repro
hypothalamus
245
T or F: hypothalamus integrates endocrine and CNS
true
246
T or F: Stimulating hypothalamus can activate functions related to: motivation, emotion and reward
T
247
describe HPA axis (Hypothalamo-pituitary adrenal axis)
Stress → CRH → ACTH → adrenal cortex (cortisol, etc) → metabolic + immune + cardiovascular effects
248
what gland produces melatonin
pineal gland
249
what gland controls circadian rhythm
pineal gland
250
posterior pituitary Stores neurohormones from hypothalamus in ______
herring bodies
251
name the 2 hormones released from posterior pituitary
Oxytocin and ADH (aka vasopressin)
252
does ADH do vasodilation or vasoconstriction
Vasoconstriction (raises BP)
253
ADH increase or decrease water excretion by kidneys
decrease
(anti pee hormone, retain water, vasoconstrictor, keep BP up)
254
secretion of ADH regulated by what 2 factors
○ Concentration of solute in ECF (osmoreceptors in hypothalamus)
○ Blood volume (atrial volume stretch receptors)
255
describe ADH pathway in distal tubule
ADH → V2 receptor (distal tubule)
↑ cAMP → protein kinases
Insert aquaporins (apical membrane)
Water flows to medullary interstitium → retention
256
describe ADH pathway is vascular smooth muscle
- ADH binds to V1 receptor in vascular smooth muscle
○ Vasoconstriction
○ Increased BP
257
ADH binds to what receptor in DCT/ kidney
what receptor in vascular SM
V2
V1
258
what is oxytocin involved in
- Parturition; stimulates contraction of uterine smooth muscle
- Lactation; milk ejection during suckling due to contraction of smooth muscle
259
T or F: oxytocin secretion is promoted by fear or anxiety
F: inhibited by them
260
Releasing hormones from hypothalamus: and what they stimulate in AP
§ CRH --> ACTH
§ TRH --> TSH
§ GnRH --> FSH and LH
§ GHRH --> GH
261
Inhibiting hormones from hypothalamus, and what they inhibit in AP
§ GHIH --/--> GH & TSH
§ Dopamine --/--> prolactin
262
name the 5 types of endocrine cells in AP
Somatotrophs – secrete Growth Hormone (GH)
Lactotrophs – secrete Prolactin (PRL)
Corticotrophs – secrete ACTH (and related peptides from POMC)
Thyrotrophs – secrete TSH
Gonadotrophs – secrete LH & FSH
263
TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone)
what it stimulates and effects
- Stimulates the thyroid gland → thyroid hormone release.
- Effects: growth & differentiation, energy balance.
264
ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone):
what it stimulates and effects
- Stimulates adrenal cortex → cortisol, aldosterone, and androgens.
- Effects: water & sodium balance, inflammation control, metabolism regulation
265
LH & FSH (Luteinizing Hormone & Follicle-Stimulating Hormone):
what it stimulates and effects
- Act on ovaries & testes → estrogen, progesterone, testosterone.
- Effects: reproductive function & behavior.
266
GH (Growth Hormone):
what it stimulates and effects
- Stimulates tissues (bones, muscles, liver).
- Liver releases insulin-like growth factor (IGF).
- Effects: growth & differentiation.
267
Prolactin (Prl):
what it stimulates and effects
- Acts on mammary glands.
- Effects: breast development & milk production.
268
what gland sits between duodenum and spleen
pancreas
269
endocrine pancrease; what it secretes
- insulin
- glucagon
- somatostatin
- pancreatic polypeptide
270
alpha cells
beta cells
delta cells
- Alpha cells --> glucagon (stimulates catabolism of glycogen --> glucose --> increase blood glucose)
- Beta cells --> insulin (anabolic, enhances cellular uptake and utilization of glucose --> decrease blood glucose)
Delta cells --> somatostatin --> inhibitor for both
271
insulin
- decrease BG
- Promote utilization of glucose for energy
- Conversion to glucose to glycogen
- Conversion of FA to triglycerides
- Conversion of aas to protein
272
T or F: glucose readily transports across cell Membranes
F- requires GLUT
273
GLUT
glucose transporters to transport across cell membranes
274
which GLUT requires insulin to cause them to facilitate diffusion of glucose
GLUT4
275
which GLUT:
- Widely distributed in fetal tissues
- Highly expressed in RBCs
- Provides basal glucose uptake in most tissues
GLUT1
276
which GLUT:
Insulin-responsive transporter in muscle and adipose tissue for glucose uptake after meals
GLUT4
277
which GLUT:
- Bidirectional transporter
- Low-affinity (works well at high blood glucose levels) transporter in liver, pancreas, kidney, and gut; important for glucose sensing
GLUT2
278
which GLUT:
High-affinity (works well at low levels) transporter supplying glucose to neurons
GLUT3
279
all 4 GLUT info:
GLUT1
- Widely distributed in fetal tissues
- Highly expressed in RBCs
- Provides basal glucose uptake in most tissues
GLUT 2
- Bidirectional transporter
- Low-affinity (works well at high blood glucose levels) transporter in liver, pancreas, kidney, and gut; important for glucose sensing
GLUT3
- High-affinity (works well at low levels) transporter supplying glucose to neurons
GLUT 4
- Insulin-responsive transporter in muscle and adipose tissue for glucose uptake after meals
280
brain cells manly use which 2 GLUT
1 and 3
281
Neurons do not store energy for of glucose, ______ do
astrocytes
282
insulin summary of action on carbs:
1. Insulin increases glucose uptake (via GLUT4) in muscle and fat.
2. Promotes glycogen storage in liver/muscle and glycolysis in muscle/fat.
3. Inhibits liver glucose production (gluconeogenesis + glycogenolysis).
4. Moves excess blood glucose into cells quickly.
Overall: Insulin lowers blood glucose by increasing uptake/storage and blocking liver glucose release.
283
what 2 mechanisms does insulin BLOCK in liver
- Glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen to glucose)
- Gluconeogenesis (production of glucose from non-carb sources)
284
T or F: gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin are GIT hormones that STIMULATE insulin secretion
T
285
type 1 vs type 2 diabetes
- Type 1; body destroys insulin producing cells (beta cells)- immune mediated
* Patients insulin dependent
* More common in dogs
- Type 2; body doesn’t produce enough insulin or becomes resistant (fat)
* Glucose toxicity will cause beta cell failure
* More common in cats
286
which diabetes more common in dogs
cats?
type 1
type 2
287
what is the third type of diabetes
Gestational/ dioestrus
* Progesterone during pregnancy induced GH in mammary gland
* GH generally counteracts insulin action
* Insulin still present but not effective
288
excess insulin could result in
Hypoglycaemia
(Low blood sugar)
289
what range should BG ve in
3.3-6.5
290
what are hypoglycaemia symptoms
confusion, seizures and coma; Neurons have no glycogen stores to fall back on
291
glucose increase or decrease osmotic pressure in ECF?
increase
292
describe effects of hyperglycaemia
Pulls water out of cells → cellular dehydration.
Excess glucose spills into urine → water follows → increased urination (osmotic diuresis).
Over time, damages tissues, especially blood vessels (cytotoxic effect)
293
glucagon effects
- Decrease glycogen synthesis (which turns glucose --> glycogen, so keeps it glucose)
- Increase glycogenolysis- promote breakdown of glycogen to glucose
- Increase gluconeogenesis (new glucose)
- overall Increase BG
294
what is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Emergency: life-threatening complication of uncontrolled diabetes.
Cause: Lack of insulin → glucose can’t be used for energy.
Consequence: Body breaks down fat → produces ketones.
Result: Ketone buildup → ketosis + acidosis.
Symptoms: Nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, lethargy → can progress to coma or death.
295
calcium homeostasis in a nut shell
- Low free Ca levels --> PTH (parathyroid hormone) secreted, activates Vit D3 by kidneys
* Increase absorption from GIT and resorption from bone
* Decrease renal excretion
- High free Ca levels --> calcitonin released, PTH decreased
* Increased bone deposition
* Increased renal excretion
296
PTH secreted by what cells
chief cells of parathyroid gland
297
overall action of PTH
increase Ca and decrease phosphate in plasma
298
PTH feedback
Negative feedback of Ca in blood
299
what does PTH act one
- bones
- kidneys
- GIT indirectly
300
PTH increase or decrease vit D3
increase
301
______ will increase PTH secretion during hypocalcaemia
Adrenaline
302
Vit D3 functions
- Increases Ca in plasma
- Increases absorption of Ca and phosphate in SI
- Stimulates bones to mobilize Ca and phosphate
- Promotes Ca reabsorption in kidney
303
calcitonin produced by what cells in thyroid gland
parafollicular cells
304
calcitonin functions
- Lower Ca when it rises above normal level
- Inhibits bone resorption, promotes deposition
- Decreases kidney reabsorption so increase Ca excreted in urine
- Secreted in response to hypercalcemia
305
Hyperparathyroidism
PTH hypersecretion
* Ex kikuyu grass contains oxalates, cause low plasma Ca --> high PTH
* Increases Ca mobilization in bones - softening and fractures
306
Hypoparathyroidism
PTH hyposecretion - decreased function of parathyroid glands --> low Ca
307
what gland is just caudal to larynx
thyroid glaand
308
thyroid gland produces ____-containing hormones (T3 and T4)
iodine
309
synthesis of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) happens in _____ part of follicles on ______ protein
colloid
thyroglobulin
310
basic mechanism of thyroid hormone synthesis
The thyroid follicle acts like a factory—iodide is trapped, oxidized, added to tyrosine on thyroglobulin, stored in colloid, and later retrieved, processed, and secreted as T3/T4.
311
thyroid hormones they remain in follicle lumen until released attached to ______
thyroglobulin
312
prolonged iodine deficiency results in
large amount of thyroglobulin accumulating- goitre
313
what % of thyroid hormones in circulation in T4
90%
T4 converted to T3 at tissues mainly liver
314
what % of thyroid hormone is converted into rT3 (reverse T3)
1%
315
what is more biologically active: T4 or T3
T3
316
how are thyroid hormones metabolized (2 ways)
- deiodination (by D1, D2 and D3 iodothyronine deiodinases)
- formation of glucuronides and sulfates and excreted in urine
317
regulation of thyroid hormone levels
* Low iodide levels --> increase iodine transport into follicular cells
* High iodide levels --> decrease iodine transport into follicular cells
- If thyroid hormone levels too low AP produced more TSH to work harder
318
TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) is produced by _____ cells in AP
thyrotrope
319
cold stress increase or decrease T3
increase
320
rT3
Inactive form of T3 --> produced in body during stress
321
what do thyroid hormones act one
- growth and development
- metabolism
- sympathomimetic and cardiovascular
- skeletal muscle
- resp system
- nervous system
322
thyroid hormone levels on protein
- Low thyroid hormone levels --> increase protein synthesis (low metabolic rate, growth)
- High thyroid hormone levels --> increased protein degradation (high metabolic rate, energy)
323
thyroid hormone levels on carbs
- Low thyroid hormone levels --> increase glycogen synthesis (low metabolic rate, storage of energy)
- High thyroid hormone levels --> increase glycogen breakdown (high metabolic rate, glucose production)
324
hypothyroidism
- Deficiency TH secretion
- Common in middle age purebred dogs
- Symptoms
* Reduced basal metabolic rate
* Poor resistance to cold
* Weight gain
* Fatigued
* Slow, weak pulse
* Slow mentation/ reflexes
* myxoedema
325
Hyperthyroidism
- Overproduction of TH
- Graves disease (autoimmune antibodies stimulate thyroid gland), other causes too
- Common in older cats
- Symptoms
* Elevated basal metabolic rate
* Sweating, heat intolerance
* Weight loss despite increased appetite
* Muscle weakening (tremor)
* Excessively alert, irritable, anxious, emotional
* Heart palpitation
* Exophthalmos
326
when does goitre happen (hyper or hypothyroid?)
Can happen in hypo OR hyper thyroid states
327
main regions of adrenal glands and what they produce
CORTEX- STEROIDS
○ Zona glomerulosa
§ Produce mineralocorticoids especially aldosterone
○ Zona fasciculata
§ Glucocorticoids especially cortisol
○ Zona reticularis
Produce androgens and glucocorticoids
MEDULLA - CATECHOLAMINES
- Adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine) → fight-or-flight hormones
328
name the steroids produced in adrenal cortex
* Glucocorticoids
* Mineralocorticoids
* Androgens which include DHEA and T
* Minor fractions ; Progesterone and Estrogen
329
2 pathways of synthesis of steroid hormones
- Cholesterol --> pregnenolone --> progesterone ---> 17 alpha progesterone or
- Cholesterol --> pregnenolone --> 17 alpha pregnenolone
330
action of glucocorticoids (ex cortisol)
Fuel metabolism for fight or flight response
331
do glucocorticoids have an insulin effect
NO! anti-insulin effect
Glucocorticoids INHIBIT glucose uptake (unlike insulin) - anti-insulin effect
332
T or F- glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis
T- think fight or flight- increase BG levels
333
T or F- glucocorticoids promote glucose uptake
F- they have an anti-insulin effect and inhibit glucose uptake, they increase BG
334
T or F; glucocorticoids stimulate lipolysis and protein catabolism
T
think fight of flight --> breakdown for fuel metabolism
335
cortisol has a negative feed back where
on hypothalamus (CRH) and AP (ACTH)
336
Cortisol secretion is closely regulated by _____
ACTH
plasma levels of the 2 should be parallel
337
does stress stimulate ACTH
yes
338
Circadian rhythm of glucocorticoid
Cortisol secretion Peaks at 8 am and lowest at midnight
339
what is cushings syndrome
Hyperadrenocorticism
(excess ACTH or adrenal tumour)
340
signs of excess steroids (5 P's)
- Polyuria (increased urination)
- Polydipsia (increased drinking)
- Polyphagia (increased appetite)
- Panting
- Pyoderma (skin issues)
341
what is ACTH stimulation test
* give exogenous ACTH
* if exaggerated response then can diagnose cushings
* Does not differentiate between adrenal or pituitary
342
low dose vs high dose dexamethasone suppression test
- Low dose dexamethasone suppression test
* If no suppression at 4 and 8 hrs; hyperadrenocorticism (likely adrenal because adrenal keeps making cortisol regardless of feedback)
* If suppression at 4 hours but none at 8 hours; hyperadrenocorticism (likely pituitary)
- High dose dexamethasone suppression test
Diagnosis; pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism
343
addisons disease
hypoadrenocorticism (opposite of cushings)
- Decreased hormone production/ chronic failure of cortex of adrenal gland
- Lack of aldosterone from immune-mediated destruction of cortex
344
dogs being treated for cushings are at risk of
addisons
345
what is the main mineralocorticoid
aldosterone
346
aldosterone is synthesized and secreted in response to
RAS
347
where is principle site of action of mineralocorticoids
kidneys- distal tubules
348
synthesis pathway of aldosterone
Cholesterol --> pregnenolone --> progesterone --> corticosterone --> aldosterone
349
effect of mineralocorticoid (aldosterone) on Na, K and H
Na IN
K OUT
H OUT
350
what is Primary aldosteronism
Overproduction of aldosterone
351
catecholamines- increase or decreas BG
increase
352
catecholmines effect
think same as cortisol so like fight of flight so gonna fuel the body:
- Increase [glucose]
- Inhibits insulin secretion
- Stimulates glucagon secretion
- Increase BG
- Promotes hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
- Promotes lipolysis
353
growth hormone secreted by AP cells called ____
somatotrophs
354
what hormone promotes GH and what hormone inhibits it
GHRH promotes GH
Somatostatin (GHIH) inhibits GH
355
GH increases or decreases lipolysis of FAs
increases
356
T or F: Liver can synthesize growth factors to help reg growth
T
357
GH and glucose level
GH inhibited by elevated glucose, and stimulated by low glucose
358
GH physiological effects
- Direct
* GH binds on target cell receptor
* Muscle
* Adipose tissue
* liver
- Indirect
* Mediated by insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
359
GH protein metabolism effect
Increased protein synthesis (anabolic for growth) and decreased protein oxidation
360
GH lipid metabolism effect
Stimulated triglyceride breakdown and adipocyte oxidation (fat used as energy source)
361
GH carb metabolism effect
maintain BG levels
362
GH metabolic effect summary
GH builds protein/muscle,
Burns fat for energy,
Keeps blood sugar high by reducing glucose use and boosting production.
Generally anabolic actions (build up)
Height, bone length, muscle anabolism
363
what factors stimulate GHRH in hypothalamus
* Ghrelin (hunger hormone)
* Hypoglycemia
* Sleep, stress, pain, trauma, etc
364
factor that stimulates GHIH
Hyperglycaemia
365
what is IGF
(insulin -like GFs aka somatomedins)
Promote cell growth and division
366
GH deficiency
- Adult= no major symptoms
- In young; pituitary dwarfism
* Short
* Normal body proportions
* Poor muscle development
* Excess SQ fat
367
is disproportionate dwarfism due to lack of GH
NO ; Due to failure of normal growth and ossification in chondrocytes
368
which about posterior pituitary is NOT correct:
a) main hormones are ADH and oxytocin
b) hormones are released from posterior pituitary in response to other hormones that are released into the hypothalamic- pituitary portal vessels.
c) is it neurological in origin.
d) hormones are stored in herring bodies
b) hormones are released from posterior pituitary in response to other hormones that are released into the hypothalamic- pituitary portal vessels.
369
which of the following are found in terminal recess kidneys: select all that apply
a) lack of fusion of medullary pyramids.
b) small medullary crest.
c) minor calyces.
d) renal pelvis
b) small medullary crest
d) renal pelvis
370
nephrons that are deep in cortex near the medulla and have long loops of henle are known as ______ nephrons
juxtamedullary
371
which regards to juxtaglomerular apparatus what is true: select all that apply
a) extraglomerular mesangial cells secrete sodium
b) the distal convoluted tubule of a nephron attaches to vascular pole of parent renal corpuscle
c) juxtaglomerular cells are modified smooth muscle cells on the efferent arteriole
d) macula densa cells sense Na levels in distal convoluted tubule
b) the distal convoluted tubule of a nephron attaches to vascular pole of parent renal corpuscle
d) macula densa cells sense Na levels in distal convoluted tubule
372
prolonged iodine deficiency will result in large amount of thyroglobulin accumulation and enlargement of thyroid gland which is commonly called as _____
goitre
373
what is the process which drives fluid and small solutes of out the blood via glomerular capillary and into the nephrons bowman's capsule called
glomerular filtration
374
True or False: if the body is in metabolic acidosis, the kidney will decrease the amount of bicarbonate that is reabsorbed back into the blood stream
False
375
which of the following are CORRECT about hypothalamus
select all that apply
a) it integrates endocrine and CNS
b) hormones are all large polypeptides
c) controls wide range of processes
d) plays crucial role in secretion of FSH and control of muscular movements
a) it integrates endocrine and CNS
c) controls wide range of processes
376
below is metabolic function of insulin
a) inhibits glucose in blood to enter cells
b) stimulates glycogenesis in liver and skeletal muscle
c) converting fatty acids to triglycerides
d) conversion of amino acids to fatty acids
b) stimulates glycogenesis in liver and skeletal muscle
vets 2012 struc and function 2
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