Midterm #3 Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following statements about comets and asteroids is true?

A) Only asteroids collide with Earth.
B) Comets are frozen balls of ice and dust.
C) Most of the trillions of comets in our solar system have tails.
D) All asteroids lie in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
E) There are about 1 million known asteroids in the solar system.

A

B) Comets are frozen balls of ice and dust.

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2
Q

How can primitive meteorites be distinguished from processed meteorites?

A) Radiometric dating shows that primitive meteorites are slightly older.
B) Radiometric dating shows that primitive meteorites are slightly younger.
C) Primitive meteorites always contain iron and processed meteorites do not.
D) Primitive meteorites always contain rocky material and processed meteorites do not.
E) Primitive meteorites always contain carbon compounds and processed meteorites do not.

A

A) Radiometric dating shows that primitive meteorites are slightly older.

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3
Q

Why aren’t small asteroids spherical in shape?

A) The force of gravity in small asteroids is less than the resistance of the rock to deform.
B) Small asteroids have odd shapes because they were all chipped off larger objects.
C) Large asteroids were once molten and therefore became spherical, but small asteroids were never
molten.
D) Large asteroids became spherical because many small collisions chipped off pieces until only a
sphere was left; this did not occur with small asteroids.

A

A) The force of gravity in small asteroids is less than the resistance of the rock to deform.

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4
Q

Where are the Trojan asteroids located?

A) in orbits around Jupiter
B) along Jupiter’s orbit, 60° ahead of and behind Jupiter
C) in the center of the asteroid belt
D) in orbits that cross Earth’s orbit
E) in orbits that cross Mars’s orbit

A

B) along Jupiter’s orbit, 60° ahead of and behind Jupiter

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5
Q

What surprising discovery did the New Horizons spacecraft make during its recent flyby of Pluto?

A) Pluto has the largest known volcano in the solar system.
B) Pluto’s surface consists mostly of rocky material.
C) Pluto’s surface shows signs of very recent geological activity.
D) Pluto really is a lost moon of Neptune.
E) None of the above

A

C) Pluto’s surface shows signs of very recent geological activity.

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6
Q

What causes the meteor showers we witness on Earth?

A) Earth passes through remnants of an impacted asteroid
B) Earth passes through the asteroid belt
C) Earth passes through the coma of a comet
D) Earth passes through comet dust particles
E) Earth passes through solar wind particles

A

D) Earth passes through comet dust particles

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7
Q

n what way does the figure on the right give a poor representation
of the asteroid belt?

A) For a correct scale, the asteroids should be drawn much smaller. This image gives the impression that the asteroid belt is very crowded.
B) The image does not show where most of the asteroids are
located in the solar system.
C) It shows the positions of the asteroids at a mix of times.
D) all of the above

A

A) For a correct scale, the asteroids should be drawn much smaller. This image gives the impression that the asteroid belt is very crowded.

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8
Q

What type of energy transport is occurring just below the photosphere of the Sun?

A) conduction
B) radiation
C) convection
D) emission
E) we do not know, since we cannot see below the photosphere

A

C) convection

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9
Q

How much mass does the Sun lose through nuclear fusion per second?

A) 4 tons
B) 4 million tons
C) 600 tons
D) 600 million tons
E) None; mass-energy is conserved so the sun cannot be losing mass.

A

B) 4 million tons

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10
Q

What observations characterize solar maximum?

A) The Sun becomes much brighter.
B) The Sun emits light of longer average wavelength.
C) The Sun rotates faster at its poles.
D) There are many sunspots visible on the surface of the Sun.
E) all of the above

A

D) There are many sunspots visible on the surface of the Sun.

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a method astronomers use to determine the physical conditions inside
the Sun?

A) observing X-ray images of the solar interior using satellites
B) building mathematical models that use the laws of physics
C) detecting solar neutrinos generated in the Sun’s core
D) measuring Doppler shifts to observe solar vibrations

A

A) observing X-ray images of the solar interior using satellites

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12
Q

What is a solar flare?

A) an ejection of solar material from the corona
B) solar material from the chromosphere following the arches of the Sun’s magnetic field
C) an eruption of solar material from the photosphere
D) the same thing as a filament
E) none of the above

A

C) an eruption of solar material from the photosphere

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13
Q

n the diagram of the Sun’s interior on the right, some arrows point outward, and some arrows point inward. Long arrows are near the center, short arrows near the outer surface. The arrows in this diagram are meant to show how gravitational equilibrium works in the Sun. What do the different directions and different arrow lengths represent?

A) Inward arrows represent gravity; outward arrows represent the solar wind; longer arrows represent a stronger push or pull.
B) Inward arrows represent gravity; outward arrows represent pressure; longer arrows represent a stronger push or pull.
C) Inward arrows represent downward convection; outward arrows represent upward convection;
longer arrows represent stronger convection.
D) Inward arrows represent convection; outward arrows represent radiation; longer arrows
represent greater intensity.

A

B) Inward arrows represent gravity; outward arrows represent pressure; longer arrows represent a stronger push or pull.

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14
Q

In the late 1800s, Kelvin and Helmholtz suggested that the Sun stayed hot due to gravitational
contraction. What was the major drawback to this idea?

A) It predicted that the Sun would shrink noticeably as we watched it, but the Sun appears to be
stable in size.
B) It predicted that the Sun could shine for about 25 million years, but geologists had already
found that Earth is much older than this.
C) It is physically impossible to generate heat simply by making a star shrink in size.
D) It predicted that Earth would also shrink in size with time, which would make it impossible to
have stable geology on our planet.

A

B) It predicted that the Sun could shine for about 25 million years, but geologists had already
found that Earth is much older than this.

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15
Q

Star A and Star B have measured stellar parallax of 0.75 arc second and 0.10 arc second,
respectively. Which star is closer?

A) Star A is closer.
B) Star B is closer.
C) Star A and Star B are the same distance away.
D) Distance cannot be determined from the parallax alone.

A

A) Star A is closer.

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16
Q

Hydrogen lines are weak in the spectra of hot O-type stars because ____.

A) most of the hydrogen has been converted to helium
B) a good spectrum of these stars is difficult to obtain
C) these stars have no atmosphere
D) gravitational pressure pushes all the hydrogen lines out of the visible spectrum
E) most of the hydrogen is ionized to high energy levels

A

E) most of the hydrogen is ionized to high energy levels

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17
Q

Which of the following is the most numerous type of main-sequence star?

A) an O star
B) an A star
C) an F star
D) a G star
E) an M star

A

E) an M star

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18
Q

What eventually halts the gravitational collapse of an interstellar gas cloud that forms an object that
is not massive enough to become a star?

A) the central object becoming hot enough to sustain nuclear fusion in its core
B) the crowding of electrons in the core
C) Nothing; all collapsing gas clouds become black holes.
D) A critical fraction of the gas has been driven further into space.

A

B) the crowding of electrons in the core

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19
Q

Since all stars begin their lives with the same basic composition, what characteristic is most
important in determining how they will differ?

A) their location in the galaxy
B) the time at which they formed
C) their initial luminosity
D) their initial mass
E) their initial color

A

D) their initial mass

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20
Q

On the main sequence, stars obtain their energy

A) from chemical reactions.
B) from gravitational contraction.
C) by converting hydrogen to helium.
D) by converting helium to carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen.
E) from nuclear fission.

A

C) by converting hydrogen to helium.

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21
Q

Which of the following comparisons between low-mass stars and high-mass main-sequence stars is
true?

A) Low-mass stars have the same temperature and luminosity as high-mass stars.
B) Low-mass stars are cooler and less luminous than high-mass stars.
C) Low-mass stars are hotter and more luminous than high-mass stars.
D) Low-mass stars are cooler but more luminous than high-mass stars.
E) Low-mass stars are hotter but less luminous than high-mass stars

A

B) Low-mass stars are cooler and less luminous than high-mass stars.

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22
Q

What is the main idea captured by the graph on the right?

A) Low-mass stars are much more common than
higher-mass stars.
B) Objects with mass below 0.08 M Sun are brown
dwarfs rather than true stars.
C) Stars are best understood by dividing them into
four categories by mass.
D) Low-mass stars are smaller and redder than
higher-mass stars.
E) Most stars have approximately the same mass as
the Sun.

A

A) Low-mass stars are much more common than
higher-mass stars.

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23
Q

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the stages of life for a one solar mass star?

A) red giant, protostar, main-sequence, white dwarf
B) white dwarf, main-sequence, red giant, protostar
C) protostar, red giant, main-sequence, white dwarf
D) protostar, main-sequence, white dwarf, red giant
E) protostar, main-sequence, red giant, white dwarf

A

E) protostar, main-sequence, red giant, white dwarf

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24
Q

Helium fusion directly results in the formation of

A) hydrogen.
B) oxygen.
C) carbon.
D) nitrogen.
E) iron

A

C) carbon.

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24
Carbon fusion occurs in high-mass stars but not in low-mass stars because ________. A) the cores of low-mass stars never get hot enough for carbon fusion B) the cores of low-mass stars never contain significant amounts of carbon C) only high-mass stars do fusion by the CNO cycle D) carbon fusion can occur only in the stars known as carbon stars
A) the cores of low-mass stars never get hot enough for carbon fusion
25
This famous image from the Hubble Space Telescope shows what is sometimes called the "pillars of creation." Which of the following best describes what it shows? A) Each of the pillars is a cloud of gas that will give birth to a single star, which will emerge from the top of its pillar. B) There is a hot, young star at the top of each pillar that is shooting a jet of gas that forms the pillar below the star. C) The pillars are clouds of gas and dust in which many new stars are forming; the edges of the pillars are sculpted by ultraviolet radiation from stars outside the pillars. D) There is a single star outside the frame at the bottom, and the pillars are clouds of accreting particles that will form planets orbiting the star
C) The pillars are clouds of gas and dust in which many new stars are forming; the edges of the pillars are sculpted by ultraviolet radiation from stars outside the pillars.
26
What is a planetary nebula? A) a disk of gas surrounding a protostar that may form into planets B) what is left of its planets after a low-mass star has ended its life C) the molecular cloud from which planets form D) the expanding shell of gas that is no longer gravitationally bound to the core of a star E) the expanding shell of gas that is left when a white dwarf explodes as a supernova
D) the expanding shell of gas that is no longer gravitationally bound to the core of a star
27
How do we think the "hot Jupiters" around other stars were formed? A) They formed as gas giants close to the star in the same orbits that they are seen today. B) They formed as dense, rocky planets close to the star in the same orbits that they are seen today. C) They formed as gas giants beyond the frost line and then migrated inwards. D) Many planets were formed around the star but coalesced into a single planet close in
C) They formed as gas giants beyond the frost line and then migrated inwards.
28
The graph shows how a star's orbital speed (radial velocity) varies with time due to the gravitational tug of an orbiting planet. The amplitude of the radial velocity (how high and how low the radial velocity gets to be) is related to the planet’s A) orbital shape B) orbital period C) mass D) radius
C) mass
29
What is the chief difficulty in attempting to detect planets around other stars? A) Even the largest planets are thousands of times smaller than their host stars. B) Planets do not emit visible light, and they are typically at least a billion times fainter than their host stars. C) Planets do not glow in the infrared, so infrared telescopes cannot be used to study them, either. D) As viewed from Earth, planets often hide behind their stars and cannot be seen. E) all of the above
B) Planets do not emit visible light, and they are typically at least a billion times fainter than their host stars.
30
Which new idea has been added into our theory of solar system formation as a result of the discoveries of extrasolar planets? A) Planets can migrate from the orbits in which they are born. B) In addition to the categories of terrestrial and jovian, there must be an "in-between" category of planet that has the mass of a jovian planet but the composition of a terrestrial planet. C) In some star systems, it is possible for jovian planets to form in the inner solar system and terrestrial planets to form in the outer solar system. D) Some of the "exceptions to the rules" in our own solar system are likely to have been the result of giant impacts.
A) Planets can migrate from the orbits in which they are born.
31
Using the transit method, how many times must a dip be observed before it can qualify as an actual planet detection? A) once B) twice C) three times D) four times E) five times
C) three times
32
When Mercury or Venus passes in front of the disk of the Sun, we call this A) an eclipse B) a shadow event C) a passage D) a transit E) an occultation
D) a transit
33
Brown dwarfs have A) very narrow habitable zones B) no habitable zones C) very wide habitable zones D) habitable zones similar to the Sun
B) no habitable zones
34
What is the upper limit of a brown dwarf’s size? A) no upper limit B) 0.50 solar masses C) 0.10 solar masses D) 0.08 solar masses E) less than 0.08 solar masses
E) less than 0.08 solar masses
35
The fusion of helium into carbon will take a temperature of at least A) 5 million degrees kelvin B) 10 million degrees kelvin C) 50 million degrees kelvin D) 100 million degrees kelvin E) 600 million degrees kelvin
D) 100 million degrees kelvin
36
Imagine that you are trying to stop neutrinos with a lead shield. How thick would you need to make this shield to ensure that it can stop an average neutrino? A) about one meter B) about 700,000 kilometers (the radius of the Sun) C) about 150 million kilometers (the size of an astronomical unit) D) about one light-year E) about 14 billion light-years (the size of the observable universe)
D) about one light-year
37
About how far is the Oort cloud from the Sun? A) 3 to 5 AU B) 45 to 60 AU C) 100 to 1000 AU D) 10,000 to 100,000 AU E) 4.6 billion AU
D) 10,000 to 100,000 AU
38
Which of the following is the phase of matter in the interior of the Sun? A) gas B) plasma C) liquid D) solid E) a mixture of all of the above
B) plasma
39
Based on its surface temperature of 6,000 K, most photons that leave the Sun's surface lie in which region of the electromagnetic spectrum? A) microwave B) infrared C) visible D) ultraviolet E) X-ray
C) visible
40
Hydrogen fusion in the Sun requires a temperature (in Kelvin) of A) thousands of degrees. B) millions of degrees. C) billions of degrees. D) trillions of degrees. E) any temperature, as long as gravity is strong enough.
B) millions of degrees.
41
How much mass does the Sun lose through nuclear fusion per second? A) 4 tons B) 600 tons C) 4 million tons D) 600 million tons E) None; mass-energy is conserved so the sun cannot be losing mass
C) 4 million tons
42
What is the only force that can overcome the repulsion between two positively charged nuclei and bind them together? A) the strong force B) the weak force C) the electromagnetic force D) the gravitational force E) the Coriolis force
A) the strong force
43
Which of the following is not a method astronomers use to determine the physical conditions inside the Sun? A) observing X-ray images of the solar interior using satellites B) building mathematical models that use the laws of physics C) detecting solar neutrinos generated in the Sun's core D) measuring Doppler shifts to observe solar vibrations
A) observing X-ray images of the solar interior using satellites
44
What is a geomagnetic storm? A) A large-scale hurricane-like storm in the upper atmosphere B) The presence of a large number of sunspots on the surface of the Sun C) An unusually beautiful display of the northern lights D) An event initiated by a disturbance in the solar wind that includes radio blackouts, a depression of Earth’s magnetic field, and an increase in the number of energetic particles in the solar wind. E) None of the above
D) An event initiated by a disturbance in the solar wind that includes radio blackouts, a depression of Earth’s magnetic field, and an increase in the number of energetic particles in the solar wind.
45
Since all stars begin their lives with the same basic composition, what characteristic is most important in determining how they will differ? A) their location in the galaxy B) the time at which they formed C) their initial luminosity D) their initial mass E) their initial color
D) their initial mass
46
Star A and B have the same luminosity, but star B is 10 times farther from Earth than star A. How much brighter will star A appear? A) 10 times B) 100 times C) 1,000 times D) 10,000 times E) 100,000 times
B) 100 times
47
A star’s color is related to it’s surface temperature because _________. A) the colors of stars depend mainly on the emission lines in the spectra B) stars emit thermal radiation C) stars have absorption lines in their spectra D) the color of a star depends on its mass, and mass is related to surface temperature.
B) stars emit thermal radiation
48
Consider a large molecular cloud that will give birth to a cluster of stars. Which of the following would you expect to be true? A) A few massive stars will form, live, and die before the majority of the star's clusters even complete their protostar stage. B) All the stars in the cluster will have approximately the same luminosity and surface temperature. C) All the stars in the cluster will become main-sequence stars at about the same time. D) All the stars in the cluster will be of about the same mass.
A) A few massive stars will form, live, and die before the majority of the star's clusters even complete their protostar stage.
49
What percentage of a star's total lifetime is spent on the main sequence? A) 10% B) 20% C) 50% D) 90% E) 100%
D) 90%
50
Observationally, how can we tell the difference between a white-dwarf supernova and a massive- star supernova? A) A massive-star supernova is brighter than a white-dwarf supernova. B) A massive-star supernova happens only once, while a white-dwarf supernova can repeat periodically. C) The spectrum of a massive-star supernova shows prominent hydrogen lines, while the spectrum of a white-dwarf supernova does not. D) The light of a white-dwarf supernova fades steadily, while the light of a massive-star supernova continues to brighten for many weeks. E) We cannot yet tell the difference between a massive-star supernova and a white-dwarf supernova
C) The spectrum of a massive-star supernova shows prominent hydrogen lines, while the spectrum of a white-dwarf supernova does not.
51
What condition is necessary in an interstellar gas cloud for it to begin collapsing? A) a high temperature B) a high heavy element content C) a low density D) a low temperature E) a low heavy element content
D) a low temperature
52
What eventually halts the gravitational collapse of an interstellar gas cloud that forms an object that is not massive enough to become a star? A) the central object becoming hot enough to sustain nuclear fusion in its core B) the crowding of electrons in the core C) Nothing; all collapsing gas clouds become black holes. D) A critical fraction of the gas has been driven further into space.
B) the crowding of electrons in the core
53
When does a star become a main-sequence star? A) when the protostar assembles from its parent molecular cloud B the instant when hydrogen fusion first begins in the star's core C) when the rate of hydrogen fusion in the star's core is high enough to sustain gravitational equilibrium D) when a star becomes luminous enough to emit thermal radiation E) when hydrogen fusion is occurring throughout the star's interior
C) when the rate of hydrogen fusion in the star's core is high enough to sustain gravitational equilibrium
54
What happens after the helium flash in the core of a star? A) The core quickly heats up and expands as helium fusion begins all at once throughout the core. B) The star breaks apart in a violent explosion. C) The core suddenly contracts. D) The core stops fusing helium. E) The star starts to fuse helium in a shell outside the core.
A) The core quickly heats up and expands as helium fusion begins all at once throughout the core.
55
Which element has the lowest mass per nuclear particle and therefore cannot release energy by either fusion or fission? A) hydrogen B) oxygen C) silicon D) iron E) helium
D) iron
56
What is the main idea captured by the graph on the right? A) Low-mass stars are much more common than higher-mass stars. B) Objects with mass below 0.08 M Sun are brown dwarfs rather than true stars. C) Stars are best understood by dividing them into four categories by mass. D) Low-mass stars are smaller and redder than higher-mass stars. E) Most stars have approximately the same mass as the Sun
A) Low-mass stars are much more common than higher-mass stars.
57
What is the ultimate fate of an isolated white dwarf? A) As gravity overwhelms the electron degeneracy pressure, it will explode as a nova. B) As gravity overwhelms the electron degeneracy pressure, it will explode as a supernova. C) As gravity overwhelms the electron degeneracy pressure, it will become a neutron star. D) The electron degeneracy pressure slowly overwhelms gravity and the white dwarf evaporates. E) It will cool down and become a cold black dwarf.
E) It will cool down and become a cold black dwarf.
58
From a physical standpoint, what is a pulsar? A) a star that alternately expands and contracts in size B) a neutron star or black hole that happens to be in a binary system C) a rapidly rotating neutron star D) a binary system that happens to be aligned so that one star periodically eclipses the other E) a star that is fusing iron in its core
C) a rapidly rotating neutron star
59
How do we know that pulsars must be neutron stars? A) We have observed massive-star supernovae produce pulsars. B) Telescopic images of pulsars and neutron stars look exactly the same. C) No massive object, other than a neutron star, could spin as fast as we observe pulsars to spin and remain intact. D) Pulsars have the same upper mass limit as neutron stars do. E) This is only a theory that has not yet been confirmed by observations
C) No massive object, other than a neutron star, could spin as fast as we observe pulsars to spin and remain intact.
60
Approximately how long does it take the Sun to orbit the center of the Milky Way Galaxy? A) 20,000 years B) 200,000 years C) 2 million years D) 200 million years E) 2 billion years
D) 200 million years
61
Where are most elements heavier than hydrogen and helium made? A) in the interstellar medium B) in the cores of stars and in supernovae C) All were made in the Big Bang, when the universe first began. D) in the cool atmospheres of red giant stars E) in white dwarfs
B) in the cores of stars and in supernovae
62
What is a standard candle? A) an object for which we can easily measure its apparent brightness B) a class of objects that we know all have exactly the same apparent brightness C) an object whose luminosity we know D) any star for which we know its exact apparent brightness E) a unit of luminosity used by astronomers
C) an object whose luminosity we know
62
What does the diagram on the right represent? A) An electron and an antielectron bombarding a star to initiate the ejection of gamma rays from the star. B) Two photons spontaneously turning into a particle and an antiparticle. C) A particle and antiparticle colliding and converting all their mass into photons. D) A particle of ordinary matter and a particle of dark matter colliding and becoming two photons of dark energy
C) A particle and antiparticle colliding and converting all their mass into photons.
63
A star's luminosity is the A) apparent brightness of the star in our sky. B) surface temperature of the star. C) lifetime of the star. D) total amount of energy that the star will radiate over its entire lifetime. E) total amount of energy that the star radiates each second.
E) total amount of energy that the star radiates each second.
64
If the distance between us and a star is doubled, with everything else remaining the same, its luminosity A) is decreased by a factor of four, and its apparent brightness is decreased by a factor of four. B) is decreased by a factor of two, and its apparent brightness is decreased by a factor of two. C) remains the same, but its apparent brightness is decreased by a factor of two. D) remains the same, but its apparent brightness is decreased by a factor of four. E) is decreased by a factor of four, but its apparent brightness remains the same.
D) remains the same, but its apparent brightness is decreased by a factor of four.
65
The faintest star visible to the naked eye has an apparent magnitude of about A) 10. B) 6. C) 1. D) 0. E) -1.
B) 6.
66
Which of the following stars are brightest at ultraviolet wavelengths? A) O and B stars B) A and F stars C) G and K stars D) M stars E) None; all stars are brightest at optical wavelengths.
A) O and B stars
67
On a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram, where would you find red giant stars? A) upper right B) lower right C) upper left D) lower left E) middle
A) upper right
68
Which of the following comparisons between low-mass stars and high-mass main-sequence stars is true? A) Low-mass stars have the same temperature and luminosity as high-mass stars. B) Low-mass stars are cooler and less luminous than high-mass stars. C) Low-mass stars are hotter and more luminous than high-mass stars. D) Low-mass stars are cooler but more luminous than high-mass stars. E) Low-mass stars are hotter but less luminous than high-mass stars.
B) Low-mass stars are cooler and less luminous than high-mass stars.
69
What did Carl Sagan mean when he said that we are all "star stuff"? A) that life would be impossible without energy from the Sun B) that the Earth formed at the same time as the Sun C) that the carbon, oxygen, and other elements essential to life were created by nucleosynthesis in stellar cores D) that the Sun formed from the interstellar medium: the "stuff" between the stars E) that the universe contains billions of stars
C) that the carbon, oxygen, and other elements essential to life were created by nucleosynthesis in stellar cores
70
The photo on the right shows the Pleaides, known in Japanese as Subaru. What kind of object is it? A) a "beehive" cluster B) a globular cluster of stars C) a spiral galaxy D) an open cluster of stars E) a supergiant star
D) an open cluster of stars
71
What eventually halts the gravitational collapse of an interstellar gas cloud if it is massive enough to become a star? A) the central object becoming hot enough to sustain nuclear fusion in its core B) the crowding of electrons in the core C) nothing; all collapsing gas clouds become black holes D) a critical fraction of the gas has been driven further into space
A) the central object becoming hot enough to sustain nuclear fusion in its core
72
When does a star become a main-sequence star? A) when the protostar assembles from its parent molecular cloud B) the instant when hydrogen fusion first begins in the star's core C) when the rate of hydrogen fusion in the star's core is high enough to sustain gravitational equilibrium D) when a star becomes luminous enough to emit thermal radiation E) when hydrogen fusion is occurring throughout the star's interior
C) when the rate of hydrogen fusion in the star's core is high enough to sustain gravitational equilibrium
73
What percentage of a star's total lifetime is spent on the main sequence? A) 10% B) 20% C) 50% D) 90% E) 100%
D) 90%
74
This famous image from the Hubble Space Telescope shows what is sometimes called the "pillars of creation." Which of the following best describes what it shows? A) Each of the pillars is a cloud of gas that will give birth to a single star, which will emerge from the top of its pillar. B) There is a hot, young star at the top of each pillar that is shooting a jet of gas that forms the pillar below the star. C) The pillars are clouds of gas and dust in which many new stars are forming; the edges of the pillars are sculpted by ultraviolet radiation from stars outside the pillars. D) There is a single star outside the frame at the bottom, and the pillars are clouds of accreting particles that will form planets orbiting the star
C) The pillars are clouds of gas and dust in which many new stars are forming; the edges of the pillars are sculpted by ultraviolet radiation from stars outside the pillars.
75
Which of the following statements about novae is not true? A) Our Sun will probably undergo at least one nova when it becomes a white dwarf about 5 billion years from now. B) A star system that undergoes a nova may have another nova sometime in the future. C) A nova involves fusion taking place on the surface of a white dwarf. D) When a star system undergoes a nova, it brightens considerably, but not as much as a star system undergoing a supernova. E) The word nova means "new star" and originally referred to stars that suddenly appeared in the sky, then disappeared again after a few weeks or months.
A) Our Sun will probably undergo at least one nova when it becomes a white dwarf about 5 billion years from now.
76
After a massive-star supernova, what is left behind? A) always a white dwarf B) always a neutron star C) always a black hole D) either a white dwarf or a neutron star E) either a neutron star or a black hole
E) either a neutron star or a black hole
77
From an observational standpoint, what is a pulsar? A) a star that slowly changes its brightness, getting dimmer and then brighter, with a period of anywhere from a few hours to a few weeks B) an object that emits flashes of light several times per second (or even faster), with near perfect regularity C) an object that emits random "pulses" of light, sometimes with only a fraction of a second between pulses and other times with several days between pulses D) a star that changes color rapidly, from blue to red and back again
B) an object that emits flashes of light several times per second (or even faster), with near perfect regularity
78
This Hubble Space Telescope photo shows a planetary nebula. What is the white dot in the center (indicated by the arrow)? A) A red giant star with a strong stellar wind B) A white dwarf C) A neutron star D) A protostar that will soon become a main-sequence star
B) A white dwarf
79
What makes up the interstellar medium? A) open clusters B) O and B stars C) K and M stars D) gas and dust E) all of the above
D) gas and dust
80
Approximately how long does it take the Sun to orbit the center of the Milky Way Galaxy? A) 20,000 years B) 200,000 years C) 2 million years D) 200 million years E) 2 billion years
D) 200 million years
81
How would you expect a star that formed recently in the disk of the galaxy to differ from one that formed early in the history of the disk? A) It should be higher in mass. B) It should have a higher fraction of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium. C) It should be much brighter. D) It should orbit the galactic center at a much higher rate of speed. E) All of the above would be expected.
B) It should have a higher fraction of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium.