Midterm Examination Prep Flashcards

(96 cards)

1
Q

A physician orders a pain medication for a patient “as needed.” What type of order is this, and how does it differ from a standing order?

A

This is a PRN order. Unlike a standing order (routine, given at set times), a PRN order requires clinical judgment—given only when the patient’s condition warrants it.

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2
Q

If a drug is ordered q4h, what does this mean?

A

The drug should be administered every 4 hours, around the clock if needed.

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3
Q

How does q4h differ from qid?

A

q4h = every 4 hours (up to 6 doses in 24 hrs).

qid = 4 times daily (usually spaced during waking hours, not necessarily every 6 hours).

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4
Q

A physician orders a medication to be taken three times a day. What abbreviation is used, and how might this differ from q8h?

A

TID = three times daily (generally during waking hours, e.g., breakfast, lunch, dinner). q8h = every 8 hours (scheduled evenly over 24 hours).

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5
Q

In a surgical setting, why might an anesthetic in gas form be preferable to a liquid or solid?

A

Gaseous anesthetics allow for rapid induction and recovery, giving anesthesia providers tighter control over depth and duration of anesthesia. also, gas is absorbed rapidly, allowing almost immediate entry into the bloodstream.

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6
Q

What abbreviation indicates an ointment form of a drug?

A

ung (from Latin unguentum).

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7
Q

What abbreviation indicates that a drug should be given orally?

A

PO (per os = “by mouth”).

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8
Q

Why might a drug ordered PO have a slower onset than the same drug ordered IV?

A

PO medications undergo absorption in the GI tract and first-pass metabolism in the liver, delaying and reducing drug availability compared to IV, which delivers the drug directly into circulation.

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9
Q

A medication administered by any route except the mouth is described as what?

A

Parenteral administration.

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10
Q

Through what body system is drug distribution primarily carried out?

A

The circulatory system.

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11
Q

Why is cardiac output an important factor in drug distribution?

A

Drugs rely on blood flow for transport; decreased cardiac output can reduce delivery of drugs to tissues, altering effectiveness and dosing needs.

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12
Q

What term describes the time between drug administration and the first appearance of its effects?

A

Onset of action.

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13
Q

How does “onset” differ from “peak effect” and “duration”?

A

Onset = when drug effects first appear.

Peak effect = when the drug reaches maximum effect.

Duration = how long the drug’s effects last.

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14
Q

What group of drugs is known as receptor blockers?

A

Antagonists.

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15
Q

How do antagonists differ from agonists?

A

Agonists activate receptors to produce a response.

Antagonists block receptors, preventing activation and effect.

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16
Q

What do we call an expected but unintended effect of a drug?

A

A side effect.

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17
Q

How do side effects differ from adverse or idiosyncratic effects?

A

Side effect = predictable, unintended (e.g., drowsiness with antihistamines).

Adverse effect = harmful, undesirable, may require discontinuation.

Idiosyncratic effect = rare, unpredictable, often genetic in nature.

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18
Q

What drug form is used the least in the surgical department?

A

Solid

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19
Q

Most drugs are excreted and eliminated by what organ?

A

Kidney

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20
Q

The abbreviation NPO represents:

A

Nothing by mouth

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21
Q

What drug is given as an antidote to warfarin?

A

Vitamin K

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22
Q

Volatile anesthetic agents are eliminated from the body via:

A

the lungs

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23
Q

Why would a local anesthetic, injected into an infected wound, not produce the intended effect?

A

Because the local anesthetic could not reach the site of action

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24
Q

What federal action sets the standards for quality and requires proper medication labeling for preparations containing morphine?

A

Pure Food and Drug Act

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25
Demerol is an example of a:
Synthetic drug Demerol (generic: meperidine) is a fully synthetic opioid analgesic, unlike morphine, which is naturally derived from opium.
26
Never capitalized on the label
A medication’s generic name
27
C-II
controlled substance
28
What should be done to an otic suspension medication to dilute the particles before it is administered to the patient?
It must be shaken
29
Seven o’clock in the morning, military time, would be written as:
0700
30
What is 25% of 50?
12.5 Explanation: 25% = 0.25, so 0.25 × 50 = 12.5 0.25×50=12.5.
31
0.25% is expressed as a fraction as:
25/100
32
1 gram of an antibiotic is equal to _______ mL of fluid.
1 mL
33
For an infant surgical procedure, the operating room temperature must be warm. Your surgeon wants to know the current temperature in Fahrenheit, but you know the temperature is 38 degrees Celsius. What is the Fahrenheit temperature?
100.4 100.4 F = (38×1.8)+32=68.4+32=100.4
34
The most common type of syringe used in surgery is the:
Luer-loc
35
When recapping a needle you should:
use the one-handed method
36
Disease-causing microorganisms are called:
pathogens
37
A series of tests used to identify disease-causing microorganisms and to determine their susceptibility to various antibiotics is called:
culture and sensitivity
38
Prophylactic antibiotics are prescribed to:
prevent infections
39
Endogenous infection occurs from:
the patient’s own bacteria
40
Among the most common causative agents of SSI are bacteria known as
Staphylococcus aureus.
41
An antimicrobial agent used to inhibit bacterial growth is called
bacteriostatic
42
Why is Neomycin available only in topical form?
Available only in topical form because it is too toxic for systemic use
43
Category of antibiotics known to be ototoxic and nephrotoxic
Aminoglycosides
44
Who discovered penicillin?
Alexander Fleming
45
A way of distinguishing between two types of bacteria is called
Gram staining
46
A sulfonamide cream that is used as a topical dressing for burn patients is called
Silvadene cream (silver sulfadiazine).
47
What ointment is a naturally occurring antibiotic produced by fermentation and used as an intranasal packing?
Bactroban (mupirocin)
48
Pharmacologic agents used in diagnostic radiographic testing:
Contrast media
49
The pharmacologic agent used to delineate lymph nodes:
Lymphazurin (isosulfan blue dye).
50
Acetic acid is used to:
identify cervical dysplasia.
51
Staining agents are used surgically to
identify abnormal cells.
52
During an operative cholangiogram, saline is injected to
verify catheter placement.
53
To perform a Schiller’s test of the cervix, what agent is applied topically?
Lugol’s solution
54
What agent is used to mark skin incisions?
Dyes
55
A chemical agent is brought into the OR suite by the circulating nurse, during a laser procedure of the cervix. It smells like vinegar—what do you suspect the chemical agent is?
Acetic acid
56
What dye is administered intravenously so that it can be excreted by the kidneys to show immediate damage to bladder or ureters?
Indigo carmine
57
What procedure uses methylene blue in order to verify patent tubes?
Chromopertubation
58
What contrast media is approved for intrathecal use?
Omnipaque-240
59
If a surgical patient has a positive shellfish allergy and is undergoing a procedure that requires the use of a contrast media, what should the SFA do?
Have nonionic contrast agents available Nonionic (low-osmolar) contrast agents are safer in patients with a history of allergies, including shellfish. Shellfish allergy is due to tropomyosin, not iodine itself, but these patients are still considered at higher risk of contrast reaction.
60
Many radiopaque contrast media contain barium or
iodine
61
How is Lymphazurin blue 1% used to find a sentinel node?
The surgeon follows its path to the node. Lymphazurin blue is injected near the tumor, and the surgeon visually follows the blue dye through lymphatic channels to locate the sentinel lymph node (first node draining the tumor area).
62
The definition of a diuretic medication is an agent that prevents the reabsorption of sodium and water by what organs?
Kidneys
63
What term indicates an abnormally high concentration of potassium in the blood?
Hyperkalemia
64
When too much potassium is excreted, the resulting condition is called
Hypokalemia
65
What is the normal range for serum potassium?
3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L
66
The diuretic medication that draws fluid out of tissues and into the circulatory system is called
Osmotic
67
The trade, or brand name, for mannitol is
Osmitrol
68
The trade, or brand name, for furosemide is
Lasix
69
What is classified as a high-ceiling diuretic medication and is used to decrease intracranial pressure?
Lasix (furosemide)
70
What cardiac condition requires treatment with diuretics?
Congestive heart failure (CHF)
71
What diuretic is contraindicated in patients with hypertension?
Osmotic diuretics Osmotic diuretics (e.g., mannitol) increase plasma volume before pulling fluid into urine, which can worsen hypertension and heart failure.
72
What electrolyte may be seriously depleted in patients taking certain diuretics?
Potassium (K⁺)
73
Potassium-sparing diuretics are commonly used to treat what conditions?
Edema
74
What medication is a loop diuretic?
Lasix (furosemide)
75
The only diuretic administered from the sterile back table is
Mannitol Mannitol (Osmitrol), an osmotic diuretic, is sometimes administered sterilely from the back table during neurosurgical or ophthalmic procedures to reduce intracranial or intraocular pressure. Other diuretics are administered by anesthesia.
76
What is the primary concern for nonemergency surgical patients with low potassium?
Cardiac arrest
77
Diuretics help to lower blood pressure by
lowering blood volume
78
Why is it necessary to place a urinary catheter in a surgical patient undergoing a procedure during which diuretics will be administered?
Because of large amounts of urine excreted
79
What glands is called the master gland?
Pituitary
80
What glands has both endocrine and exocrine functions?
Pancreas
81
What hormones is necessary for the stimulation of uterine contractions during labor and delivery?
Oxytocin
82
What medications may be injected directly into the uterine muscle after a cesarean section?
Pitocin (oxytocin)
83
Oxytocin is available under which trade name?
Pitocin
84
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is produced by what gland?
Pituitary
85
Premarin cream might be used in the surgical setting for what procedure?
Vaginal hysterectomy Premarin (conjugated estrogens) cream is sometimes applied to vaginal tissue before or during surgery (like vaginal hysterectomy) to improve tissue strength and elasticity.
86
A condition in which endometrial tissue is found outside the uterus is called
Endometriosis
87
After natural delivery of an infant, what else would oxytocin help to accomplish?
Stop postpartum bleeding
88
What hormones is given for palliative treatment of metastatic breast cancer?
Estrogen Estrogen (or anti-estrogen therapy depending on receptor status) may be used in palliative treatment of metastatic breast cancer to slow tumor progression.
89
What concentration of epinephrine is for topical use only?
1:1000 Epinephrine 1:1000 is too concentrated for injection and is restricted to topical use only (e.g., hemostasis on mucous membranes). Injectable concentrations are usually 1:100,000 or 1:200,000 (diluted, often mixed with local anesthetics).
90
Drugs that relieve symptoms of a condition but do not cure it are
Palliative
91
What is the generic name for Decadron?
Dexamethasone
92
What is the generic name for Solu-Medrol?
Methylprednisolone
93
What pancreatic hormones stimulates the liver to break down glycogen into glucose to increase the blood sugar level?
Glucagon
94
Human insulin produced through recombinant DNA technology is
Humulin
95
What hormone is responsible for the development of male sex organs and secondary sex characteristics?
Testosterone
96
What is prescribed preoperatively for patients scheduled for endometrial ablation?
Danocrine (danazol) Danocrine is a synthetic androgen used to suppress the pituitary-ovarian axis, reducing estrogen production and causing endometrial atrophy. This makes ablation more effective.