1
Q
if someone is experiencing vertigo, what specialist should they see first?
A
EENT (otorhinolaryngologist)
2
Q
describe Maslow’s hiearchy of needs
A
one must satisfy one level before fulfilling the next
3
Q
list the five levels on Maslow’s hiearchy
A
- physiological needs
- safety needs
- love and belonging
- self esteem
- self-actualization
4
Q
list Kubler Ross’s five stages of grief
A
- anger
- denial
- bargaining
- depression
- acceptance
5
Q
list the 8 stages of erikson’s growth and development model
A
- trust v mistrust
- autonomy v shame and doubt
- initiative v guilt
- industry v inferiority
- identity v role confusion
- intimacy v isolation
- generativity v stagnation
- ego integrity v despair
6
Q
what stage are infants in according to Erikson’s stages?
A
trust v mistrust
7
Q
what stage are kids in early childhood (toddlers) in according to Erikson’s stages?
A
autonomy v shame and doubt
8
Q
what stage are preschoolers in according to Erikson’s stages?
A
initiative v guilt
9
Q
what stage are school age kids in according to Erikson’s stages?
A
industry v inferiority
10
Q
what stage are adolescents in according to Erikson’s stages?
A
identity v role confusion
11
Q
what stage are young adults in according to Erikson’s stages?
A
intimacy v isolation
12
Q
what stage are middle adulthoods in according to Erikson’s stages
A
generativity v stagnations
13
Q
what stage are elderly in according to Erikson’s stages
A
ego integrity v despair
14
Q
what is the idea behind Erikson’s stages?
A
each age group needs to overcome specific challenge, the outcome determines which value they walk away with
15
Q
describe Medicare
A
four part health insurance under SS for eligible people and is an 80/20 plan
16
Q
who is eligible for medicare?
A
- ppl > 65 yrs
- disabled
- receiving SS benefits
- end-stage renal disease
17
Q
what does part A of medicare cover?
A
hospital/facility care, rehabilitation, some hospice
18
Q
what does part B of medicare cover?
A
office visits, xrays, labs, outpatient care, medically necessary/preventative services not covered by part A
19
Q
t/f: part B of medicare is optional and adds on to part A of medicare
A
true
20
Q
aka: part c medicare
A
medicare advantage
21
Q
describe part C of medicare
A
- health coverage including parts A, B and sometimes D from private companies approved by medicare
22
Q
describe what part d of medicare covers
A
namebrand and generic drugs
23
Q
what does CMS stand for
A
centers for medicare and medicaid services
24
Q
what does CMS1500 stand for
A
claim form for CMS
25
what does OSHA301 stand for
incident report for oSHA
26
what does VIS stand for
vaccine information statement
27
what does SDS stand for
safety data sheet
28
what does ACA stand for
affordable care act
29
what does EOB stand for
explanation of benefits
30
what does PCMH stand for
patient-centered medical home
31
what does HBV stand for
hepatitis b virus
32
what does HAV stand for
hepatitis A virus
33
what does HCV stand for
hepatitis C virus
34
what does HIV stand for
human immunodeficiency virus
35
what does DAW stand for
dispense as written
36
give examples of bloodborne pathogens
HBV, HCV, HIV
37
what are the 5 types of pathogens
bacteria, rickettsiae, virus, fungi, parasites
38
t/f: bacteria always means disease
false
39
how do bacteria infect the body if they are healthy for body
bacteria travels to wrong body part and feeds on nutrients producing toxins causing disease
40
what is the smallest microoorganism
viruses
41
how do viruses reproduce
host cells
42
define fungi
simple parasitic plants
43
difference between mold and yeast
mold = multicellular fungi
- yeast = single cell fungi
44
out of the 100 fungi in humans, how many have are pathogenic
10
45
what are the 3 types of parasites
protozoa, helminths ectoparasites
46
define protozoa
single cell parasite w/nucleus and flagella
47
describe ectoparasites
type of multicellular parasite that lives on host skin
48
aka: rickettsiae
obligate parasites
49
aka: rickettsiae
- larger than virus and completely dependent on host and gen transmitted by ectoparasites
50
how is measles transmitted
direct contact w/respiratory droplet
51
aka: measles
rubeola
52
sx: measles
- blotchy rash
- cough
- fever
- runny nose
- red watery eyes
- malaise
- koplik's spots
53
how is varicella zoster transmitted
direct/indirect contact from droplet/airborne
54
sx: varicella zoster
- pruritic vesicular eruptions
- slight fever
- headache
- loss of appetite
- malaise
55
how is pertussis transmitted
direct contact w/respiratory droplet
56
sx: pertussis
- sneezing
- low fever
- runny nose
- mild cough
- thick, clear mucus
- crowing, high pitched whoop
57
how is pediculosis transmitted
direct contact
58
sx: pediculosis
- itching
- visible lice
- lice eggs
59
how is haemophilus influenzae type b transmitted
direct/indirect contact w/respiratory droplets
60
sx: HiB
- URI symptoms
- fever
- aches
- sleepiness
- no appetite
- irritable and fussy
61
how is viral meningitis transmitted
- direct contact
- contact with fecal/oral/respiratory secretions
62
sx: viral meningitis in adults/kids
- cold/runny nose
- diarrhea
- vomiting/nausea
- fever
- headache
- stiff neck
- lack of appetite
- sensitivity to light
- sleepiness/trouble waking up
63
sx: viral meningitis in infants
- fever
- irritability
- poor eating
- hard to awaken
64
how is bacterial meningitis transmitted
direct contact with respiratory droplets
65
sx: bacterial meningitis
- fever
- intense headache
- nausea/vomiting
- irritability
- sluggishness
- seizures/coma
- petechial rash
66
how is epiglottis transmitted
direct contact with respiratory droplets
67
list the chain of infection
1. pathogen
2. reservoir
3. portal of exit
4. means/modes of transmission
5. portal of entry
6. susceptible host
68
give examples of portals of exit
- body secretions
- respiratory droplets
- body fluids
- excretions
69
how do you break the pathogen chain of infection
sanitize/disinfect/sterilize
70
how do you break the means/modes of transmission chain of infection
- PPE
- asepsis
- dispose contaminated objects
71
list portals of entry
- EENT
- eyes
- intestine
- reproductive
- open wounds
- skin breaks
72
how do you break the portals of entry
- sterile techniques
- dispose sharps
- cover wounds
73
what are preferred sites for intradermals
- anterior forearm
- midback
74
what gauge needles should be used for intradermals
26G or 27G
74
what needle length should be used for IDs
3/8-5/8 in
75
what angle should the needle be when doing IDs
10-15 degrees
76
what angle should needle be for IM
90 degrees
77
list preferred sites for IM
- deltoid
- dorsalgluteal
- ventrogluteal
- vastus lateralis
78
what needle gauge should be used for IMs
18-23 G
79
what needle length should be used for IMs
1-3 inches
80
what techniques can/should be used when performing IM
Z-track and aspirate
81
list preferred site for SubQ injections
- posterior arm
- abdomen
- upper thigh
82
what needle gauge should be used for SubQs
25-27G
83
what needle length should be used for SubQs
1/2-5/8 in
84
what angle should needle be when doing SubQ injection
45-90 degrees depending on Body mass
85
what are the 3 types of bacteria shapes
- cocci
- bacillus
- spirochetes
86
what shape is a spirochete bacteria
spiral
87
what shape is a cocci bacteria
circular
88
what shape is a bacillus bacteria
rod
89
purpose of doing a first morning urine collection?
most concentrated urine
90
purpose of doing clean catch/midstream urine collection
diagnose infection
91
aka: clean catch urine collection
midstream urine collection
92
purpose of chain of custody?
keep info confidential and know exactly who handled what and when
93
list the order of draw
- blood culture
- clear
- light blue
- red
- tiger
- gold
- green
- lavender
- grey
94
what is the purpose of a clear blood tube
discard in preparation for light blue
95
what is the purpose of light blue blood tube
coagulation study
96
what additive is in light blue tube
sodium citrate
97
what is the purpose of red blood tube
blood chemistry
98
what additive is in a red blood tube
- glass = no anticoagulant
- plastic = silicon coating
99
what additive is in a tiger blood tube
clot activator and clot separator
100
what is the purpose of a tiger blood tube
blood chemistry
101
what is the purpose of a gold blood tube
blood chemistry
102
what additive is in a gold blood tube
gel separator and clot activator
103
what is the purpose of green blood tube
blood chemistry
104
what additive is in a green blood tube
heparin
105
what additive is in a lavender blood tube
EDTA
106
purpose of lavender blood tube
hematology and hemoglobin A1c
107
what is the purpose of gray blood tube
blood alcohol content and glucose
108
what additives are in a gray blood tube
sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate
109
what are the 3 levels of medical asepsis
disinfection, sanitization, and sterilization
110
define sanitization
processing involving washing, scrubbing, and rinsing
111
define disinfection
use chemical/physical means to kill pathogens; usually wiping things down
112
what things are disinfected
- large tools
- heat sensitive items
- scopes
- surfaces
113
t/f: there are 3 levels of disinfection
true
114
how can things be sterilized
- autoclave
- dry heat
- chemical
115
what is the normal range for hemoglobin in a male
14-18
116
what is the normal range for hemoglobin in a female
12-16
117
what is the normal range for hemoglobin A1c
<7%
118
what is the normal hematocrit range for male
40-54%
119
what is the normal hematocrit range for females
34-47%
120
what is included in a CBC
hematocrit, hemoglobin, RBC, WBC, platelets
121
normal range of RBCs in a male
4.35-5.65 trillion
122
normal range of RBCs in a female
3.92-5.13 trillion
123
normal range for WBCs
3.4-9.6 billion
124
normal range of platelets in a male
135-317 billion
125
normal range of platelets in a female
157-371 billion
126
normal glucose range when fasting
70-100
127
normal range for MCV
80-100
128
what are the components of a lipid panel
- total cholesterol
- HDL
- LDL
- triglycerides
129
normal range for total cholesterol
130-200
130
normal range for HDL
<60
131
normal range for LDL
<100
132
normal range for triglycerides
<150
133
give examples of CLIA waived tests
- strep
- pregnancy
- fecal occult
- urinalysis
134
normal respirations for adult
12-20
135
normal temperature for adults in Fahrenheit and Celsius
98.6F/37C
136
how should BP cuff be inflated
palpate brachial artery and pump 30 mmHg above number brachial artery stopped pulsing
137
what does systolic pressure represent
pressure in arteries w/heart contraction
138
what does diastolic pressure represent
pressure in arteries w/heart relaxation
139
define TORT
branch of common law where crime is intentional/unintentional and can be suable for compensatory and punitive damages
140
define NEGLIGENCE
accidental medical tort determined by standard of care
141
what are the requirements for negligence
- duty of care must be owed to pt
- defendant breached duty
- plantiff harmed by breach of duty
- plantiff harmed
142
define STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS
plausible defense of medical malpractice allegation where there is a limited period of time to bring a claim
143
define ADVANCED DIRECTIVES
legal document giving instructions for medical care and life-sustaining efforts
144
define DEDUCTIBLE
amount insured must pay before insurance will pay claim
145
define COINSURANCE
amount you pay for covered healthcare after meeting deductible
146
purpose of AED
- diagnose
- evaluate heart rhythm
- give rescue instructions
- deliver shocks
147
what are the 4 E's of pediatric communication
- empathy
- enlistment
- education
- encouragement
148
what blood tube is used for trace metal analysis
royal blue
149
formula for BMI with US measurements
703 * (pounds/inches^2)
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